JCAB Q'S Flashcards Preview

Undeleted > JCAB Q'S > Flashcards

Flashcards in JCAB Q'S Deck (440):
1

Dimensions of the B767

Wingspan: (non-winglet) 47.57m 156 feet 1inch
Wingspan: (winglet) 50.88m 166 feet 11 inch
Length: 54.94m 180 ft 3 inch
Height: 15.85m 52 feet

2

2. How many checklists require memory items:CLARIFY

There are 11 checklists that require memory items (Abort for Airspeed & APU fire + the Cabin has Dual controllers, 4Engine, FU)
- Aborted engine start
- Airspeed / Mach unreliable
- APU fire
- Cabin altitude / Rapid depressurisation
- Dual engine failure
- Engine fire
- Engine limit / surge / stall
- Engine severe damage / separation
- Engine tail pipe fire
- Flight deck door / auto unlock light flashing
- Unscheduled stabiliser trim

3

How many un-annunciated non-normal checklists are there?

31 checklists (examples… Aborted engine start, engine surge/limit/stall, unreliable airspeed)

4

What are the 7 scenarios that require an emergency landing?

- One main hydraulic system remaining
- One main AC power source remaining
- When trouble occurs in the altimeter, and a correct altitude cannot be confirmed with related procedures or a standby altimeter
- The non-normal checklist contains the words “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”
- Cabin smoke or fire which cannot be immediately and positively determined to be extinguished or eliminated
- Engine failure or engine fire
- Any other situation where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued (illegal activity, sick passenger)

5

5. What checklists contain the words “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”?

- PACK OFF (if both packs have failed)
- Window damage
- AC BUS OFF (if both BUS OFF lights remain illuminated)
- Engine failure / shutdown
- Reverser unlocked (if REV is annunciated and accompanied by yaw, loss of speed or buffet)
- Volcanic ash
- APU FIRE
- CARGO FIRE
- ENGINE FIRE
- WHEEL WELL FIRE
- Smoke / fire / fumes
- LOW FUEL
- HYD PRESS (when only one system remaining)
- TAIL STRIKE

6

6. What is the difference between the windshear escape manoeuver and the GPWS escape manoeuver?

- The windshear manoeuver can be flown manually or automatically
- The GPWS manoeuver is ALWAYS flown manually
- The initial pitch attitude for windshear is 15 degrees
- The initial pitch attitude for GPWS is 20 degrees
- Windshear follows FD commands, whereas GPWS doesn’t and can go up to PLI
- If positive visual verification is made under day VMC prior to PULL UP warning, correct the flight path immediately until the aural
warning stops
- Reason for making 15 deg NU for w/shear – higher the pitch attitude the higher the windshear recover ability is, but at the same time
need to consider stick shaker margin – therefore 15 deg is a compromise on both recovery ability and stick shaker margin.
- PWS “GO-AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD” – during approach, normal go-around ok.

7

What is VMO / MMO?

Winglet equipped 340 / 0.86M
Winglet not equipped 360 / 0.86M

8

What is the maximum crosswind limit for a wet ungrooved runway?

20kts

9

9. When is the EICAS message cross-reference list used?

1. Prior to block out: Used to confirm the appropriate MEL for the displayed EICAS message
2. After block out but prior to the beginning of the take-off: Referred to make a decision to continue the flight or return to
blocks for displayed EICAS message after NNC completed.
**NB** Does not apply if adequate maintenance action has been carried out such as application of MEL, or the
message is a status message confirmed by maintenance as nuisance.
! GTB – No dispatch
! GTB (PIC) – The associated MEL contains any maintenance action/operational requirement turn back unless PIC
makes a decision to continue the flight based on his experience or referring the information from maintenance or
dispatch.
! FP/OP – Flight can be continued if the operational requirement (flight plan or operation procedure) of associated
MEL is satisfied. The list of associated criteria for FP/OP is contained at back of x-ref list.
! MAY GO – The flight may continue without restriction
! Display of EICAS Warning, Caution, Advisory after block-out prior to beginning of take-off – refer to x-ref list (after
completion of NNC).
! Display of Status Message after block out prior to take-off – may disregard after completion of both engines
starting.

10

10. What causes the APU to perform an automatic protective shutdown (pack control selector switches)?

When both pack control selectors are turned off quickly, high outlet bleed air is turned off very quickly, and bleed air in the duct can
surge and reverse. Therefore turn off one pack, and when the corresponding pack off light illuminates, the other pack control selector
may be turned off

11

Following an APU automatic protective shutdown, can the APU be immediately restarted?

No - The APU cannot start until the air inlet door is closed. This will take approximately 30 seconds

12

12. If the APU performs an automatic protective shutdown during a pushback, what are some considerations?

If the particular APU has a history of auto-shutdowns, select the APU bleed air switch off first, then turn off the packs, then turn the
APU bleed back on for engine start.
APU auto-shutdown cause by fluctuation of bleed duct pressure duct pressure and surging. The outlet of bleed air is momentary
sealed causing an upsurging and back-pressure of the APU compressor section.
- The APU cannot be restarted for approx. 30 seconds due to the inlet door closing
- The parking brake can still be set
- The interphone system is still powered
- The passenger address system is still powered
- Only the left VHF is powered
- The instrument panel floodlights, the standby magnetic compass light, integral lights for essential instruments on the left side and
centre panel and overhead panels are automatically switched to the Standby AC bus. The aisle stand light is also available. This will
be the only lighting available, so the flight deck will be relatively dark

13

What are the APU starter cycle limitations?

The starter duty cycle is a maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within a 60-minute period

14

14. What is the maximum crosswind limit on a grooved wet runway?

25kts

15

The FMC will provide navigation, guidance, and map display between which latitudes?

Between 87 degrees north and 87 degrees south

16

16. The IRS will provide valid magnetic heading and track between which latitudes?

Between 73 degrees north and 60 degrees south IN NAV MODE

17

17. What are some indications of volcanic ash?

(A FIRES AMBRSS)
- Smoke or ash in the cockpit or cabin
- A acrid smell similar to electrical smoke
- Multiple engine malfunctions such as stalls, increasing EGT, fluctuating parameters, torching from tailpipe etc.
- St. Elmo’s fire
- A bright orange glow in the engine inlets
ASH MAY BLOCK PITOT/STATIC SYS SO UNRELIABLE AIRSPEED OR COMPLETE LOSS AIRSPD INDICATION
- False cargo fire warnings
INCREASE CABIN ALT OR LOSS CABIN PRESS
- Shadows cast by the landing lights
- Impaired communications
- Reduction in visibility, or reduction in landing light effectiveness at night
- Abraison on windscreen
- EICAS messages FWD EQPT OVHT or FWD EQPT SMOKE may be displayed
4-3-7 (1)
- Do not land at airports effected by volcanic ash. If you do, don’t use max reverse thrust, ash on runway may effect braking, don’t use
windscreen wipers to remove ash, tow to gate, do not use APU, don’t use packs if possible.
NNC
- Exit volcanic ash ASAP 180 degree turn
- Oxygen masks On, 100%
- Smoke goggles On (If required)
- Auto-throttle OFF
- Thrust levers CLOSE (Reducing thrust = lower EGT preventing the melting of ash and solidification on turbine nozzles)
- Engine Start Selectors FLT
- Pack Control Selectors BOTH AUTO
- Recirc fans BOTH OFF (increases bleed air extraction by forcing packs to high flow)
- Engine Anti-Ice BOTH ON
- Wing Anti-ice ON (increases bleed air extraction, improves stall margin)
- APU START, then ON
Prevention
- Flight into known areas of volcanic ash should be avoided
- Difficult to detect at night
- Weather radars are not designed to detect volcanic ash
- Remain on upwind side of volcanic ash
- Review NOTAMS regarding current status of volcanic activity

18

What are some considerations after flying into volcanic ash?

- Close thrust levers to reduce EGT which will reduce or prevent the melting of ash and the molten solidification on the turbine nozzles
- Start the APU
- Slow start may be misinterpreted as hung start
- Avoid rough control of the thrust lever - engine blades may be corroded by volcanic ash leading to higher fuel flows and EGT
- If visibility is markedly reduced, consider a diversion to an airport where an autoland may be conducted
- Cargo fire indications
- Don’t use pax oxygen unless cabin is uncontrollable
- Monitor airspeed and pitch attitude
- Do not use wiper blades to remove ash

19

What ATC considerations exist following an ADC failure?

RVSM airspace is FL290 to FL410. A pilot shall promptly inform ATC when one of the two altitude measuring systems is not working.
After that, the Captain shall inform the flight dispatcher. For the B767, altitude data shall be displayed on both altimeters based on air
data from 2 different air data sources
Air-data computer failure in climb
1. After instrument source selector switch pushed, hand over control again to PF (if needed),
2. Check EICAS messages – ENG EEC MODE messages. Do checklist.
3. Considerations - Weather ok, but no longer RVSM with only one ADC remaining.
4. Notify ATC and follow their instruction.
5. Contact Flight Dispatcher.
6. May not be allowed to operate in RVSM (i.e >FL290). May need new flight plan for FL290, fuel required???
7. Destination still possible? Diversion?
8. FL290 only requires an additional 700lbs (compared to planned FL330) so there will be no worries making Kagoshima.

20

20. If you encountered windshear after V1 but prior to VR, when would you rotate the aircraft? How would you do this?

If windshear is encountered near the normal rotation speed and airspeed suddenly decreases, there may not be sufficient runway left
to accelerate back to normal take-off speed. IF THERE IS INSUFFICIENT RUNWAY TO STOP, initiate a normal rotation at least
2000ft before the end of the runway even if airspeed is low. ENSURE MAXIMUM THRUST IS SET. Higher than normal attitudes may
be required to lift off in the remaining runway

21

21. How would you know you are 2000ft from the end of the runway on take-off following windshear after V1 but before VR?

2000ft is 610m. On a runway greater than 2400m, the touchdown zone markings immediately prior to the aiming point markers are
located 600 meters from the end of the runway. If you are on the aiming point markers then you are only 400m from the end of the
runway, or 1300ft. If departing at night on a runway longer than 1800m, the runway edge lights will turn yellow at 600m, which is
approx. 2000ft. AIM-J 173
RCLL last 900m alt red and white, last 300m red lights

22

22. When are the master cautions inhibited?

The master caution lights and aural beeper are inhibited for all cautions from 80kts to 400ft AGL or 20 seconds elapsed time from nose
gear extension. So, if a master caution occurs at 100kts and the take-off is continued, the master caution lights and beeper do not
activate, but the alert message will be displayed. (If prior to 80kts, they are activated and continue to alert and sound)

23

What is EICAS?

EICAS consolidates engine and subsystem indications and provides a centrally located crew alerting message display. EICAS also
displays status and maintenance information.
Three types of alerts
1. Warnings (Red)
2. Cautions (Amber)
3. Advisory (Amber, and only alert with no aural tone)
STATUS MSGS
COMMUNICATION ALERTS

24

What is the maximum speed for normal extension of the landing gear?

270kts / 0.82M

25

What is the maximum allowable crosswind for an autoland?

25kts

26

When can aileron trim be used?

Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited

27

At what speed will the RAT provide adequate flight controls?

The RAT provides adequate hydraulic power at speeds above 130kts (Effectively all stages of flight). TO FLT CONTROL PORTION OF C HYD SYS
- Provides hydraulic power to the flight controls portion of the centre hydraulic system. HYD PWR ONLY!!
- Uses fluid above the standpipe (whereas RSV Brakes uses fluid below)
- Deploys automatically when both engines fail.

28

Is antiskid available in the alternate brake system?

Yes, antiskid protection is provided in the normal AND alternate brake hydraulic systems. The normal brake system provides each main
gear wheel with individual antiskid protection. In the alternate system, antiskid protection is provided to laterally paired wheels.

29

29. When glideslope and localiser have been captured, what are the 2 ways that approach mode can be cancelled?

By selecting GA mode, or by disengaging the autopilot and turning off both flight directors

30

30. What is the maximum allowable difference between the Captain and Co-pilot’s altimeter on the ground for RVSM operation?

