ISBB Questionnaire Flashcards by Jena Sy

Adaptive immunity can be described as follows except:

a. There is a differentiation of self from non-self
b. Usually responds after weeks of infection
c. Has a standardized magnitude of response
d. This kind of immunity is self-limited

c. Has a standardized magnitude of response

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Who received a Nobel prize because of discovering phagocytosis?

a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

d. Ellie Metchnikoff

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Discovered hybridoma technique used for the production of monoclonal antibodies

a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

a. Kholer & Milstein

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discovered how the immune system produces millions of antibodies to combat almost any microorganism

a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

b. Susumo Tonegawa

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discovered chemical structure of antibodies

a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

c. Edelman & Porter

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The immunoglobulin class typically found in saliva, tears and other body secretions is

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

c. IgA

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smallest Ab, clinically significant, most common Ab, found in blood and other body fluids

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

a. IgG

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mainly in blood and lymph fluid, 1st Ab that the body makes when it fights new infection

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

b. IgM

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least understood Ab, only in small amounts in the blood

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

d. IgD

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which ab is described as small amounts in blood, lungs, skin, and mucous membranes; can be found in higher amounts when body overreacts to allergens or fighting an infection from a parasite

a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgD

b. IgE

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Type of interferon for non-specific immunity.

a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon

a. Type 1 interferon

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Which interferon is secreted by the leukocytes?

a. Type 1 alpha interferon
b. Type 1 beta interferon
c. Type 2 interferon
d. Type 3 interferon

a. Type 1 alpha interferon

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Which interferon is produced by double stranded fibroblasts?

a. Type 1 alpha interferon
b. Type 1 beta interferon
c. Type 2 interferon
d. Type 3 interferon

b. Type 1 beta interferon

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Which interferon is a specific immunity, majority produced by T cells?

a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon

b. Type 2 interferon

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Which interferon is consists of 4 lambda molecules; its function is similar to type 1 but less intense and serves mostly as first-line defense against the viruses in epithelium?

a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon

c. Type 3 interferon

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Step in phagocytosis where enclosement of the pathogen into a phagocytic vacuole happens

a. Chemotaxis
b. Diapedesis
c. Elimination
d. Phagolysosome

d. Phagolysosome

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Chemicals released by mast cells when sensitized.

a. Histamine
b. Heparin
c. Both
d. Neither

c. Both

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The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is:

a. Agglutination
b. Precipitation
c. Sensitization
d. Opsonization

b. Precipitation

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The serological test that can be modified to selectively detect only specific IgM antibody in
untreated serum is:

a. ouchterlony
b. enzyme immunoassay
c. hemagglutination inhibition
d. passive hemagglutination

b. enzyme immunoassay

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The Treponema pallidum Immobilization (TPI) test requires

a. Reagin
b. an extract of a pathogenic treponemes
c. Treponema pallidum fixed on a slide
d. living Treponema pallidum

d. living Treponema pallidum

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C3 convertase in classical pathway

a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b

a. C4b2a

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C3 convertase of alternative pathway

a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b

b. C3bBb

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C5 convertase of lectin pathway

a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b

c. C4b2a3b

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C5 convertase of alternative pathway

a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b

d. C3bBb3b

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A graft between genetically unidentical individual of the same species a. Autograft b. Isograft c. Allograft d. Xenograft

c. Allograft

Part of antibody which binds foreign substance: a. Epitope b. Paratope c. Hinge region d. Fc region

b. Paratope

area in the Ag of the foreign body which binds to the Ab a. Epitope b. Paratope c. Hinge region d. Fc region

a. Epitope

Which IgG subclass is MOST efficient at crossing placenta? a. IgG1 b. IgG2 c. IgG3 d. IGG4

a. IgG1

Lactic acid production during pathogenic infection could cause what cardinal sign of inflammation? a. Rubor b. Dolor c. Calor d. Tumor

