Introduction to Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

cancer occurs when there is a genetic mutation that leads to

A

proliferation of a colony of malignant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define uncontrolled proliferation

A

cancer cells lack or fail to respond to normal mechanisms that control cell division or growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are some cellular changes of cancer

A

loss of some or all of their differentiation characteristics
some changes to chromosomes, proteins, enzymes
can’t perform ntended functions of origin tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

solid tumors are classified by

A

their tissue of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

carcinomas originated in

A

surface epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

adenocarcinomas originated in

A

glandular (epithelial) tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

osteosarcoma originated in

A

bone (connective tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

rhabdomyosarcoma originated in

A

striated muscle (connective tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

leiomyosarcoma originated in

A

smooth muscle (connective tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

glioblastomas originate in

A

glial tissue (neural)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

astrocytomas originate in

A

astrocytes (neural)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

melanomas originate in

A

melanocytes (dermal tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

germinomas originate in

A

germ cells (gonadal tissues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

liquid or hematologic malignancies are classified based on ____ and further divided based on ________

A

cell origin
pathology/cell lineage and presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

leukemia cell of origin

A

hematopoetic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

lymphoma cell of origin

A

lymphoid tissue cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

multiple myeloma cell of origin

A

plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

carcinogenesis 4 steps

A

initiation
promotion
conversion
progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

initiation is

A

genetic alteration / exposure to carcinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

promotion is

A

carcinogens or other things changes the environment to favor the growth of the changed cell pp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

conversion/ transformation is

A

the altered cells become cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

progression is

A

further genetic alterations that result in increased proliferation of cancerous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T or F: germline mutation is inherited and present in all cells

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T or F: somatic gene mutation is acquired and only in some cells

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
a gene that has the potential to cause cancer
oncogene
26
oncogenes begin as ______ and are upregulated through mutations to oncogenes
protooncogenes
27
an activated oncogene leads to
excessive production of genetic product (cell signals/ products) = dysregulation
28
T or F: protooncogenes are normal and are still regulators of normal cellular function
T
29
the mutation that takes a protooncogene to an oncogene is usually
acquired
30
what regulates and inhibits inappropriate cellular growth and proliferation
tumor suppressor genes
31
damage to DNA repair genes results in
errors in DNA not corrected, leading to activation of oncogenes or deactivation of tumor suppressor genes
32
6 hallmarks of cancer
1. sustained proliferative signaling 2. replicative immortality 3. resisting cell death 4. evading growth suppressors 5. inducing angiogenesis 6. activating invasion and metastasis
33
T or F: cancer cells are differentiated
F- and can't perform function of origin tissue
34
local metastasis generally invade the
lymphatic system
35
distant metastasis commonly involve the
brain, lungs, bone, liver
36
metastasis retain the characteristics of the ________________
primary cancer
37
cancer's 7 warning signs (referral)
1. changing bowel/ bladder habits 2. lump in breasts 3. unusual bleed or discharge 4. diff swallowing/ indigestion 5. obvious changes in wart or mole 6. chronic cough or hoarseness
38
radiation therapy kills cancer cells or slows their growth by
damaging the DNA (once DNA is damaged beyond repair = die)
39
3 ways that surgery can treat cancer
removal of primary tumor removal of lymph nodes reduce metastases
40
what therapy damages or kills dividing cells, targeting more rapidly reproducing cells
cytotoxic chemo
41
what therapy impacts cell signaling or signal transduction within the cell by targeting specific gene mutations or cell surface receptors
targeted therapies
42
immunotherapies MOA
influence the body's immune response to malignant cells
43
endocrine therapies MOA
manipulate hormone production or actions for cancers that are hormone dependent
44
angiogenesis inhibitors MOA
impact cell signaling or processes that influences angiogenesis
45
impetus for workup may include
palpation of a mass or nodule routine lab tests new or nonresolving sx screening test results
46
cancer pt workup includes
hx and physical exam (consider exposure to carcinogens) lab tests (tumor markers if available) imaging
47
why is a pathologist dx essential
many benign tumors can mimic appearance of cancer
48
tissue is obtained through a biopsy through
excision, core, or fine needle aspirate (or surgical resection)
49
what tests can be performed on tissues to characterize the maligancy
tumor classification identify any biomarkers determine tumor grade
50
a tumor grade is assigned based on
histopathologic type morphologic features degree of differentiation
51
`a higher tumor grade means
more aggressive tumor and worse prognosis
52
indicative of pt survival independent of treatment received + indicator of innate tumor aggressiveness
prognostic biomarker
53
indicative of therapeutic efficacy because there is an interaction between the biomarker and therapy on pt outcome
predictive biomarker
54
identification and documentation of the structure of a specific DNA, RNA, or protein molecule for purpose of dx or characterization of a genetic disorder
molecular profiling
55
what can summarize the somatic mutations present
molecular profiling
56
testing samples of tissue (cancer) to look for changes in the chromosomes of the cells
cytogenetics
57
gene mutation screening assays include
fluorescence in situ hybridization PCR next gen sequencing
58
4 types of mutations
insertion deletion translocation insertion
59
trade of DNA pieces between chromosomes
translocation
60
ki-67 measures
growth rate or doubling time is a protein in dividing cells
61
ki-67 is measured by
immunohistochemsitry
62
ki-67 could be a _______ biomarker and provide insight into
prognostic aggressiveness + response to chemo
63
TNM system for staging solid tumors stands for
T- size of primary tumor N- lymph node involvement M- presence of metastases S- serum markers (only for testicular cancer)
64
cancer staging signifies the extent of disease for
solid tumors
65
the higher the stage, the _____ the cancer
worse (0-4)
66
define neoadjuvant chemo
use of chemo prior to local treatment usually to increase effectiveness of later treatment by reducing tumor bruden
67
define adjuvant therapy
use of a treatment after local treatment may be to destroy residual or undetectable tumor cells/ reduce risk of recurrance
68
palliative therapy is
use of a treatment to alleviate/ reduce sx, stabilize disease/ slow progression, improve/ maintain quality of life
69
define induction therapy
giving chemo to induce remission
70
define consolidation
after induction, given to keep pt in remission
71
define maintenance after induction and consolidation
to hold remission
72
considerations when choosing pharm for cancer
age, ECOG, comorbidities. cancer type/ stage/ grade, molecular profiling, tx goals
73
what is the ECOG
a performance scale on 0-5 and informs how the disease is impacting a pt's daily living abilities and inform tx decisions
74
"cure" of cancer as a GOT is defined as _______________ and measured as ___________ in literature
pt is cancer free and expected to have a lifespan eq to general pop literature/ trials = 5 yrs disease free survival
75
for prolonging survival, antineoplastic pharmcol is measured in trials as
progression free survival = number/ proportion of pts that are still alive and free of disease progression
76
what is median progression free survival
the time that 50% died/ progressed with cancer
77
what is overall survival
proportion of pts that are still alive at any spec time takes into account death of any cause- even from med toxicities
78
antineoplastic agents often have a _____ therapeutic window
narrow
79
dose limiting toxicity is
an agent's specific toxicities that caps how much can be administered
80
dosing can be based on
BSA renal fxn flat dosing adj for organ fxn
81
frequency for cytotoxic agents
given cyclically to give body time to recover
82
frequency for targeted oral agents (small molecules_
many administered daily for several consecutive days followed by rest period
83
freq for targeted IV therapies (monoclonal antibodies)
administered IV cyclically with chemo v long half life
84
concepts to max efficacy in combo therapies
each drug must have clinical activity against tumor alone each drug should have a different MOA combinations should be synergistic