40ft MAX 75 FEET BETWEEN FIELD ELEV

31

31. What is the maximum crosswind for a dry runway?

33kts

32

32. What is the turbulence penetration speed?

290kts / 0.78M, whichever is lower (250kts, < FL150)

33

33. What is the maximum speed for retraction of the landing gear?

270kts (there is no Mach number for obvious reasons)

34

34. When will the G/A mode disengage during landing?

Both situations within 5’ RA & GA switch pushed
1. > 2 seconds Pitch FLARE A/T GA
2. < 2 seconds Pitch GA A/T IDLE

35

35. What percentage of maximum rated thrust is available when selecting TO1 or TO2?

TO 1 is approx. 95% of maximum rated thrust and TO 2 approx. 85% of maximum rated take-off thrust. These values are for the -300,
and the -300ER and Freighter have a further 5% reduction

36

What is the GPWS escape manoeuver?

On activation of the “PULL UP”, or “TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP”, or “OBSTACLE OBSTACLE PULL UP” warning, accomplish the
following procedure:
- Disengage autopilot
- Disconnect autothrottle
- Aggressively apply maximum thrust
- Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude to 20 degree
- Set the speedbrake lever to down
- If terrain remains a threat, continue rotation up to pitch limit (if available), stick shaker or initial buffet
- Do not change flap or gear configuration until terrain separation is assured
- Monitor radio altimeter for sustained or increasing terrain separation
- When clear of terrain, slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate

37

What is the TCAS traffic avoidance procedure in the landing configuration?

For a CLIMB RA in a landing configuration, accomplish the following procedure:
- Autopilot disengage
- Autothrottle disconnect
- Thrust levers full forward
- Flaps 20
- Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command
- Verify a positive rate of climb on the altimeter and call gear up

38

Can the TCAS traffic avoidance manoeuver ever be accomplish with the autopilot?

No. When manoeuvring is required, the autopilot must be disengaged and the manoeuvre accomplished manually

39

What is the maximum allowable fuel load?

- Left and right main tanks: 42,671lbs
- Centre tank (-300ER / F): 84,490lbs

40

When is monitoring of the emergency frequency 121.500MHz required?

Basically for SAR & loss of comms with ATC (not to be confused with comms loss)
Aircraft should guard 121.500MHz except for an “unavoidable situation”. This may be due to:
- Aircraft are carrying out communications on the other VHF channel
- Cockpit duties do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels
- Airborne equipment limitations do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels

41

41. What items are required to be taken off the aircraft in an evacuation?

Even though crewmembers have to take out emergency articles, they are not absolutely obliged to do so, no matter how tense the
situation. Instead they should concentrate their total efforts towards saving lives. The crew take the following items:
- Captain: Crash axe, megaphone, flash light Mid Cabin Exit
- Co-pilot: Signal kit, flash light FWD Cabin Exit
- The Chief Purser and cabin attendant at R2 will take the ELT’s

42

What non-normal event requires the longest landing distance?

The All AC buses off non-normal checklist will requires the longest landing distance.
Dry runway @ 280,000lbs = 7,400ft. (approximately 2,250m)
Wet runway = 10,800ft (approximately 3000m)
Snow/slush covered runway = Can be > 11,500 depending on runway condition (approximately 3,500m)
This is because both engine reversers may be inoperative, half the spoilers are inoperative, outboard wheel antiskid is inoperative, and
auto speedbrake is inoperative

43

What is the maximum EGT for take-off and how long is it limited to?

960 degrees, limited to 5 minutes

44

What is the minimum oil pressure?

10psi

45

What is the maximum allowable headwind component for an autoland?

25kts

46

What is the maximum allowable tailwind for take-off and landing?

- Runway 2001m =/> 15kts
- Runway 2000m =/> 10kts

47

What is the maximum allowable crosswind for a slush-covered runway?

- Depth =/< 2mm: 15kts
- Depth 3-12mm: 10kts

48

What are the Captain’s communication requirements in an emergency?

In emergency situations, the Captain shall maintain close contact with ATC, search and rescue authorities, and the flight dispatcher
and give sufficient consideration to advice or suggestions from them
IF EMERGENCY OCCURS, THE CAPT SHALL TAKE THE NECESSARY MEASURES FOR SECURING SAFETY

49

When are master warnings inhibited?

The master warning lights and fire bell are inhibited FOR FIRE during part of the take-off. The inhibit period begins at nose gear
extension during rotation and continues to the first of 400ft AGL or 20 seconds elapsed time. If a fire occurs during the inhibit, an
EICAS warning message appears, but the fire bell and master warning lights do not activate. If the fire still exists at the end of the
inhibit period, the fire bell and master warning lights activate immediately

50

What is the freezing point of Jet A fuel?

-40 degrees (or freezing +3)

51

What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement?

Do not engage CWS or CMD below 200ft AGL

52

Can the landing gear be extended above 20,000ft?

Yes, only the flaps can’t be extended above 20,000ft

53

If NO AUTOLAND is displayed on the ASA, can it be blanked (reset)?

It is dependant upon the APP switch:
- Before APP pushed: Yes, but ONLY if the condition that led to the fault is cleared
- After APP pushed: No - it remains displayed until the autopilots are disengaged

54

When does LAND 3 or LAND 2 display on the ASA?

It appears below 1500ft RA with LOC and G/S captured, with the autopilots engaged
6-4-10 (17)
LAND 3
INDICATES ALL 3 AP SYS AND THEIR ASSOS SUPPORTING AIRPLANE SYSTEMS INPUTS ARE OPERATING NORMALLY
APPEARS BELOW 1500 FEET ra WITH LOC AND GS CAPTURED
LAND 2
INDICATES A MINIMUM OF 2 AP SYS AND THEIR ASSOS SUPPORTING AIRPLANE SYSTEM INPUTS ARE OPERATING NORMALLY
APPEARS BELOW 1500 RA WITH LOC AND GS CAPTURED
NO AUTOLAND (AMBER)
INDICATES FAULT CONDITIONS EXIST WHICH PRECLUDE THE USE OF THE AUTOPILOTS FOR AN AUTOMATIC LDG
NO LAND 3 (AMBER)
INDICATES A FAULT CONDITION EXISTS WHICH RESULTS IN A LAND 2 CONDITION

55

What systems does the centre hydraulic system power?

The centre system powers the following items: (FLAT, Hat)
- Flight controls
- Nose wheel steering
- Flaps and slats
- Alternate brakes
- Landing gear operation
- Tailskid
- Hydraulic driven generator
RESERVOIR, TWO ELEC MOTOR-DRIVEN PUMPS, AN AIR-DRIVEN DEMAND PUMP, AND A RAM AIR TURBINE (RAT) PUMP

56

Can the lower engine display ever be blanked?

The flight crew shall not blank the engine vibration display during take-off

57

Below what height can the ASA not change?

Below 200ft RA the ASA display cannot change EXCEPT to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition (system failure)

58

When does runway align mode begin?

It is actuated at 500ft RA with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated

59

What slip will the autopilot initiate during runway align mode?

The autopilot systems will initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 2 degrees when the crab angle exceeds 5 degrees

60

What is the windshear escape manoeuver for manual flight?

- Disengage autopilot
- Push either go-around switch
- Aggressively apply maximum thrust
- Disconnect autothrottle
- Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate towards an initial pitch attitude of 15 degrees
- Set the speedbrake lever down
- Follow flight director guidance
- Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor
- Monitor vertical speed and altitude
- Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor

61

How are the 3 autopilots powered during an autoland?

During autoland, the busses isolate to allow three independent power sources to the 3 autopilots as follows:
- The left main system powers the left autopilot AND CAPT FLT INSTRU TRANSFER BUS
- The right main system powers the right autopilot FO FLT INSTRU TRANSFER BUS
- The battery / standby system powers the centre autopilot

62

What happens with the loss of a generator during an autoland above 200ft?

Above 200ft, the loss of a generator results in:
- Both bus tie breakers close and the operating generator powers both the left and right AC busses
- The left main AC system powers the centre autopilot
- NO LAND 3 is displayed on the ASA

63

What happens with the loss of a generator during an autoland below 200ft?

- Both bus ties remain open
- The autopilot with the failed generator remains unpowered
- The flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer busses
- The autoland continues using the 2 remaining autopilots
WHEN AP DISENGAGED OR AP G/A PERFORMED, THE ELEC SYS REVERTS TO NORMAL, NON-ISOLATED OPS

64

What fire suppression and extinguishing is available for cargo fires on the different aircraft?

- 300 and -300ER: 2 or 3 fire bottles installed - 2nd bottle discharges at later time or reduced rate (extinguishing)
- 300F: 2 or 3 fire bottles installed - 2nd bottle discharges at later time or reduced rate (extinguishing)
- 300BCF: Fire suppression accomplished by shutting off air to the compartment. The airplane gradually depressurises and
the oxygen required for combustion is eliminated (best above FL250)

65

What altitude is required for fire suppression in the 300BCF?

25,000ft is the altitude where fire suppression is performed effectively

66

What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?

Dynamic
Is due to standing water on the runway completely lifting the wheel off the runway and being supported by the water. Two conditions
must be present.
The surface must be flooded to a depth, which exceeds the total depth of the runway texture plus the tyre tread. This is called the
critical depth and is usually 3mm. b. The aircraft must be travelling at or above the critical speed, which is the tyre speed at which the
standing inertia or the water is such that water is unable to escape from under the tyre tread.
Viscous
Is due to a damp surface that does not allow the water to penetrate it the surface below. Only one condition is required – smooth
surface covered by thin film of moisture.
This type of aquaplaning can occur at much lower speeds than dynamic aquaplaning and is normally associated with smooth surface
areas such as the touch down zone where large deposits of rubber may be present.
Reverted rubber skid
Caused when the heat built up due to the friction between the tyre and the water causes the water to boil causing steam, which
reverts the rubber. This process forms a seal and prevents the tyre from contacting the runway.
(standing water is an approximate rainfall of 30mm/hr)
AOR 2-2-2 (1)
P = 160 psi therefore hydroplaning speed is 113kts

67

When is anti-ice required on the ground?

When the TAT is below 10 degrees, and there is visible moisture present such as clouds or fog with visibility of one mile (1600m) or
less

68

What is the formula for determining hydroplaning speed?

9 times the square root of the tire pressure (mains 200 PSI, nose 160 PSI)

69

What is meant by B763/H-SDE2FGHIJ4J5J6M1RWX/SD1 / PBN/A1B1C1D1on the ATS flight plan?

- H = Heavy wake turbulence category (greater than 136,000kg MTOW)
- S = Standard VHF, VOR and ILS
- D = DME
- E2 = ACARS
- F = ADF
- G = GNSS
- H = HF radio
- I = IRS
- J4 = CPDLC
- J5 = CPDLC SATCOM
- M1 = ATC SATCOM
- R = PBN (Performance based navigation) approved (see items following PBN/ later)
- W = RVSM
- X = MNPS approved
- SD1 = Mode S transponder with ADS-C capability
- A1 = RNAV10
- B1 = RNAV 5
- C1 = RNAV 2
- D1 = RNAV 1

70

What does E/0523 P/004 R/UVE J/L mean on the ATS flight plan?

- E/0523 = Endurance is 5 hours and 23 minutes
- P/004 = Persons on board is 4
- R/UVE = Radio equipment to monitor UHF = 243.0, VHF = 121.500, E = ELT carried

71

What does the ILS display look like on the ADI in full scale?

The ILS display for both G/S and LOC is a reference rectangle in the middle, with 2 dots either side of the reference rectangle such as:
O O I I O O

72

How many NNC items are there?

There are 48 master cautions, 34 unnanunciated checklists & 8 memory items

73

At what point will the ILS expanded scale display on the ADI?

The two dot expanded scale displays when LOC is engaged, and deviation is slightly more than ½ a dot on the 4-dot scale

74

How much more sensitive is the expanded scale ILS in comparison to the full-scale ILS display?

The expanded scale is more sensitive, with one dot deviation equal to ½ a dot deviation on the 4-dot scale

75

What are some non-normal situations that will produce a master caution on the ground?