b. Dolor

Techniques to inactivate serum: 1) Heat serum at 56 C for 30 minutes 2) Heat 60 to 62 C for 3 to 4 minutes 3) Refrigerate 56 C for 10 minutes 4) Addition of choline chloride a. 1,3 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 1,2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Which one of the following immunoglobulins is produced in the greatest amount during anamnestic response? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. IgE

c. IgG

17. It is also known as the complete pathway: a. Classical b. Alternative: Properdin pathway c. MBL: Lectin pathway d. Properdin

a. Classical

Membrane attack complex are made up of: a. C4b56789 b. C5b6789 c. C3b456789 d. C5a6789

b. C5b6789

What are the CD markers to distinguish NK cell from other immune cells? a. CD4 and CD8 b. CD2 and CD3 c. CD16 and CD56 d. CD12 and CD58

c. CD16 and CD56

sheep RBC receptor a. CD4 b. CD2 c. CD16 d. CD12

b. CD2

T helper cells: receptor of MHC class II molecule a. CD4 b. CD2 c. CD16 d. CD12

a. CD4

CD marker part of T cell Ag-receptor complex a. CD4 b. CD2 c. CD3 d. CD12

c. CD3

CD marker part of T suppressor & T cytotoxic cells: receptor of MHC class I molecule a. CD8 b. CD2 c. CD3 d. CD12

a. CD8

20. Which of the following is the impaired mobility of neutrophil? a. Neutropenia b. Chronic Granulomatous Disease c. Lazy leukocyte syndrome d. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

c. Lazy leukocyte syndrome

Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity? a. Type 1 - Anaphylaxis, asthma, bee sting b. Type 2 - transfusion reactions c. Type 3 - SLE, serum sickness, arthus reaction d. Type 4 - contact dermatitis, poison Ivy, tuberculin test, Leprosy

a. Type 1 - Anaphylaxis, asthma, bee sting

Which of the following cells represent approximately 1 percent of the white blood cells in peripheral blood. They have a half-life of about 3 days and they contain histamine-rich granules and high-affinity receptors for IgE? a. Basophil - few granules, smooth membrane b. Mast Cell - half-life: months, comprising 10% of the WBC, many granules, membrane projections c. Eosinophil d. Neutrophil

a. Basophil - few granules, smooth membrane

The initial force of attraction that exists between a single Fab site on an antibody molecule and a single epitope a. Avidity - sum of all attractive forces between an Ag and Ab b. Dissociation constant c. Affinity d. Zeta potential ʹ parameter that measures the electrochemical equilibrium at the particle-liquid interface

c. Affinity

Adjuvants are added to vaccines to: a. Decrease toxicity b. Increase absorption c. Increase specificity d. Increase immune response

d. Increase immune response

Spurr formation is found on what type of reaction in Ouchterlony technique: a. Identity b. Partial identity c. Non- identity d. All of the Above

b. Partial identity

Stage of syphilitic infection with appearance of hard chancre. a. Primary syphilis b. Secondary syphilis c. Latent syphilis d. All of the Choices

a. Primary syphilis

Stage of syphilitic infection with characterized by generalized rash and lesions and Condylomata lata appearance a. Primary syphilis b. Secondary syphilis c. Latent syphilis d. All of the Choices

b. Secondary syphilis

Asymptomatic, Generally 2nd year of infection, Only indication of infection is a positive serologic test (no lesion and no dark field to detect) No symptoms being shown a. Primary syphilis b. Secondary syphilis c. Latent syphilis d. All of the Choices

b. Secondary syphilis

stage of syphilis that has condylomata lata appearance a. Primary syphilis b. Secondary syphilis c. Latent syphilis d. All of the Choices

b. Secondary syphilis

Type of syphilis that the only indication of infection is a positive serologic test (no lesion and no dark field to detect) a. Primary syphilis b. Secondary syphilis c. Latent syphilis d. All of the Choices

c. Latent syphilis

stage of syphilis that has destructive lesions known as Gummas and tested in Neurosyphilis (spx: CSF) a. Primary syphilis b. Secondary syphilis c. tertiary syphilis d. All of the Choices

c. tertiary syphilis

Widal test is used for the diagnosis of what species? a. Ricketssia b. Proteus c. Salmonella d. Brucella

c. Salmonella * test: diagnosis of Typhoid fever (S. typhi)

