Joints and Lameness: Arthrocentesis, Septic arthritis, Lameness, OA Flashcards

(74 cards)

1
Q

What type of needle (gauge and length) is typically used for arthrocentesis?

A

20G 1”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is physical restraint preferred to chemical restraint for arthocentesis?

A

Drugs renduce inhibition so horse can react more rapidly and exagerated when needle goes in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Left forelimb: What structure(s) are indicated by #13? #14?

A

13: Extensor brnach of interosseus
14: Flexor tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What limb is this (fore or hind)? What is indicated by #1, #2, #3, and #6?

A

Forelimb (lateral view)

1: Large metacarpal bone (MC III)
2: Proximal sesamoid bones
3: Proximal phalanx
6: Navicular bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the landmarks for performing a radiocarpal joint arthrocentesis?

A

Distal medial ridge of the radius

Proximal edge of the radiocarpal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

With which joint does the carpometacarpal joint communicate?

A

Middle/Inter carpal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

With which joint does the tibiotarsal joint communicate?

A

Proximal intertarsal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What landmark do you palpate for a tibiotarsal joint arthrocentesis?

A

Medial malleolus of tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

You know the drill

A

Blue: Common digital extensor muscle

Pink: Superficial digital flexor tendon

Aqua: Deep digital flexor tendon

Green: Common digital extensor tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This bone is one landmark used to ID the radiocarpal joint. Identify the bone indicated.

a. Third carpal bone
b. Ulnar carpal bone
c. Metacarpal IV
d. Radial carpal bone

A

d. Radial carpal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the preferred approach to the metacarpophalangeal joint?

A

Collateral sesamoidean ligament approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many compartments does the stifle joint have? What are they? Which should you inject when treating the stifle?

A

3

Femoropatellar joint

Medial femorotibial joint

Lateral femorotibial joint

Inject all compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which which compartment does the femoropatellar joint communicate with more often?

A

MFT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of septic arthritis.

A

Decreased HA synthesis

Loss of PG

Joint effusion

Pain

Compromise synovial blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the types of septic arthritis is foals? What is involved in each type?

A

S, E, and P

S: Synvoial structures (membrane, fluid)

E: Epiphysis

P: Physis of long bones +/- joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of septic arthritis in a foal is highly effusive and typically affects multiple larger joints?

A

S-type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of septic arthritis in foals occurs at a few weeks of age usually following another disease such as pneumonia or diarrhea? How does the lameness present?

A

E-Type

Mild lameness followed by acute exacerbation (“Lame on and off and then suddenly super lame”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which type of septic arthritis in foals presents with swelling but no effusion? How many sites are usually affected?

A

P-type

One site (e.g. distal physis of MCIII/MTIII, radius, tibia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What should you evaluate and how in addition to the joints in a foal with septic arthritis?

A

Umbilicus

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which bacterium is usually associated with iatrogenic septic arthritis in adult horses? Traumatic septic arthritis?

A

Staphylococcus

Enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F: An open joint is only considered infected if there is effusion.

A

False, an open joint is always an infected joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is involved in foal septic arthritis that is usually not involved in adults?

A

Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing sepsis?

A

Microbiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the normal TP in synovial fluid?