- FWD / AFT / MAIN CARGO DOOR
- ATT DISAGREE
- AUTOTHROTTLE DISCONNECT
- BODY DUCK LEAK
- C / L / R HYD SYS PRESS
- EQUIP COOLING
- IAS DISAGREE
- L / R AC BUS OFF
- L / R BLD DUCT LEAK
- L / R EEC OFF
- L / R ENG LIM PROT
- L / R FUEL SYS PRESS
- LE SLAT ASYM
- LE SLAT DISAGREE
- L / R ENG OVHT
- TE FLAP ASYM
- TE FLAP DISAGREE

76

What components does the left hydraulic system power?

- Rudder ratio system
- Yaw damper
- PES
- Left Inboard Aileron
- Elevator Feel
- Autopilot servo
- Stab Trim
- Flight controls
6-13-20 (4) / 6-9-20 (8)
R HYD SYS
FLT CONTROL
NORMAL BRAKE
PITCH ENHANCEMENT SYS (HYD MOTOR IN R SYS WHICH TRAPS FLUID FROM L TRIM SYS TO OPERATE STABILIZER). AUTO ACTIVATES IF BOTH L AND C HYD SYS LOST IN FLT. ELECT TRIM AVAIL AT ¼ NORMAL RATE/ ALTERNATE AND AUTO TRIM INOP.

77

What is the purpose of the hydraulic driven generator?

- The HDG is automatically powered by the centre hydraulic system when electrical power is lost from both main AC busses.
- The centre air demand pump will operate continuously to ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure to drive the generator.
- It provides both AC power and DC power.
- It provides AC power to the left and right AC transfer busses that power items considered necessary for ETOPS.
- It also powers the Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus, and provides DC power to the hot battery bus, the battery bus and the
standby DC bus

78

What is the maximum take-off weight for the 767-300?

288,700lbs

79

What is the maximum landing weight of the 767-300?

280,000lbs

80

What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the 767-300?

278,000lbs

81

What is the maximum speed for alternate gear extension?

250kts / 0.75 (dedicated DC Motor)

82

82. What charging time is required to power to floor photo luminescent emergency escape path markings?

The passenger cabin lighting must be on withd ceiling and sidewall lights setting in the “HI” position prior to block out as follows:
- 15 minutes charging time = 6.5 hours
- 30 minutes charging time = 11 hours

83

Can the flight crew test the ELT?

The activation of the ELT for test purposes in not allowed by flight crew. If the mechanic requests a test however, it is permitted. In this
case, manual activation is limited to the first five minutes of the hour and is to be a maximum of 5 seconds

84

What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?

9.1psi. Maximum allowable cabin differential pressure for take-off and landing is 0.125psi, which is equivalent to 236ft below airport
pressure altitude. (8.6 regular)

85

When do the deviation calls commence during approach?

These can be broken into three groups: After final descent / below 1000ft AFE / below MDA:
ON PROC OR AIRWAY WITH RNP ALERTING REQMT, IF XTK ERROR FROM LNAV AT 1*RNP OR MORE “0.3NM LEFT/RIGHT”
- VOR approach = After final descent = “DOT LEFT / DOT RIGHT”
- VNAV approach = After final descent = “GLIDE PATH”
- Bank angle over 30 = Below 1000ft AFE = “BANK”
- Speed, sink rate, LOC and G/S = Below 1000ft AFE = “AIRSPEED / SINK RATE / LOCALISER /
“GLIDESLOPE”
- Altitude deviation deviation = > 50ft below MDA = “ALTITUDE”

86

What is the standard significant deviation from airspeed on approach?

Above 10kts or below 5kts with landing flap below 1000ft AFE

87

What is the standard significant deviation for sink rate on approach?

Sink rate exceeds 1000fpm below 1000ft AFE

88

What is the standard significant deviation for glideslope on approach?

> 1 dot

89

What is the standard significant deviation for the VOR on approach?

> 1 dot, which is equal to 5 degrees

90

What is the standard significant deviation for the localiser on approach?

2 deviations, BELOW 1000ft ONLY:
- > ½ a dot (1 dot on the expanded scale)
- > ⅓ dot (⅔ dot on the expanded scale after the “APPROACHING MINIMUM” is called on a CAT II/III approach)
3-1 (10)
GLIDEPATH
EXCEEDS -50FT +100FT

91

What is the minimum oxygen pressure required?

Minimum oxygen is at or above the following at 21 degrees Celsius:
- Other than operations to Urumqi (RoC) = 850psi
- Operations to Urumqi (RoC) = 1250psi

92

What are the 4 reasons to do the aborted engine start procedure?

- EGT does not increase by 25 seconds after the fuel control switch is moved to run
- There is no N1 rotation by 30 seconds after N2 stabilised at idle
- The EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit of 750 degrees
- The oil pressure is not normal by the time the engine is stabilised at idle (min 10psi)

93

When should take-off thrust be set by?

Adjust take-off thrust before 80kts

94

What is the ANA touchdown zone?

750ft to 2000ft

95

95. Aiming point markings – distance from the threshold on a runway < 2400m, and a runway > 2400m?

=/>2,400m 400m from the threshold (400m = 1,312’)
<2,400m 300m from the threshold (300m = 984’)
Both are within the ANA touchdown zone area of 750ft to 2000ft

96

How is the ILS displayed on the HSI during EXP ILS and FULL ILS?

There are 4 dots displayed for both glideslope and localiser in the EXP ILS and FULL ILS presentation
DIFFERENCE IS THE BACKGROUND IE FULL COMPASS ROSE VS 90 DEGREE ROSE

97

How long are the aiming point and touchdown zone markings?

The aiming point markings are 60m long. The touchdown zone markings are 22.5m long

98

98. Describe the runway markings from the threshold to the halfway markings for a runway > 2400m:

- Stopway markings
>>>> = Less strength than RWY -> -> -> -> = Same strength as RWY
- Physical runway threshold
- 6m of spacing
- RWY threshold markings, 30m long (16 for a 60m RWY, 12 for a 45m RWY)
- 12m of spacing
- Runway designation markings, 18m long
- Runway centreline markings, 30m or more long
- 6 touchdown zone markings, 3 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 150m from the threshold
- 6 touchdown zone markings, 3 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 300m from the threshold
- 2 aiming point markers, 1 each side of centreline, each 60m long, beginning at 400m from the threshold
- 4 touchdown zone markings, 2 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 600m from the threshold
- 2 touchdown zone markings, 1 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 750m from the threshold
- 2 touchdown zone markings, 1 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 900m from the threshold

99

What is the minimum equipment required for sole navigation?

2 IRS’s and 2 FMC’s meet the INS system requirements as the sole means of navigation for flights up to 18 hours

100

What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance?

- < 48,000lbs - maximum imbalance = 2500lbs
- 48,000lbs - 79,800lbs = Linear from 2500lbs to 1500lbs (interpolate graph)
- > 79,800 = 1500lbs
Basically, first step is to check fuel weight and then decide by consulting the graph.

101

What is the required on-board equipment for RVSM operations?

- 2 individual altitude measurement systems (2 x primary altimeters)
- 2 ADC’s
- One automatic altitude hold function of the autopilot (ALT HOLD mode, VNAV mode or V/S mode)
- One altitude alert system (EICAS)
- One SSR altitude reporting transponder (MODE C)

102

102. When will the EICAS message ALT DISAGREE be displayed & considerations following this message?

The EICAS message ALT DISAGREE is displayed when the Captain and co-pilot altimeter indications disagree by more than 200ft. The
on-board equipment requirements for RVSM are no longer satisfied. Contact ATC and comply with their instruction. The non-normal
checklist will direct this
1. Maintain visual flight is possible
2. Establish landing configuration early
3. Use G/S and PAPI information
4. Radio altitude is available <2500ft

103

103. When do the runway edge lights turn from white to yellow approaching the end of the runway?

The lights are white in colour, however the last ⅓ or 600m whichever is less from the departure end of the runway, the lights are
coloured yellow for warning of the end of the runway

104

Where is the search and rescue facility located?

The Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC) for Japan is located at Haneda airport

105

What are the 3 phases of search and rescue?

- Uncertainty phase
- Alert phase
- Distress phase

106

106. If a master caution appears during take-off at 70kts & the take-off is continued - what happens to lights/message?

If the master caution lights and the aural alerts are activated prior to 80kts, they continue to illuminate and sound

107

When will the stick nudger activate?

If the flaps are retracted and the angle of attack continues to increase, a control column nudger moves the control column forward
6-15-20 (18)
STICK SHAKERS ARE ALSO INSTALLED, BOTH SYS ARE ENERGIZED IN FLT AND DEACT ON GND AIR/GND LOGIC

108

When does GPWS mode 7 windshear detection begin on departure?

At rotation (PWS begins scanning at setting of takeoff thrust)

109

What is the PWS alert warning area dimension?

- On ground: 3nm straight ahead of the aircraft (caution 3nm) 0.5NM WIDE SPLAY 25 DEG
- In-flight: 1.5nm straight ahead of the aircraft (caution 3nm) 0.5NMM WIDE SPLAY 25 DEG

110

110. WX radar TILT and GAIN settings inappropriately set for departure, can the PWS still function normally?

Yes. The PWS adjusts automatically regardless of actual control settings on the weather radar control panel settings, adjusts the
antenna TILT and the system GAIN for optimum windshear detection

111

When are PWS warnings inhibited until on take-off?

PWS warnings are inhibited during take-off between 100kts and 50ft AGL

112

When will the stick shaker activate?

The pitch limit indicator (PLI) indicates the pitch limit at which the stick shaker will activate for the existing flight conditions. The PLI is
displayed whenever flaps are not up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up

113

113. What is the minimum required width of paved surface to execute a 180-degree turn effectively?

The required width is 46.3m or 152ft as a minimum. This means that a 180-degree turn on a 45m-width runway without a turning pad
is not possible

114

114. During what non-normal event could you expect to see the battery discharge light DISCH illuminate?

When initially using the hydraulic driven generator. The amount of DC power produced by the HDG is less than the DC power
produced by a fully charged battery. When the HDG first begins to operate, the battery discharge light may illuminate, until the
battery power decreases to the power level produced by the HDG

115

Examples of situations where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued, not including the 6
examples listed in the QRH?

- Bomb threat
- Attempted hijacking
- Biological hazards
- Mid-air collision
- Structural failure
- Fuel shortage (any extra holding results in landing with < 30mins reserve)
- Significant flight control failure
- Crew incapacitation

116

116. What are the 4 policies established for basic operational procedures? Differences to past airline?

Policies (Four Are About Perfect)
- Fly first
o Top priority placed on this
- Assure secured and reliable operations
o Procedures immune from mistakes / employing fail-safe features
- Achieve effective and efficient operation
o Adapt our flight procedures to social needs and new technology
- Promote standardised and uniform operation
o Various combinations of flight crew / small variations add to trouble / fleet standardisation

117

117. What are the 6 concepts for establishing basic operational procedures? Differences to past airline?

Concepts (The Crew Can Make a World of Difference)
- Task sharing – PF and PM roles / PF flies the airplane and PM tasks mainly other than flying airplane / Area of responsibility / tasks
assigned according to accessibility of switch/PIC ULTIMATE RESP
- Crew coordination – Use of checklists / confirmed actions
- Crew communication – Standard callouts / briefings & terminology / Standard response to order
- Monitor and crosscheck – Scan pattern / instrument monitor during approach / speed and descent rate during approach / verification
of autothrottle and autopilot / CDU operation
- Workload management – Fly the airplane / use of auto flight system
- Discipline – Professional manner / intentional deviation from SOP’s dangerous / strict discipline to SOP’s

118

What is the wheel base dimension of the 767?

The main gear is 9.30 metres in width 30 FEET 6 INCH

119

119. What clearance between the edge of the taxiway and the main gear exists during a straight taxi?

Approximately 6.5 meters clearance from each main wheel.
ICAO CAT D taxiways are 23m wide
Wheelbase is 9.30m.
This means that the minimum clearance from each main gear will be 6.5m

120

What main wheel clearance can be assured when taxiing around a corner on a taxiway?

ICAO Annex 14 recommends that the taxiway should be designed to provide clearance of more than 4.5 metres between the paved
taxiway and the main landing gear when the cockpit (nose gear by Japan’s criteria) is passing over the centreline

121

What is the required 2nd segment climb gradient for the B767?

