IV practical sessions Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

steps to iv

A
  • wash hands and wear gloves
  • sterilise your equipment tray with a 70% alcohol wipe
  • add equipment in preparation for cannulation
  • apply tourniquet
  • insertion site should be visually inspected and vein palpated in antecubital fossa
  • wipe site with 70% alcohol and wait to dry
  • open sterile cannula
  • hold needle bevel over middle of vein
  • insert needle at shallow angle then reduce once in vein
  • secure cannula using tape/ dressing
  • remove needle and dispose in a sharps box
  • check for flashback
  • remove tourniquet
  • flush with 0.9% saline to check vein is patent
  • check for pain, swelling, bruising, if extravasation STOP
  • remove needle and apply pressure for 3 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what should you check with the patient for prior to removing the needle

A

if the patient takes anticoagulants (blood thinners)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

early detection pointers for extravasation

A
  • pt complains of moderate or severe pain, burning, stinging or acute changes at injection site
  • redness, swelling or leakage at injection site
  • resistance experienced when attempting to flush cannula
  • high pressure registered in injector system when administering medication
  • no blood return is observed or aspiration - the presence of blood does not exclude extravasation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the steps for initial first aid

A
  • stop injector pump immediately (disconnect)
  • explain to the pt what you think may have happened , inform radiologist on call to come and assess
  • aspirate residual drug and blood from cannula
  • apply cold compress
  • elevate affected limb
  • if over 20mls delivered, plastic surgeon on call consulted
  • provide pt extravasation pt aftercare leaflet
  • complete incident form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PGD

A

patient group direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PSD

A

patient-specific direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why were PGDs and PSDs developed

A

to facilitate optimal service provision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

who can work under PGD

A

only professional groups such as radiographers, HCAs cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a PSD

A

a direct written instruction for a named pt, unlike PGD is doesnt require assessment of patient
- the radiographer writes the type, strength and amount of contrast agent given to the named pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what should PSDs include

A
  • name of pt
  • route of administeration
  • frequency
  • date of treatment
  • signature of prescriber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what should radiographers be aware of when it comes to PGDs and PSDs

A
  • associated literature like aftercare sheets
  • the doctor available in case of adverse drug reactions
  • inclusion and exclusion criteria
  • recording of type, dosage and route of administration of contrast media
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

PGDs and their future summed up

A
  • has been audited from a number of trusts
  • found that the decision making around PGDs were problematic and sometimes inconsistent
  • agreed it isnt the suitable mechanism for administration of contrast media however no other mechanisms have been determined
  • new PGD templates = reviewed by specialists, regularly updated and ensure clinical and legislative parameters are met
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are new drugs to the market called

A

black triangle drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what scheme should adverse drug affects be reported to?

A

yellow card scheme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the yellow card scheme

A

collects information on suspected problems or incidents involving side effects, medical device adverse incidents, defective medicines, counterfeit/ fake medicines and safety concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MHRA

A

medicines and healthcare products regulatory agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CM

A

contrast media

18
Q

what is an IV contrast agent

A

alters opacity of vessels, tissues and cavities within body when using imaging modalities and increase contrast difference between structures

19
Q

what is an active ingredient in omniopaque

A

ioxegol - 46% iodine
- a chemical compound in a solution specific to each modaliity

20
Q

what is the clinical significance of IV contrast media

A
  • enhanced visibility of vascularised structures
  • perfused
  • allows enhanced localisation, visualisation and treatment of abnormalities. disease/ lesions
21
Q

why IV instead of IA contrast examinations

A
  • depends on anatomy being visualised and treatment being done
  • consider risks and which route is more high risk
21
Q

how does IV contrast function for x ray

A

alters attenuation

21
Q

how does IV contrast function for MRI

A

alters paramagnetic effects

21
Q

how does IV contrast function for US

A

alters echogenicity ( reflection of sound waves)

21
what are the characteristics of IV contrast for X ray
- contains iodine (iodinated contrast) - eg omniopaque/ visipaque - effective contrast due to iodine high atomic number and ease of attachment to organic compounds
21
how does IV contrast alter x-ray attenuation?
- body mostly made up of fat and water - contain lots of hydrogen, oxygen and carbon
21
how does IV contrast affect x ray attenuation
IV contrast contains Iodine which has a high atomic number, absorbs more x rays
22
why does a higher atomic number mean greater x ray absorption
atoms with higher atomic number have more and tightly bound electrons making x ray absorption more likely
22
what contrast does MRI use?
gadolinium
23
what does a t1 weighted image mean
- lower signal for water - high signal for fat
24
what does a t2 T2-weighted image mean
- lower signal for fat - higher signal for water
25
iv contrast for ultrasound
- contains the inert gas sulphur hexafluoride - eg sonovue - microbubbles increase the echogenicity of the anatomy - higher echogenicity appears lighter on images
26
what does osmolality determine
the amount of fluid shift/ transfer across blood cell membranes
27
low osmolar contrast medium
- causes minimal fluid transfer across membrane, out of RBCs
28
iso osmolar
- causes no fluid transfer across membrane of RBCs is the least nephrotoxic contrast media
29
high osmolar contrast medium
causes fluid transfer across RBCs due to the osmotic gradient caused by high osmolality of CM compared to blood
30
contrast used for CT and its purpose
- iodinated IV - enhances vessels/ organs via XR absorption
31
Contrast used for MRI and its purpose
- gadolinium - alters magnetic properties, improves signal
32
contrast used for US and its purpose
- microbubble agents - reflect sound, used in echocardiography and liver imaging
33
non ionic contrast media
- do not dissociate into ions in solution - lower osmolality --> fewer side effects - better tolerated in most patients
34
ionic contrast media
- dissociate into charged particles - high osmolality --> more discomfort and higher risk of adverse reactions - less expensive, used in limited cases today