Strong reaction in OX-K indicates what rickettsial disease? (OX-19, OX-2) a. Scrub b. Rocky mountain spotted fever c. Q fever d. Rickettsial pox

a. Scrub

OX 19 reaction a. Scrub b. Rocky mountain spotted fever c. Q fever d. Rickettsial pox

b. Rocky mountain spotted fever

1st marker to appear in HBV infection a. HBsAg b. HbeAg c. Anti-HBs d. Anti-Hbe

a. HBsAg

high level of virus which indicates high infectivity a. HBsAg b. HbeAg c. Anti-HBs d. Anti-Hbe

b. HbeAg

The optimal ratio, when most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen is referred to as: a. Prozone b. Post zone c. Zone of equivalence d. Zone of inhibition

c. Zone of equivalence

Ab excess a. Prozone b. Post zone c. Zone of equivalence d. Zone of inhibition

a. Prozone

Ag excess a. Prozone b. Post zone c. Zone of equivalence d. Zone of inhibition

b. Post zone

Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within 2 weeks. a. Hyperacute b. Acute c. Accelerated d. Chronic

b. Acute (7-21 days)

Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within minutes a. Hyperacute b. Acute c. Accelerated d. Chronic

a. Hyperacute

Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within 2-5 days a. Hyperacute b. Acute c. Accelerated d. Chronic

c. Accelerated

Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs later than 3 months a. Hyperacute b. Acute c. Accelerated d. Chronic

d. Chronic

Known as the minor MHC antigen that is involved in complement component C2, C4 and factor B. a. MHC II b. MHC I c. MHC III d. Factor X

c. MHC III

MHC antigen that is present in all nucleated cells, process cytoplasmically derived antigens and presented to CD8+ cells a. MHC II b. MHC I c. MHC III d. Factor X

b. MHC I

MHC antigen that is present in macrophages in cell, dendritic cells and antigen presenting cells, process extracellularly derived antigens and presented to CD 4 + cells a. MHC II b. MHC I c. MHC III d. Factor X

a. MHC II

A device used to measure radioactivity in radioimmunoassay: a. Spectrophotometer b. Fluorometer c. Scintillation counter d. Transmission electron microscope

c. Scintillation counter

A serologic test for syphilis that depends on upon the detection of cadiolipin-lecithin- cholesterol antigen. a. FTA-ABS b. TPI c. RPR d. MHA-TP

c. RPR

Nichol's strain a. FTA-ABS b. TPI c. RPR d. MHA-TP

a. FTA-ABS

What is the most common bacterial contaminant in blood products? a. S. liquefaciens b. S. epidermidis c. Y. enterocolitica d. B. cereus

c. Y. enterocolitica

fried rice syndrome- one of the most common causes of food poisoning a. S. liquefaciens b. S. epidermidis c. Y. enterocolitica d. B. cereus

d. B. cereus

Transfer of cells or tissues to a member of different species: a. Xenograft b. Allograft c. Isograft d. Autograft

a. Xenograft

Transfer of cells or tissues to the same individual a. Xenograft b. Allograft c. Isograft d. Autograft

d. Autograft

Transfer of cells or tissues from an identical individual a. Xenograft b. Allograft c. Isograft d. Autograft

c. Isograft

Transfer of cells or tissues from a non-identical of the same species a. Xenograft b. Allograft c. Isograft d. Autograft

d. Autograft

Most sensitive test for HbsAg detection: a. Ouchterlony double diffusion b. Reversed passive hemagglutination c. Counter electrophoresis d. Complement fixation

b. Reversed passive hemagglutination (3rd generation test)