2.4%. The second segment begins at gear up and continues to the level off point (1.2% for last segment)

122

What is the required 1st segment climb gradient for the B767?

Positive

123

What is the required landing climb gradient required for the B767?

3.2%

124

What is the required approach climb gradient for the B767?

2.1%

125

125. What are the differences between gross and net flight path for both take-off flight path and enroute flight path?

- Take-off flight path: 0.8%
- Enroute flight path: 1.1%

126

What are the limitations on V1 speed?

V1 must be:
- =/> VMCG
-

127

What are the limitations of VR?

VR must be:
- =/> V1
- 5% > VMCA
- 5% > 1 Engine VMU
- 10% > 2 Engine VMU

128

What are the limitations of V2?

V2 must be:
- 13% > 1S1G
- 10% > VMCA

129

What is the minimum approach speed?

VREF must be at least 1.23VS1G

130

How is maximum rate climb calculated for the B767?

Flaps up manoeuver speed + 50 until intercepting M0.78

131

Why does the QRH direct an engine shutdown if an engine fuel leak is suspected?

The NNC leads the crew through steps to determine if the fuel leak is from the strut or the engine area. If an engine fuel leak is
confirmed, the NNC directs the crew to shutdown the affected engine. There are two reasons for the shutdown. The first is to close the
spar valve, which stops the leak. This prevents the loss of fuel, which could result in a low fuel state. The second reason is that the fire
potential is increased when fuel is leaking around the engine. The risk of fire increases further when the thrust reverser is used during
landing. The thrust reverser significantly changes the flow of air around the engine, which can disperse fuel over a wider area.

132

During fuel jettison, what altitude should ensure fuel evaporation?

Fuel jettison above 4,000 feet AGL ensures complete fuel evaporation

133

Does the EICAS message TAILSKID indicate a tail strike has occurred?

The EICAS message TAILSKID indicates that the tailskid position disagrees with the landing gear position. Although these alerts may
help determine if a suspected tail strike has occurred, these alerts are not intended as the only verification of an actual tail strike.

134

What are the three take-off methods?

3 types of take-off method used at ANA & differences
" Normal: Step on brakes, 70%, release breakes, thrust set by 80kts
" Static: Step on brakes, take-off thrust set, release brakes
" Rolling: Without stopping, set 70%, then set take-off thrust
With today’s weather in RORS (RVR300M) what type of take-off method would you use?
" Perhaps a normal take-off method because this allows the engines to stabilise at 70% before starting take-off roll, so
engines will be symmetrical thrust under low vis – reduces chance of asymmetric acceleration and therefore
directional control problems with only 300m RVR.
If you did choose to use a rolling take-off, what is the extra runway allowance required? (100-150ft) Is there a weight
addition to consider?
" Check FPDM

135

Describe the Warning Systems in the 76

1. EICAS (TWCAC)
a. Time Critical Warning Immediate awareness & corrective action to maintain safe flight
b. Warning Immediate awareness & corrective action
c. Caution Immediate awareness
d. Advisory Routine awareness
e. Communication Alerts Triggered by communication management system
2. Warning System
a. Flight deck speakers, master warning lights, EICAS alert messages & stick shaker motors
3. GPWS (AI-RIG)
a. ADC, IRS, ILS, RADALT, GPS
4. TCAS
a. TA, RA, Proximate/Other Traffic

136

Describe the Instrument Source Select Switche

Related systems of each eg ADC, FMC, IRS etc.

137

What is an Approach Ban & what is its purpose?

What is it Forbidding to continue approach beyond a specific point unless the reported weather is above specified company
minima.
Purpose To limit missed approaches and manoeuvring at low level etc

138

What are the Standard Callouts for an ILS

LOC, G/S Alive, G/S, G/S interept (Alt & Distance), LAND 2/3, 1,000, 500, Approaching Minima, Minima
When do they start?
From LOC

139

If you were to perform an RTO in low visibility, how would you know where you are?

Runway markings, centreline lights changing colour, runway lights turning yellow (last 2000’), half-way lines on runway
(instrument runway > 30m width, RORS = 60m), runway markings, runway distance markings on the side.

140

Draw the runway markings for RWY 35 at RORS

draw

141

141. If you had a fire warning on take-off during the inhibit period, what happens at the end of the inhibit period

If fire appears during inhibit period, EICAS message appears, but when the inhibit period ends, the fire bell and
master warning activate immediately

142

Explain the Inhibits

Condition Engine Start Takeoff Landing
Warning Caution Advisory Communication Communication
Engine Shutdown
Start Eng Start Switch N/G Ext 80kts T/O Thrust T/O Thrust 800’ FCS Cutoff
Finish Idle 20s/400’ 20s/400’ 20s/400’ 20s/400’ 75kts/900’ (GA) N/A

143

Explain Go-Mindedness

“Except for the occurrence of a hindrance where there is a serious doubt that the airplane can safely fly, it is safer to
continue the takeoff than to reject it from a point near V1”
It is left to the Captain’s best judgement
Other factors to consider…
1. Malfunction that would render airplane unable to fly might be engine failure with thrust loss
2. For other malfunctions in the vicinity of V1, it is safer to continue. Even for EGT exceedance or engine fire, it
would be safer to continue, provided there was no loss of thrust. Any system associated with braking like anti-skid
or tire failure is extremely dangerous re RTO.
3. High speed regime > 80kts, low speed regime <80kts.
Basically, in line with 80 kt inhibit, above this speed, consider calling out malfunction in air.

144

What is the tail contact pitch attitudes?

Landing with Flaps 30
Main Gear Extended: 9.5 degrees (AOR)
Main Gear Compressed: 7.5 degrees (AOR)
Takeoff 9.6 (FCTM)

145

APU FAULT light after Block-Out?

APU FAULT light at that stage means the APU will enter an auto-shutdown phase. Refer previous Q for items running on battery.

146

APU Limitations

" Bleed air to 17,000
" Electrical to 43,100
" The starter duty cycle is a maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within a 60-minute period
" Air conditioning and electrical on the ground, air conditioning up to FL170 and electrical to FL431.

147

How are alerting messages arranged?

In order of occurrence, although WARNINGS will always be displayed at the top/ AND IN SAME RANK IE WARN/CAUTION ETC

148

Describe all of the source transfer switches

FLT DIR
Selects source for FD bars and FCC.
The indications for a failure depend on which system has failed. If left or right, related FD bars will disappear and NO LAND 3 will
annunciate on ASA. If centre fails, NO LAND 3 will annunciate, though both Capt and FO FD bars will remain. The autopilot will
disengage though as the related FCC has failed. (FCC drives the autopilot servos). A minimum of 2 FCC’s are required for autopilot
engagement.
FMC
Selects the source for the L/C EFIS SG’s and the L/C FCC’s. Usually, the left FMC drives the L/C FCC’s + SG’s and the right FMC drives
the R FCC + SG. In a failed condition, the R FMC drives the L/C FCC’s and SG and the L FMC drives the right FCC + SG.
If a failure occurs, the LNAV and VNAV FMA’s will have a strike through them, VTK and MAP will appear on the EHSI, the CDU will blank,
“L/R FMC FAILURE” will annunciate on the EICAS and the FD bars will disappear on the related side.
FMC Synch display similar indications to that of an FMC – be careful not to confuse. The main difference is that both CDU’s will still
display relevant information during a synch, unlike a fail condition. (AOR)
EFIS
The EFIS switch controls the source for the related SG, ILS receiver and RADALT. Usually, left drives left, right drives right and centre is
for redundancy.
If either side fails, both EADI and EHSI will go blank. To restore, push EFI switch. If both sides running of centre (dual failure), “INST
SWITCH” message will appear on EICAS – checklist!
IRS
Controls the source of the IRS for the L/C SG’s & Capt VSI and FO RDMI. Usually, left drives and L/C SG’s, Capt VSI and FO RDMI
and vice versa. If a failure occurs, ATT, VSI flags will appear, EADI will blank, IRS EICAS messsage, NO LAND 3 and Anti-Skid messages
will appear.
ADC
Controls the source for the Capt primary flight instruments and FO primary flight instruments. (ASI/PRIMARY ALT, AND VSI) So if the associated ADC fails, the
instruments will erroneously display. The ADC automatically switches to reflect the AP in CMD, though this does not apply for the
instrument display, hence the requirement to push the switch.

149

What are the restrictions on operating the centre fuel pumps?

Intentional dry running of the centre pumps (EICAS messages CTR L FUEL PUMP or CTR R FUEL PUMP) is prohibited
Centre pump switches must not be on unless personnel are available in the flight deck to monitor the low pressure lights
The centre pumps must not be switched on prior to engine start unless the centre tank contains usable fuel
When the auto power removal system is installed, when the centre pump switches are on, verify both pressure lights are
illuminated and that the EICAS messages CTR L FUEL PUMP and CTR R FUEL PUMP are displayed

150

150. Is take-off thrust still limited to 5 minutes if using derate 1 or derate 2 thrust, or ATM reduced thrust?

Yes. Maximum time use of take-off thrust is 5 minutes, and this includes derated take-off thrust and reduced take-off thrust

151

ow are alerting messages arranged?

In order of occurrence, although WARNINGS will always be displayed at the top

152

What is displayed on the lower EICAS when HYD QTY requires a refill?

RF appears in magenta

153

What is the range of brake temperature units displayed on the lower EICAS?

0 to 2 Normal range BOX AND NUMBER CYAN
3 and 4 Threshold range BOX IS WHITE/VALUE CYAN
5 to 9 High temperature range BOX AND NUMBER WHITE

154

At what cabin altitude will the fasten seat belt signs illuminate automatically?

Anytime the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft

155

Do the lights fitted to the nose wheel illuminate when the gear is not locked and down?

No

156

What sides of the aircraft are the cargo doors located?

FWD Cargo = Right
AFT Cargo = Right
MAIN (BCF) = Left
Bulk = Left

157

Is the oxygen indication on the lower EICAS display for crew oxygen or passenger oxygen?

Crew Oxygen. Individual chemical oxygen generators provide the passenger oxygen.

158

At what cabin altitude will the oxygen masks automatically drop from their PSU’s?

If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft (>11,000’ outflow valve auto closes. Auto opens when cabin alt <9,500’)

159

How is the ELT automatically transmitted?

If high deceleration sensed

160

160. At what altitude will the IAS change to MACH (and vice versa) if the speed window is open on a climb or a descent?

In a climb IAS changes to MACH at approx. .80 MACH
In a descent, MACH changes to IAS at approx. 300kts

161

At what height will LNAV engage if armed on take-off?

50ft

162

162. Result when passing the last active waypoint / last waypoint prior to a route discontinuity in LNAV?

Aircraft heading maintained.

163

The bank limit selector works in which roll modes?

Heading Select only, and NOT in LNAV

164

164. What are the 2 ways that Approach mode can be deselected after LOC capture and GS capture?

By selecting TOGA or by disengaging the autopilot and turning off BOTH F/D’s

165

When will LAND 3 annunciate?

Below 1500ft radio altitude with LOC and GS captured

166

166. In a go-around, the auto throttle will command a reference thrust to maintain a climb rate of?

At least 2000 fpm

167

When does go-around arm, and is there any annunciation to the pilot?

GA arms whenever the flaps are out of up, or at glideslope capture. The only indication to the pilot is that G/A thrust
will be annunciated on the thrust setting

168

When is ROLLOUT and FLARE armed?

Below 1500ft radio altitude

169

When does FLARE engage?

Activates at 50ft RA

170

When does ROLLOUT engage?

Below 5ft

171

When does runway alignment occur?

It is actuated at 500ft RA with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated

172

172. If the APU fault light illuminates momentarily on APU start or shutdown, what does this indicate?

It indicates that the fuel valve is in transit to open or close. It is a normal indication

173

Up to what height is APU bleed air available?

Up to approx. 17,000ft

174

What fuel tank is APU fuel fed from? Is this an AC run pump or a DC run pump?

APU fuel is supplied from the left main tank. A dedicated DC pump is used if no AC power is available. When AC
power is available, the left forward AC pump is used, and the DC pump is commanded off

175

175. What is the starter duty cycle for the APU?

A Maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within 60 minutes

176

176. If the APU is in the one-minute cooling period prior to shutdown, can you stop the shutdown?

Yes, by momentarily moving the APU selector to START will cancel the shutdown signal./ IF RUN LGT SHOWN

177

How do you know if the APU has shut down automatically?

The EICAS advisory message APU FAULT will be displayed

178

What does the Pitch Limit Indicator indicate? When is it displayed?

It indicates the pitch limit at which stick shaker will activate for the existing flight conditions. It is displayed when the
flaps are not up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up

179

179. On the speed tape, what does the top of the thin amber bar indicate on the MINIMUM manoeuvring speed?

1.3g manoeuver capability to stick shaker below 20,000ft
1.3g manoeuver capability to low speed buffet above 20,000ft

180

Regarding the previous question, when will 1.3g occur?

1.3g-manoeuvre capability occurs at 40 degrees of bank in level flight (25o + 15o overshoot)

181

On the speed tape, what does the top of the amber bricks indicate?

Below 20,000ft, the airspeed where stick shaker activates
Above 20,000ft, the speed at which initial buffet onset occurs

182

182. On the speed tape, what does the bottom of the thin amber bar indicate on the MAXIMUM manoeuvring speed?

The maximum manoeuvring speed. This airspeed provides 1.3g capabilities to high-speed buffet.

183

What are the 3 limited airspeeds indicated by the red bricks on the speed tape?

Vmo / Mmo
Landing gear placard speed
Flap placard speed

184

What speed does the tip of the speed trend vector predict?

The calculated speed in 10 seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration

185

Trend vector display on the HSI? What range and time lapse do they represent?

Each segment indicates 30 seconds, and the number of trend vectors is dependant upon HSI range selected
Range > 20nm = 3 segments = 90 second projection
Range = 20nm = 2 segments = 60 second projection
Range = 10nm = 1 segment = 30 second projection

186

How are deceleration points represented on the HSI?

Green circles, with no identifier

187

How is a TCAS RA displayed on the HSI display?

A red filled square

188

How is a TCAS TA displayed on the HSI?

An amber filled circle

189

How is a TCAS proximate traffic displayed on the HSI?

A white filled diamond

190

How is ‘other’ TCAS traffic displayed on the HSI?

A hollow white diamond

191

What does the EFI (Electronic Flight Instruments) switch on the side instrument panel do?

It selects the EFIS symbol generator, ILS receiver, and radio altimeter for the appropriate (Captain’s or F/O’s) ADI and
HSI.
6-10-10 (46)
ALTN 4capt – SEL C SYM GEN C ILS AND C RA

192

What do flashing align lights mean on the IRS?

Alignment cannot be completed due to:
- Significant difference between previous and entered positions
- An unreasonable present position entry
- No present position entered

193

193. If while on the ground the ground-call horn in the nose wheel sounds, what does this indicate?

1. Battery drain condition – IRS on DC power
2. High temp or low cooling in equipment bay
3. Crew pushed the ground call button

194

How are the IRS’s powered?

The IRS’s operate on AC power from the left and right electrical systems/MAIN BATT ALTN SOURCE

195

What are some parameters that the IRS’s calculate during flight?

The IRS’s calculate airplane:
- Position
- Acceleration
- Track
- Vertical speed/GS
- True heading
- Magnetic heading
- Wind speed and direction

196

VNAV will not command an economy target descent speed greater than?

VMO / MMO minus 16kts for an ECON speed, or
A pilot entered speed greater than VMO / MMO minus 11kts

197

What is the difference between TOTALIZER and CALCULATED fuel?

TOTALIZER = Total fuel quantity from the fuel system quantity processor
CALCULATED = Before engine start - same as TOTALIZER.
After engine start, fuel quantity is decreased by EICAS fuel flow rate

198

What are the indications of a single FMC failure?

The following indications are present:
- Scratchpad message SINGLE FMC OPERATION
- EICAS advisory message L (or R) FMC FAIL
- MAP flag is displayed on the side with the failed FMC
- Centre panel discrete FMC light illuminates
- CDU on failed side displays the menu page
- TIMEOUT – RESELECT displayed on failed CDU scratchpad
- VTK flag displayed on failed side HSI

199

What are the indications of a dual FMC failure?

The following indications are present:
- EICAS advisory message L FMC FAIL and R FMC FAIL
- LNAV and VNAV are not available
- Centre panel discrete FMC light illuminates
- A/T disconnects
- EICAS caution message AUTOPILOT
- VTK and MAP flags shown on both HSI’s
- Both CDU’s display the menu page

200

When are the arrivals for the destination available in the DEP ARR page?

Aircraft is > 400nm from departure, or
Aircraft is > ½ way to the destination.
This allows quick access for the crew during an air turn back.

201

What is the difference between OPT and RECMD altitude?

OPT The most economical altitude based on gross weight
RECMD The most economical based on performance and winds

202

202. What happens when you enter a VOR into the VOR ONLY INHIBIT of the REF NAV DATA page?

Only the VOR portion of the navaid is inhibited. The FMC will still tune the DME for DME-DME updating

203

What rate of descent will be achieved using the DES NOW function?

The DES NOW prompt starts a 1250fpm descent schedule until intercepting the planned descent path

204

204. TO CLEAN or TO DRAG function on “Off Path Descent” page – availability of clean or drag descent?

When negative value displayed. NEGATIVE VALUE MEANS NOT AVAIL

205

How are the 4 airports shown on the ALTN page sequenced?

Based on ETA sequence when in flight

206

What are the 2 alternate navigation pages available following a dual FMC failure?

IRS LEGS and IRS PROGRESS

207

Following a dual FMC failure, which waypoints will be dumped from the legs page?

The CDU’s keep flight plan waypoints except for conditional waypoints, offsets, and holding patterns. (supplementary
items)

208

How can new waypoints be entered in to IRS LEGS page following a dual FMC failure?

New waypoints can only be entered as latitude and longitude

209

During alternate navigation, do the two CDU’s communicate with each other?

The two CDU’s operate independently. A route change to one CDU does NOT change the other one.

210

What do status messages indicate?

Status messages indicate conditions requiring crew awareness for dispatch

211

If both EICAS computers, or both CRT’s fail, how can engine instruments be monitored?

The standby engine indicator (SEI) is automatically activated.

212

What items are monitored by the take-off configuration warning?

The following items:
- Leading edge slats (EICAS message – FLAPS)
- Trailing edge flaps (EICAS message – FLAPS)
- Slat / flap position disagree with flap handle (EICAS message FLAPS)
- Stab position outside of green band (EICAS message STABILIZER)
- Speedbrake lever not in DOWN detent (EICAS message SPOILERS)
- Parking brake valve closed (EICAS message PARKING BRAKE)
- Cargo Door is on 300BCF (EICAS messgage MAIN CARGO DOOR)

213

What cockpit panels does the FMC crew alertness monitor?

The FMC continuously monitors the activation of:
- The MCP
- EFIS control panel
- Display select panel
- CDU’s
- Radio transmit switches

214

When will a crew alertness alert activate?

During cruise:
- EICAS Advisory after 35 minutes
- EICAS Caution 2 mins after advisory
- EICAS Warning 1 minute after caution

215

What does the EICAS advisory message ICE DET ON indicate?

An ice-detecting sensor is fitted on the nose of the aircraft. When the sensor detects ice, the EICAS advisory message
ICE DET ON is displayed

216

When are the pitot probes heated?

Operation of the probe heat system is fully automatic. Power to the electrically heated probes is applied any time that
an engine is running/ THIS APPLIES FOR AOA PROBES ALSO, TAT ONLY IN FLT

217

What conditions lead to the amber DRIVE light on the electrical panel?

The generator drive oil temperature is high
The generator oil pressure is low

218

218. What position must the AC bus tie switch be in to allow automatic flight instrument transfer?

The AC bus tie switch must be in the AUTO position to arm automatic flight instrument transfer bus circuits

219

What does the Standby power bus off light indicate on the electrical panel?

The standby AC or DC bus is not powered. It could be either, or both.

220

How are the 3 autopilots powered during an autoland?

During an autoland, the busses isolate to allow 3 independent sources to power the 3 autopilots as follows:
- The left main system powers the left autopilot
- The right main system powers the right autopilot
The battery / standby system powers the centre autopilot

221

What can cause inadvertent load shedding on the ground?

On the ground, advancing the thrust levers into the take-off range with the engines shut down may cause inadvertent
load shedding of the utility busses to occur. Returning the thrust levers to idle, and then pushing the utility bus
switches OFF, then ON will reset the load shedding

222

When will the hydraulic driven generator activate?

The HDG operates automatically when both left and right main AC busses are unpowered. It is powered by the centre
hydraulic system.

223

What busses does the HDG power?

The HDG powers the:
AC DC
- The L AC transfer bus - The HBB
- The R AC transfer bus - The BB
- The SBY AC bus (via the L AC transfer bus) - The SBY DC bus
- The Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus

224

224. What are some major systems still available for use following a loss of both main AC busses?

The left / right AC transfer busses (being powered by the HDG) power the following equipment:
(TIP!! Start from overhead panel (IRS) and work down left side to EFIS control panel)
- Left FMC and CDU
- Left IRS
- Left ADI
- Left HSI
- Left Altimeter
- Left and centre symbol generator
- Left Airspeed indicator
- Left VSI
- Left EFIS control panel
- Left radio altimeter
- Captain’s pitot heat
L DME
L HF
FLAP/RUDDER TRIM IND
AISLE STD/ OVHD PANEL LGTS
R AUX PITOT HT
L AOA HT
L PNEU ISOL VLV
PRESS CTL AUTO 1
STBY AC BUS
L ATC TX

R TRANSFER BUS:
CARGO HT OVRD
R PNEU ISOL VLV
LIMITD PAX LGTS
PRESS CTRL AUTO2

225

At what value is the ‘minimum fuel on’ command bug displayed on the upper EICAS?

The bug is displayed at 15% N2, but normal start procedure is to position start lever at 20% N2. If N2 stops between
15-20%, position lever to idle

226

What are the 4 engine vibration sources?

The four vibration sources are:
- FAN (Low pressure compressor)
- LPT (Low pressure turbine)
- N2 (High pressure compressor)
- BB (Broad band engine vibration)

227

What is meant by Broad Band engine vibration?

Broad band vibration is the average vibration detected in the engine. It is not coming from one single point in the
engine

228

When will the amber speedbrakes light illuminate in flight?

It is illuminated when speedbrakes are extended and:
- Radio altitude is 800ft or below, or
- Flaps are in landing position

229

When do the leading edge slats move to their fully extended position?

At flaps 25 or 30, the slats move to their fully extended position

230

What are the 3 methods of stabilizer trim?

The 3 methods of trim are:
- Electric Via the dual trim switches on the control wheel
- Alternate Manual + electric
- Automatic Via the autopilot which trims at half rate of electric trim

231

What are the 2 methods of alternate trim?

The two methods of alternate trim are:
- Electric trim: Provided by the alternate stabilizer trim switches on the control stand
- Manual trim: Provided by the stabilizer trim levers on the control stand. Both levers need to be pushed
at the same time

232

What happens to the inboard ailerons when trailing edge flaps are extended?

The inboard ailerons droop in conjunction with trailing edge flap extension from 5 to 15

233

What are possible causes of the EICAS advisory message AILERON LOCKOUT?

The outboard ailerons are permitted full travel at low speed and locked out at high speed. The EICAS advisory
message AILERON LOCKOUT could mean:
- At high speed that one or both outboard ailerons failed to lockout (>280 kts)
- At low speeds it may indicate that one or both ailerons failed to unlock (<230 kts)

234

At what flap settings in flap load relief provided?

If the flap placard limit speed is exceeded with the flaps in the 25 or 30 position, the flaps automatically retract to the
20 position. When airspeed is reduced, the flaps automatically re-extend. There is no EICAS message to support this.

235

What are the take-off and landing flap setting?

Flaps 5, 15 and 20 are take-off flap positions. Flaps 25 and 30 are landing flap positions. Flaps 20 is used for some
non-normal landing conditions

236

Does the flap position indicator display leading edge slat position at any stage?