1st generation test for HbsAg detection a. Ouchterlony double diffusion b. Reversed passive hemagglutination c. Counter electrophoresis d. Complement fixation

a. Ouchterlony double diffusion

2nd generation test/s for HbsAg detection a. Ouchterlony double diffusion b. both c and d c. Counter electrophoresis d. Complement fixation

b. both c and d

Most common and easiest method to detect VZV antibodies: a. Tzanck test b. DAT c. ELISA d. FAMA

c. ELISA

reference method to detect VZV antibodies a. Tzanck test b. DAT c. ELISA d. FAMA

d. FAMA

test that uses stained smear to detect inclusions for VZV antibodies a. Tzanck test b. DAT c. ELISA d. FAMA

a. Tzanck test

Tumor marker for choriocarcinoma: a. CEA b. PSA c. AFP d. HCG

d. HCG (Human chorionic gonadotropin)

Tumor marker for prostate a. CEA b. PSA c. AFP d. HCG

b. PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen)

Tumor marker for liver a. CEA b. PSA c. AFP d. HCG

c. AFP Alpha Fetoprotein

If an IgG spike is observed on serum electrophoretic pattern, what diagnosis does this suggest? a. Multiple myeloma b. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia d. Hypogammaglobulinemia

a. Multiple myeloma

Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: a. Joint pain and tenderness b. Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood c. Associated with HLA-DR genes d. All of the above

d. All of the above

42. The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is located on: a. Chromosome 3 b. Chromosome 6 c. Chromosome 21 d. Chromosome 22

b. Chromosome 6

P gene is located on a. Chromosome 3 b. Chromosome 6 c. Chromosome 21 d. Chromosome 22

a. Chromosome 3

P1 gene is located on a. Chromosome 3 b. Chromosome 6 c. Chromosome 21 d. Chromosome 22

c. Chromosome 21

Which of the following antigens is a MHC class II antigen? a. HLA-A b. HLA-DQ c. HLA-DR d. Both b and c

a. HLA-A

An early marker of beta pancreatic cell destruction is _____ antibody. a. Anti-DNA: SLE b. Anti-islet cell c. Antinuclear d. Anti-intrinsic factor

b. Anti-islet cell

associated with pernicious anemia a. Anti-DNA: SLE b. Anti-islet cell c. Antinuclear d. Anti-intrinsic factor

d. Anti-intrinsic factor

Mannose binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component? a. C3 b. C1rs c. C1q d. C4

c. C1q

increase level indicates acute inflammatory disease a. C3 b. C1rs c. C1q d. C4

a. C3

most sensitive indicator of disease activity a. C3 b. C1rs c. C1q d. C4

d. C4

Which of the following is associated with artificial acquired passive immunity? a. Clinical infection b. Tetanus vaccine c. Breast milk d. RhIg

d. RhIg

naturally acquired passive immunity a. Clinical infection b. Tetanus vaccine c. Breast milk d. RhIg

c. Breast milk

artificially acquired active immunity a. Clinical infection b. Tetanus vaccine c. Breast milk d. RhIg

b. Tetanus vaccine

Cross pattern(s) in Ouchterlony Double Diffusion means: a. Non-identity b. Partial identity c. All the above

a. Non-identity

In which zone might an antibody-screening test be false negative? a. Prozone b. Zone of equivalence c. Postzone d. None of the above

a. Prozone

Patients at risk for graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) include each of the following, except recipients of a. bone marrow transplants b. lung transplants c. liver transplants d. irradiated leukocytes

d. irradiated leukocytes

Which of the following is associated with anaphylaxis? a. Buildup of IgE on mast cells b. Activation of complement c. Increase in cytotoxic T cells d. Large amount of circulating IgG

a. Buildup of IgE on mast cells

ISBB Questionnaire Flashcards

(101 cards)