Yes – the trailing edge flaps don’t actually move when F1 selected. This is a leading edge slats indication.

237

237. What temperatures may be set in the cabin via the compartment temperature controllers in the Auto position?

You can set the desired temperature between 18 and 30 degrees

238

Are the shoulder and foot heaters available at all stages of flight?

The foot and shoulder heaters are only available inflight

239

NO COOLING light meaning? When is this light active and is this a considerable problem?

The NO COOLING light is active only in the OVRD mode. It indicates that there is no reverse flow of cooling air
through the E/E avionics compartment after OVRD is selected. This is a considerable problem. The QRH states that
normal operation of avionics and electrical equipment that are NOT powered by the standby bus cannot be assured.
Equipment on the standby bus operates normally for 90 minutes. After 90 minutes, normal operation of essential
avionics cannot be assured.

240

Why is it normal procedure to leave the Bulk Cargo Heat selector in the VENT position?

The VENT position requests a higher temperature control range than NORM. VENT provides a temperature of above
18c, while the NORM position maintains compartment temperature above 7c. The VENT position also turns on
ventilating for the bulk cargo compartment. Obviously important for livestock

241

What does the cabin altitude MANUAL control do?

It is spring loaded to centre and controls cabin outflow valve position, when the cabin altitude selector is in the
MANUAL mode. It moves the outflow valve towards open or closed.

242

242. What rate of cabin climb and descent is programmed at the index mark of the cabin altitude AUTO RATE control?

The index mark establishes approx. 500fpm climb and 300fpm descent

243

When will the CABIN ALTITUDE light illuminate and extinguish during a non-normal event?

It will illuminate in RED when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft. It will extinguish when then cabin altitude descends
below 8500ft

244

Engine bleed overheat - manual or automatic closing?

The engine bleed valve will automatically close

245

How many temperature zones on the passenger and freighter types are there?

PAX = 4 zones. Flight deck plus 3 cabin zones
F = 3 zones. Flight deck plus 2 cabin zones

246

Will there be an increase or decrease in fuel flow when the recirculation fans are operative?

The recirculation fans circulate discharged air back into the mix manifold. This allows a reduction in cabin air
ventilation, permitting the packs to operate at a reduced flow. This will result in a decrease in fuel flow

247

How do the pack controllers control temperature?

They regulate the pack output air temperature to satisfy the temperature requirement of the compartment requiring
the coolest air. Hot trim air is then added through the trim air valves to control temperature in each of the other
compartments

248

What temperature will the packs attempt to achieve with the trim air system off?

The packs attempt to maintain all compartments at an average temperature of 24c

249

What are the 7 items requiring the use of bleed air?

They are: (CHEAP WT)
- Air conditioning
- Pressurisation
- Engine start
- Wing and engine anti-ice
- Centre hydraulic system ADP
- Hydraulic reservoir pressurisation
- Thrust reverser actuation

250

Can wing anti-ice be operated on the ground?

Wing anti-ice is inhibited on the ground by the air / ground logic system. If a landing is made with the switch ON, the
wing anti-ice valves automatically close at touchdown

251

Which flight deck windows have anti-icing and anti-fogging protection?

- The forward windows have anti-icing protection and anti-fogging.
- The side windows have anti-fogging protection only
ALL ELEC HEATED

252

Which leading edge slats are provided with bleed air for anti-icing?

The 3 outboard leading edge slats on each wing

253

Is ignition provided when engine anti-ice is used?

Selected igniter(s) operate automatically when engine anti-ice is on

254

Where is fuel temperature measured?

In the left main tank

255

When will the EICAS LOW FUEL caution activate?

When fuel quantity is below 2200lbs in either left or right main tank

256

How many fuel pumps are fitted per tank, and what is their power source?

Each fuel tank contains 2 AC driven fuel pumps. The left main tank also contains a DC driven fuel pump for APU feed
6-12-20 (2) 6-12-20 (7)
TWO CTR TANK PUMPS HAVE HIGHER OUTPUT PRESS
CTR TANK PUMPS INHIBITED LESS THAN 50% N2
L FWD PUMP CAN BE TURNED OFF IN FLT BUT NOT ON GND (FOR APU)

257

What are the two types of fuel scavenge systems?

Older aircraft vs. newer aircraft modifications
1) A scavenge system will operate automatically to transfer any unused centre fuel into the main tanks. This
begins when the main tanks are approx. half empty
2) Centre fuel pump power is automatically removed several seconds after CTR FUEL PUMP messages are
displayed. It is installed to ensure continued centre fuel pump operation is terminated

258

Is engine operation still possible without the fuel pumps turned on?

Yes. When main tank fuel pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from it’s corresponding tank through a suction
feed line that bypasses the pumps. However, at high altitude thrust deterioration or engine flameout may occur as a
result of the fuel flow reduction

259

When will the FUEL CONFIG light illuminate?

1. When the fuel quantity in left and right main tanks differs by 2000lbs (plus or minus 500lbs) or,
2. When centre fuel pump switched are off with more than 1200lbs in the centre tank.
3. When either main tank quantity is below 2200lbs (LOW FUEL caution message also appears)

260

What is the purpose of the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS)?

The NGS converts bleed air to nitrogen-enriched air during all phases of flight. The nitrogen-enriched air is delivered
to the centre fuel tank to reduce flammability in the tank/ RUNS AUTO AFTER TAKEOFF

261

When installed, at what part of the aircraft is fuel jettisoned from?

Via discharge nozzles inboard of each outboard aileron

262

What is the average jettison rate?

Approx. 2600 pounds per minute

263

Is oil quantity displayed in litres or quarts?

Quarts

264

When should the engine start selector release from GND to AUTO during an engine start?

50% N2

265

265. With the engine start selectors in the AUTO mode, when will the selected ignitor(s) continuously operate?

With slats extended or engine anti-ice on

266

Is there a time limit to continuous ignition or flight ignition?

No, there is no time limit

267

267. What is the purpose of selecting FLT on the engine start selectors following a loss of dual engine failure?

1. FADEC aircraft Auto-relight which will operate BOTH ignitors when N2 drops below idle speed.
2. Non-FADEC aircraft Engine start selectors must be switched to FLT to ensure BOTH ignitors are active.

268

What is the rated thrust of the engine?

The engines are rated at 60,200 pounds of take-off thrust CF6-80C2B6 OR CF6-80C2B6F

269

When is the red EGT start limit line of 750c displayed when on the ground?

When the fuel control switch is in the cut-off position. It remains displayed when the fuel control switch is moved to
run until the engine is stabilized at idle. (Non – FADEC = 5 seconds after N2 reaches 60%, FADEC = 10 seconds after
N2 reaches 60%)

270

The in-flight start envelope displays what altitudes?

It displays the closest starting flight level, and two descending flight levels at 2000ft intervals

271

Where is the X-BLD indication displayed? What does it mean when it is displayed?

It is indicated above the N2 value. It is displayed when airspeed is lower than that for a windmill start

272

In AUTO, when will the standby engine indicator display?

It will display when:
- AC power is lost
- EICAS failed
EITHER CRT FAILED OR STATUS SEL ON GND
6-7-10 (16)
SHOWS N1/EGT/N2

273

273. What 2 commands will positioning the fuel control switch to run during a normal engine start achieve?

1) Opens the engine and spar fuel valves
2) Activates the selected ignitors

274

If TO1 thrust is selected for take-off, what climb thrust will be automatically selected?

CLB 1 thrust will automatically be selected.CLB 2 thrust will be automatically selected for TO2 thrust

275

Can the EEC enter hard mode automatically?

No, ALTN needs to be manually selected on the EEC switch to enter hard mode

276

Can the auto-throttle still remain engaged in the EEC hard or soft alternate mode?

Yes

277

Is thrust protection provided during EEC alternate mode?

N1 limit protection YES, overboost, NO

278

What thrust protections are still available in the EEC alternate mode?

N1 and N2 red line protection is still available in the alternate control mode

279

What does the EICAS caution message ENG LIM PROT indicate?

The message ENG LIM PROT is displayed if the thrust lever position is commanding an N1 greater than the maximum
rated thrust N1

280

On engine start, what is the meaning of the EICAS message ENG STARTER?

The start valve has failed to open, meaning there will be no bleed air source to the N2 rotor

281

On engine start, what is the meaning of the EICAS message STARTER CUTOUT?

The start valve has failed to close automatically at 50% N2 and it will need to be selected manually by placing the
engine start selector to auto

282

What is the normal starter duty cycle?

5 minutes on, followed by 30 seconds off per minute on

283

How many attempted APU starts may be made?

The starter duty cycle is a maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within a 60-minute period

284

The bus tie breaker keeps the main AC busses powered at all times by which priority order?

The order of:
- Respective IDG
- APU generator
- Opposite IDG

285

When is the ground handling bus powered?

It can be powered on the ground only. It is powered automatically whenever APU or external power is provided.
External power has priority over the APU generator. There are no switches for the ground handling bus anywhere on
the aircraft.

286

What does the ground handling bus power?

It is provided for loads such as cargo handling, maintenance lights, fuelling systems and other equipment that
requires power only during ground operations. Hence, it is not powered in flight.

287

When can a tripped circuit breaker be reset?

In flight, it is not recommended to reset and tripped circuit breakers unless it is judged to be necessary for flight. (N/A
for fuel)

288

How many attempts may be made at resetting a tripped circuit breaker?

Only one reset may be attempted

289

What cooling period is required before attempting to reset a tripped circuit breaker?

After a cooling period of approximately 2 minutes

290

What will happen to the APU if the battery switch is placed to off?

If the battery switch is placed to off, the APU will shutdown. This occurs only on the ground however, and not inflight.

291

Is an autoland still available if a generator is lost at below 200ft?

Yes. Below 200ft, a loss of a generator will result in:
- Both bus tie breakers remaining open
- The autopilot with the failed generator is unpowered
- The flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer busses
- The autoland continues using the 2 remaining autopilots
- There will be no indication appear on the autoland status annunciator

292

Is an autoland still available if a generator is lost above 200ft?

Yes. Above 200ft, a loss of a generator will result in:
- Both bus tie breakers closing and the one remaining generator powers both the left and right AC busses
- The left main system powers the centre autopilot
- NO LAND 3 appears on the autoland status annunciator

293

Can the autoland status annunciation change below 200ft?

Below 200ft, the altitude status annunciation cannot change except to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition. Faults not
requiring crew action or awareness are annunciated after touchdown

294

294. Source of landing altitude barometric pressure correction – calculation of descent to touchdown?

Landing altitude barometric pressure correction comes from the captain’s altimeter

295

When are EICAS advisories inhibited?

The inhibit period begins from the time either engine is advanced to take-off thrust until the first off:
- 400ft AGL, or
- 20 seconds elapsed time following nose gear extension

296

296. If any illuminated bottle DISCH light is indicated on the fire protection panels, what does this indicate?

It means either the bottle has either discharged, OR has low pressure

297

Pulling an engine fire switch achieves 5 things. What are they?

They are:
- Closes the engine AND spar fuel valves
- Closes the bleed air valve
- Trips the generator off
- Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine driven pump
- Arms both extinguisher bottles

298

What happens to the recirculation fans when either FWD or AFT cargo fire switch is armed?

Both recirculation fans are turned off. EICAS advisory messages > L / R RECIR FANS will be displayed

299

299. What is the only difference that occurs when arming either of the FWD or AFT cargo fire arm switches?

When arming the AFT cargo firm arm switches, this inhibits high flow operation from the packs. This does not occur
when arming the FWD cargo fire arm switch

300

What happens when the APU fire switch is pulled?

The following will occur:
- Closes the APU fuel valve
TRIP APU GEN
- Closes the APU bleed valve
- Closes the APU inlet door
- Shuts down the APU
- Arms the fire extinguisher bottle

301

Does the APU continue to run when an APU fire warning is present?

No, the APU automatically shuts down for a detected fire

302

What does the amber FAIL P-RESET light on the fire/overheat test panel indicate?

It indicates a failure of the detectors in one of the following systems:
- Engine fire detection
- Engine overheat detection
- APU fire detection
- Cargo fire detection

303

What does pushing the SYS FAIL switch on the fire/overheat test panel achieve?

It extinguishes the FAIL P-RESET light and resets the monitor for other systems

304

Can the wheel well fire detection system detect hot brakes?

No, the system will not detect hot brakes without an associated fire

305

Is the engine overheat detection system limited to just the engine?

No. Overheat detection is provided in the struts, pneumatic ducts and in the wing and body areas also

306

How many engine fire extinguishes are fitted?

There are 2 engine fire extinguisher bottles. Either or both bottles can be discharged into either engine

307

How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are fitted?

There is one APU fire extinguisher bottle. The APU fire switch can be rotated either way to discharge the one bottle

308

Is main gear fire detection provided by a single or dual loop?

Single loop only

309

What cockpit indications are provided to the flight deck for smoke detected in a lavatory?

No indication is provided to the flight deck

310

310. What is the maximum operating speed for the extension and extended operation of the landing gear?

270kts / 0.82M

311

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear extension and retraction?

The centre hydraulic system powers the main and nose gear extension and retraction

312

How are the nose gear and main gear held in the up and locked position?

The nose gear is held up by uplocks. The main gear is held up by the door structure

313

How far can the nose wheel be turned by the tiller and the rudder pedals?

The nose wheel can be turned 7 degrees either side using the rudder pedals. Using the tiller will turn the nose wheel
65 degrees. When both are used at the same time, the tiller overrides the rudder pedal commands

314

What does the amber BRAKE SOURCE light indicate?

The amber BRAKE SOURCE light indicates that both normal and alternate brake system pressures are low

315

What does the EICAS caution message GEAR DISAGREE indicate?

GEAR DISAGREE displays if any gear is not in the commanded position of the landing gear lever, after the normal
transit time

316

How is the alternate gear extension provided?

The alternate gear extension system uses a dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump to extend the landing
gear. Selecting DN on the alternate gear extend switch releases all door and gear uplocks. The landing gear then free
falls to the down and locked position

317

Do the gear doors close after alternate gear extension?

The doors remain open, and the EICAS advisory message GEAR DOORS displays

318

318. Location of high temperature measurement - OVHT light illuminates on the hydraulic system panel?

Any OVHT light indicates temperature is high in the associated hydraulic pump

319

When will the RF prompt appear on the status page?

When hydraulic oil quantity drops below 0.75 magenta

320

Below what quantity will the hydraulic light QTY be displayed?

Quantity below 0.48 will illuminate the QTY light and EICAS message HYD QTY

321

In the AUTO position, when will the centre hydraulic air demand pump operate?

The pump will operate under 2 conditions:
- When the system pressure is low
- When heavy load items are selected, such as landing gear, flaps, slats, spoilers

322

What does the green PRESS light on the ram air turbine indicate?

It indicates 2 things:
- The RAT is deployed, and
- The RAT is producing hydraulic pressure

323

How many hydraulic systems are required to provide adequate airplane controllability?

One

324

Which hydraulic pumps are automatically load shed? When are they shed?

During the following:
- The number 2 centre hydraulic pump is load shed automatically to reduce electrical loads. On the
ground when you have only a single power source (either APU or external power or engine generator),
both centre system electric pumps cannot operate at the same time.
- To reduce electrical load, the left electric demand pump is inhibited on the ground during engine start
of either engine, when only one electrical generator is operating

325

Above what speed will the RAT provide adequate hydraulic power?

Above 130kts

326

What systems does the left hydraulic system power?

The left system powers:
- Elevators
- Rudder
- Left inboard aileron (with right)
- Outboard ailerons (with right)
- Stabiliser trim (with centre)
- Elevator feel (with centre)
- Left autopilot servo
- Spoilers 1 / 6 / 12
- Yaw dampers (with centre)
- Rudder ratio
- It also provides trapped fluid to the right system to operate the PES

327

What systems does the right hydraulic system power?

The right system powers:
- Elevators
- Rudder
- Right inboard aileron (with left)
- Outboard ailerons (with left)
- Spoilers 2 / 7 / 11
- Right autopilot servo
- Pitch enhancement system
NORMAL BRAKES

328

What systems does the centre hydraulic system power?

The centre system powers:
- Elevators
- Rudder
- Inboard ailerons only (with left and right)
- Stabiliser trim (with left)
- Elevator feel (with left)
- Centre autopilot servo
- Spoilers 3 / 4 / 5 / 8 / 9 / 10
- Flaps and slats
- Yaw dampers (with left)
- Hydraulic driven generator
- Tailskid
NOSE WHEEL STEERING
ALTERNATE BRAKE
LANDING GEAR

329

What occurs when a low centre hydraulic system quantity is sensed?

The number one hydraulic pump on the centre hydraulic system is automatically isolated to provide hydraulic pressure
to the reserve brakes and steering system

330

When will the RAT automatically deploy?

In flight, the RAT will automatically deploy when both engines fail

331

What is maximum motoring defined as?

Maximum motoring speed is reached when acceleration is less than approx. 1% in 5 seconds

332

What does selecting the engine start selector to GND achieve?

It does 4 things:
- Opens the start valve
- Engages the air driven starter to the N2 rotor
- Closes the engine bleed valve if it is open
- Arms the selected ignitors

333

Which hydraulic system provides normal braking?

The normal braking system is provided the right hydraulic system

334

How is the alternate braking system powered if the normal braking system pressure is low?

Alternate brake hydraulic pressure selection is automatic. The centre hydraulic system supplies pressure to the
alternate brake system if right hydraulic system pressure is low/THEREFORE USING FOOT BRAKE SENDS HYD PRESS THROUGH THE ALT ANTISKID VAVLE TO THE BRAKES

335

Can braking still be performed with a loss of the normal and alternate braking systems?

Yes, the brake accumulator can provide several braking applications or parking brake applications

336

When will the BRAKE TEMP light illuminate on the landing gear panel?

When a wheel brake temperature is 5 or greater on the status page

337

Is antiskid protection provided in the alternate brake system?

Yes, however the alternate brake system provides antiskid protection to laterally paired wheels

338

Above what speed will automatic maximum wheel brakes be provided during an RTO?

Ground speed must be above 85kts/BOTH THR LEVERS TO IDLE

339

Are displayed brake temperatures instantaneous?

No, temperature values are not instantaneous and tend to build for 10 to 15 minutes after the brakes are applied

340

When does auto-braking application commence on touchdown?

Following:
- Both thrust levers retarded to idle
- Wheels have spun up
- Nose attitude is less than 1 degree

341

What happens to applied autobrake pressure after touchdown?

Autobrake pressure is reduced to maintain the deceleration rate after thrust reversers and spoilers contribute to total
deceleration

342

What does touchdown protection provide?

Touchdown protection ensures that rear wheel brakes do not have hydraulic pressure applied at touchdown

343

How does the braking system provide hydroplaning protection?

The hydroplaning protection system compares IRS groundspeed to wheel speed and decreases aft wheel brake
pressure when groundspeed is greater than wheel speed

344

How does the braking system provide locked wheel protection?

Locked wheel protection compares the speed of each fore and aft wheel pair, and releases hydraulic pressure from
the slower wheel when the speed difference is greater than 25kts

345

How are the flaps and slats operated in the alternate mode?

The alternate mode allows direct manual operation of either flaps and / or slats through electric motors.

346

When alternate flaps are required, what is the maximum flap setting?

Alternate mode flap and slat extension is limited to flaps 20

347

What happens to the rudder if the EICAS advisory message RUDDER RATIO is displayed?

The left hydraulic system (which provides the rudder ratio) rudder actuator will depressurise which limits rudder
displacement at high airspeeds

348

Can the electric trim switches disengage the autopilot at all stages of flight?

If a single autopilot is engaged, electric trimming causes the autopilot to disengage. If multiple autopilots are
engaged, the electric trim switches are inhibited. Alternate trimming does not cause autopilot disengagement

349

How does the Pitch Enhancement System work?

The PES consists of a hydraulic motor in the right hydraulic system driving a pump, which uses trapped left trim
system fluid to operate the stabiliser. It will automatically activate if both the left and centre hydraulic systems are lost
in flight. Only electric trim is available at approximately ¼ the normal rate

350

350. What are the operational considerations if the EICAS advisory message RUDDER RATIO is displayed?

The rudder ratio system has failed. Despite the left system hydraulic rudder actuator being depressurised, abrupt
pedal movement should be avoided at high airspeeds. The crosswind limit for landing becomes 15kts, and no
autoland is permitted

351

When will the EICAS caution message > SPEEDBRAKES EXT be displayed?

When the speedbrake lever is on the up side of the armed position and either of the following conditions exists:
- Radio altitude is below 800ft or,
- If the flaps are in landing position (25 or 30)

352

At cruise speeds, how many roll spoilers are locked out to prevent over-controlling?

2 on each wing - Spoilers 4 / 5 / 8 / 9

353

When the speedbrake lever is up in flight, which spoilers extend?

All spoilers, except for 4 and 9

354

How many leading edge slats are fitted to the aircraft?

12 leading in total - 5 outboard and 1 inboard.

355

355. In the alternate flap mode, approximately how long does it take to run the flaps from UP to 20?

Approximately 3 minutes by electric motors driving the power drive units

356

356. When using the communications handset, when does the push to talk switch need to be held down?

Only when making a PA using the handset. It does not need to be held down when using the handset for interphone
communications

357

357. Communications handset equipped with numerical keys - dialing the different handsets in the passenger cabin?

- Door L1 = 11
- Door L2 = 12
- Door L3 = 13
- Door R1 = 21
- Door R2 = 22
- Door R3 = 23
- Pilot = 31

358

Why is a consequence of having the HF sensitivity decreased too much?

Decreasing sensitivity too far prevents reception, including SELCAL monitoring of the HF radio

359

What is indicated by the EICAS advisory message RADIO TRANSMIT?

A VHF or HF radio is being keyed for 30 seconds or more

360

Can both HF radios be used for transmission at the same time?

No, both HF radios use a common antenna. When either HF is transmitting, the antenna is disconnected from the
other HF radio

361

When does the voice recorder system begin to record?

Anytime AC power is applied to the airplane

362

How are communication messages presented on the EICAS?

They are preceded by a white bullet, and the aural alert is a single chime

363

Is there a pre-recorded message following a decompression?

Yes, when the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft a PA announcement is automatically made when the oxygen masks
drop

364

Can the escape slides be disarmed from outside the aircraft?

Yes, the first step in opening a door from the outside is to press the disarming lever, which unlocks the exterior door
handle, and disarms the escape slides

365

Access code entry into access panel - subsequent attemps following selection of DENY?

After 30 minutes

366

With the oxygen mask regulator in the ‘N’ position, what oxygen is supplied?

‘N’ will supply an air / oxygen mixture on demand. The ratio of this mix will depend on cabin altitude

367

With the oxygen mash regulator in the 100% position, what oxygen is supplied?

100% will supply 100% oxygen on demand

368

What does rotating the emergency / test selector on the oxygen mask regulator achieve?

It supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes. It protects best against smoke and harmful
vapours

369

How is the emergency lighting system powered?

By remote batteries that are charged by the airplane electrical system

370

How long will the emergency lights remains activated if selected on?

At least 15 minutes of operation

371

When will oxygen flow to a mask in a PSU?

When any mask in that particular PSU is pulled down on

372

372. When will the cockpit door automatically unlock when the correct emergency access code is entered?

If the pilot takes no action, the door unlocks for 5 seconds after a 45 second delay

373

Can the slide ever deploy after the door is opened from the outside?

No

374

What automatically occurs when an overwing emergency exit door is opened?

- The ramp and slide inflate automatically
- The inboard spoiler is retracted
- The exterior emergency lights on that side illuminate

375

Can the overwing emergency exits be opened from the outside?

Yes, and the emergency exit ramp and slide are automatically disarmed

376

When should the cargo doors not be operated?

Do not operate the cargo doors with winds at the door of more than 40kts. Do not keep the door open when wind
gusts are more than 65kts

377

When will oxygen begin to flow to the flight crew oxygen mask?

When the left oxygen panel door is open

378

When will the EICAS caution message IAS DISAGREE display?

When the captain’s and F/O’s airspeed indications disagree by more than 5kts/INHIBITED LESS 400’RA OR SAME SOURCE

379

When will the EICAS caution message ALT DISAGREE display?

When the captain’s and F/O’s altitude indications disagree by more than 200ft

380

When shutting down an engine inflight, which EICAS alerts are inhibited?

When an engine is shutdown by selecting the fuel control switch to cut off, or by pulling the engine fire switch, the
EICAS alert message L/R ENG SHUTDOWN is displayed and the following alerts are inhibited:
- ENG ANTI-ICE
- ENG BLEED OFF
- GEN DRIVE
- GEN OFF
- ENG OIL PRESS
- HYD PRIM PUMP
- ENG CONTROL

381

Can the take-off configuration warning siren be cancelled?

No, retarding both thrust levers can only silence the siren

382

When will the control column nudger operate?

If the flaps are retracted and the angle of attack continues to increase, a control column nudger moves the control
column forward

383

Can the overspeed aural warning siren be cancelled during an overspeed?

Yes, by pushing either master warning / caution reset switch

384

What is the difference between GPWS and EGPWS?

EGPWS provides look-ahead terrain awareness

385

When will the GPWS callout “BANK ANGLE BANK ANGLE”?

Above 150ft RA the callout occurs at 40 degrees

386

How does the GPWS Mode 7 system detect windshear?

AGPWS provides an immediate windshear alert when an excessive downdraft or tailwind is occurring. The GPWS
takes additional data from the stall warning computer and determines if decreasing performance windshear
conditions are occurring in the immediate vicinity of the airplane

387

When is the GPWS mode 7 windshear warning system active?

- On departure, GPWS windshear detection begins at rotation to 1500ft RA
- On approach and landing, it is enabled from 1500ft RA

388

How does the predictive windshear system detect windshear ahead?

The PWS detects disturbed air ahead of the aircraft which contains moisture or particulate matter and which fits a
known pattern of windshear activity

389

How far ahead of the aircraft does the PWS examine?

On the ground and in flight, the PWS looks ahead from 0.5nm to 3nm, with a splay of 25 degrees either side of the
aircraft

390

How far ahead of the aircraft does the PWS examine for warnings?

Inflight = 1.5nm
On the ground = 3.0nm

391

When does the PWS start scanning automatically?

Departure = When thrust levers are set for take-off
Approach = When the aircraft is below 2300ft AGL
ON GND WX IN OTHER THAN TEST MODE

392

When are PWS alerts inhibited?

During take-off and landing as follows:
- Warnings = Between 100kts and 50ft AGL
- Cautions = Between 80kts and 400ft AGL

393

If the PWS detects windshear ahead on the ground, what aural alert is given?

“WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”

394

If the PWS detects windshear ahead on approach below 1200ft, what aural alert is given?

“GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”

395

Terrain displayed on the HSI’s, and PWS detected - what will be displayed on the HSI’s?

If a PWS alert occurs (below 1200ft) when TERR is selected on both pilots HSI’s, provided that there is not an active
terrain alert occurring, the weather radar display including PWS symbology replaces the terrain display

396

What are the engine starter cycle limitations?

They are:
- 5 minutes on, followed by 30 seconds off per minute on
- Two consecutive 5 minute cycles require a 10 minute cooling period

397

How do you manually enter incremental latitude or longitude waypoints into the FMC?

Enter the full latitude or longitude followed by a dash (not a slash), then the increment chosen for the multiple
waypoints. For example, W060-10 adds waypoints starting at W060 in ten-degree increments. Usually, this entry is
made on top of the active waypoint on the CDU to allow the FMC to calculate a proper sequence

398

How do you enter a course from present position to be flown in LNAV?

Enter P/PXXX, where XXX is the course. Example P/P150. This course of 150 can then be flown in LNAV

399

When is the EGT indication inhibited from changing to amber?

The EGT has a maximum continuous limit at 925c. If the EGT reaches the maximum continuous limit, the digital
indication, box, pointer and dial all change colour to amber. However, the EGT indication is inhibited from changing
colour to amber during take-off or go-around for 5 minutes. In effect, the temperature inhibit range would be from
925c to 959c. The red line limit of 960c is never inhibited

400

Following an autoland, when will the autothrottle disengage?

When the reverse thrust levers are pulled aft to the interlock position

401

401. What protections are built into the thrust reverser system to prevent inadvertent thrust reverser operation?

Each thrust reverser is automatically protected against unintentional reverse thrust: Pneumatically and
electromechanically.
- If an uncommanded thrust reverser movement is sensed, an autostow feature automatically applies
pneumatic pressure to stow the reverser
- An electromechanical lock prevents uncommanded reverser deployment in the event of additional
system failures

402

When fuel is being supplied to the APU in flight, can the left FWD pump be turned off?

Yes, in flight the left FWD pump can be turned off with the pump switch

403

In general, how can airframe vibrations be reduced?

Descending and reducing airspeed can reduce Airframe vibrations

404

How is fire detection provided for in the cargo compartments?

The forward and aft cargo compartments each have smoke detectors installed, not fire loops

405

How many symbol generators are fitted?

3 symbol generators generate visual displays for the ADI and HSI. The left symbol generator normally provides the
Captain’s displays, and the right symbol generator normally provides the First Officer’s displays. The centre symbol
generator is available as an alternate source for either or both pilots

406

Are the vertical speed indicators operative prior to the IRS’s being aligned?

The VSI is inoperative until the associated IRS has completed alignment and entered the navigation mode. So during
the pre-flight instrument check, the VSI may be flagged until IRS alignment

407

Are the RDMI’s operative prior to the IRS’s being aligned?

The RDMI is inoperative until the associated IRS has completed alignment and entered the navigation mode. So
during the pre-flight instrument check, the RDMI may be flagged until IRS alignment

408

How many Air Data Computers are fitted?

Two ADC’s are fitted. The left instruments use the left ADC and the right instruments use the right ADC

409

What caution should be used when selecting alternate source of static pressure?

Switching in flight may cause the following undesirable effects:
- Abrupt autopilot altitude changes
- Transponder altitude reporting errors
- Enabling the descent schedule of the cabin pressure controller

410

Can the right fuel tank fuel pumps supply fuel to the APU in flight?

Yes, by opening of the crossfeed valve

411

How many spoiler panels do not operate as the inflight speedbrakes?

2 - spoiler panels 4 and 9 do not operate as inflight speedbrakes

412

What hydraulic system failure will cause the autobrakes to become inoperative?

A failure of the normal braking system (i.e. the right hydraulic system) will cause autobrakes to become inoperative

413

413. Where will the Vmo pointer and the airspeed pointer position themselves following an associated ADC failure?

The Vmo pointer will position to 260kts when data from the ADC is unreliable. The airspeed pointer indicates zero of
the associated ADC has failed

414

What non-normal configuration will require the longest runway for landing and why?

All AC buses off Flap 30 landing. This is because auto speedbrake is not available, anti-skid for outboard wheels in
inoperative, and if the hydraulic driven generator equipped, thrust reversers are inoperative

415

What are the possible indications of an ADC failure?

The following may be present:
- Airspeed indicator MACH flag, AS flag, Vmo pointer at 260kts AIRPSD POINTER ZERO
- Altimeter OFF flag
- Vertical speed indicator OFF flag
- Possible EICAS message ENG EEC MODE

416

When will the Mode 5 below glideslope deviation be activated during EGPWS?

When the descent is more than 1.3 dots below an ILS glideslope, the radio altitude is 1000ft or less/GR DN

417

What are the 7 modes of the EGPWS?

They are:
- 1) Excessive descent rate
- 2) Excessive terrain closure rate
- 3) Altitude loss after take-off
- 4) Unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration
- 5) Below glideslope deviation
- 6) Altitude callouts and bank angle callouts
- 7) Windshear

418

Time to impact? “TERRAIN TERRAIN, PULL UP” or “OBSTACLE OBSTACLE, PULL UP”

20 – 30 seconds from impact/TERRAIN SOLID RED HSI

419

Time to impact? “CAUTION TERRAIN” or “CAUTION OBSTACLE”

40 – 60 seconds from impact/ SOLID AMBER HSI

420

Below what altitude will the Mode 7 Windshear system of the EGPWS be activated?

When radio altitude is 1500ft or below

421

When is the PWS enabled during approach and landing?

The PWS starts scanning at 2,300’ and becomes active below 1,200ft

422

When are PWS warnings inhibited during take-off?

PWS warnings are inhibited from 100kts to 50’ AGL

423

What equipment does the ASA monitor?

The ASA will monitor:
- Flight control computer
- ILS receiver
- IRS
- Radio altimeters
- A/P servos
- Stabiliser position sensors
- Flap position sensors
- G/A logic system

424

Can NO AUTOLND or NO LAND 3 be blanked using the push/reset switch of the ASA?

It will depend on whether APP has been pushed as follows:
- Before APP selected: If the condition that caused the fault is still present when the switch is released, the
annunciation will return to NO AUTOLND or NO LAND 3
- After APP is selected: If NO LAND 3 was displayed, the annunciation will blank, and remain blank until
after landing. If NO AUTOLND was displayed, this will remain displayed. You cannot blank NO
AUTOLND

425

425. Will automatic rudder input be provided following an engine failure on a multiple autopilot ILS approach?

AFDS controls rudder during multiple autopilot ILS approaches to compensate for engine out asymmetric conditions
during an ILS approach. With LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated, autopilot control of the rudder is active

426

What slip angle will be induced during runway align mode?

The autopilot will initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 2 degrees when the crab angle exceeds 5 degrees

427

After pushing the autopilot APP switch, when will the 2 remaining autopilots engage?

The autopilots will ARM after pushing the APP switch, however the autopilots will not engage until LOC and G/S are
captured, and the RA is below 1500ft

428

When is the airport and runway displayed on the HSI?

It is displayed in white when selected as the origin or destination, and the selected range is 40nm or less. The dashed
runway centreline extends to 14.2nm

429

How many FCC’s are required to engage an autopilot?

Autopilot engagement requires at least 2 FCC’s

430

What do the different colours of terrain displayed on the HSI indicate?

Dotted green = Terrain from 2000ft below to 500ft below (250ft with gear down) the aircraft’s current altitude
Dotted amber = Terrain from 500ft below (250ft with gear down) to 2000ft above the current aircraft altitude
Dotted red = Terrain more than 2000ft above airplane’s current altitude

431

When can the GLIDESLOPE caution be cancelled?

By pushing the ground proximity glide slope inhibit switch, the GLIDESLOPE caution will be cancelled below 1000ft
RA

432

What happens if a look-ahead terrain alert occurs without terrain being displayed?

Pop-up look ahead terrain will be displayed regardless of terrain switch, provided the HSI map is in the VOR, APP,
MAP and CTR MAP positions

433

What is first priority for GPWS alerts?

A windshear alert inhibits all other GPWS and windshear alerts

434

Q2: What height can APU electrical load be used to?

A: Up to the aircraft ceiling of 43,100ft

435

Q30: What fuel tank is APU fuel fed from? Is this an AC run pump or a DC run pump?

A: APU fuel is supplied from the left main tank. A dedicated DC pump is used if no AC power is available. When AC power is
available, the left forward AC pump is used, and the DC pump is commanded off

436

Q47: What does the EFI (Electronic Flight Instruments) switch on the side instrument panel do?

A: It selects the EFIS symbol generator, ILS receiver, and radio altimeter for the appropriate (Captain’s or F/O’s) ADI and HSI.

437

Q65: During alternate navigation, do the two CDU’s communicate with each other?

A: The two CDU’s operate independently. A route change to one CDU does NOT change the other one.

438

Q101: Following an engine bleed overheat, will the engine bleed valve need to be closed manually or will this be an automatic
protection?

A: The engine bleed valve will automatically close

439

Q113: How many fuel pumps are fitted per tank, and what is their power source?

A: Each fuel tank contains 2 AC driven fuel pumps. The left main tank also contains a DC driven fuel pump for APU feed

440

Q133: Above 10,000ft, de-rated climb thrust will gradually change to reach full climb thrust by what altitude?

A: 300: 12,000ft
300ER / F: 30,000ft