A

<2.0 g/dL

>3.5 g/dL is abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the 2 requirements for successful treatment of septic arthritis?
Rapid recognition of disease Immediate aggressive treatment
26
What is the mainstay of treatment for septic arthritis?
Lavage ## Footnote *Early and often with large volumes (5-10L) and large G needle (16-18)*
27
How should antibiotics be administered for septic arthritis?
Local is vital
28
How long should you leave the tourniquet when performing regional limb perfusion? What dosage is usually used?
30 min 1/3 of systemic dose
29
What is usually the cause of lameness?
Pain
30
How many steps are there for a classical lameness exam? What are they?
7 1: History 2: PE 3: Palpation (weight-bearing and non + Hoof testers) 4: Observation at exercise 5: Flexion tests 6: Diagnostic nerve blocks 7: Diagnostic imaging
31
What is the gait lameness is graded from?
Trot
32
If a horse is dropping his head every time the left forelimb hits the ground, where is he lame?
Right forelimb
33
At what grade of lameness may you see a head and neck nod with a hindlimb lameness?
3/5 or above
34
What parts of the hoof are tested with hoof testers?
Wall (*all the way a ound)* Sole Frog *(across)* Heels Coronary band
35
T/F: Stringhalt is a type of lameness caused by pain.
False, it is a gait abnormality
36
What grade of lameness is consistently observable at a trot under all circumstances?
Grade 3
37
You are evaluating a horse that only shows signs of lameness when trotting in a circle. What grade is this lameness?
Grade 2
38
What are the 5 pathognomic lameness' diagnosed at the walk?
Peroneus tertius rupture Locking patella Stringhalt Fibrotic myopathy Sweeny
39
What muscles are usually affected by fibrotic myopathy?
Semimembranosus Semitendinosus
40
What is possible in a horse with peronius tertius rupture that a healthy horse cannot do?
Full extension of the hock with flexion of the stifle (Paradoxical hindlimb movement)
41
What are 3 treatment options for locking patella?
Medial patellar desmotomy Walking backwards Strengthening quadriceps muscles (Climb hills)
42
What is stringhalt?
Hyperflexion of the hock
43
During a lamenss exam you notice a shortened cranial phase of the stride and a characteristic 'slapping' sound when one of the hindlimbs hits the ground. What is your top DDx? How could palpation aid in the diagnosis?
Fibrotic myopathy There is a palpable firmness of the affected muscle
44
Damage to which nerve resulting in the atrophy of which muscle causes Sweeny?
Suprascapular nerve Infraspinatus muscle
45
T/F: During a flexion test, the horse should be trotte din a straight line and circle to assess it's gait.
False, straight line immediately after flexion
46
How long do you hold a flexion test for the proximal joints of the forelimb? Distal joints?
Proximal 30sec Distal 60sec
47
Which joints are being flexed during this fore and hindlimb flexion test?
Fetlock Pastern Coffin *Distal limb*
48
Which joints are being flexed during this forelimb flexion test?
Carpus Cubital (elbow) Glenohumeral *Distal limb*
49
How long do you hold a flexion test for the proximal joints of the hindlimb? Distal joints?
Proximal 90 sec Distal 30 sec
50
Which joints are being flexed during this flexion test?
Hock (tarsus) Stifle Coxofemoral *Proximal hindlimb*
51
Why do you begin distally and work proximally when using local anesthesia to localize the lameness? In which direction do you direct the needle? Why?
AX numbs everything from the injection site down Distally to minimize proximal diffusion
52
Which agent is prefered for local anesthesia? How long does it last?
2% Mepivacaine (Carbocaine) 30min- 2hrs *Preferred to lidocaine because lidocaine stings*
53
Why is 0.5% bupivicaine not used for diagnostics?
It lasts too long (5-6 hours)
54
What is the most distal nerve block that can be done in the horse?
Palmar digital ## Footnote *Blocking palmar digital nerves*
55
Which nerves are blocked with the abaxial/basisesamoid nerve block?
Palmar digital nerves
56
Which nerves are blocked by the 4-point block?
L/M Palmar metacarpal nerves *Or Metatarsal if hindlimb* L/M Palmar nerves
57
Where are the needles placed for a 4-point nerve block?
Between Palmar MC III and MC II and MCIV **- right at the button of the splint bones** Between the suspensory ligament and the DDFT - **avoiding (by going proximal to it) DDF tendon sheath**
58
When performing a low 4-point nerve block, what nerves are being blocked by the needle placed distally and more dorsally? a. Palmar nerves b. Palmar metacarpal nerves c. Palmar digital nerves d. Ulnar nerve
b. Palmar metacarpal nerves ## Footnote *At level of button of the split bone*
59
The origin of which structure is blocked by the lateral palmar nerve block?
Suspensory ligament
60
Lameness that does not improve with PD or abaxial nerve blocks, but shows marked improvement with low 4-point block is likely localized to which area? a. Cubital joint b. Metacarpophalangeal joint c. Proximal interphalangeal joint d. Carpometacarpal joint
b. Metacarpophalangeal joint * Fetlock*
61
When preforming IA anesthesia, how much volume of anesthetic should you infuse in relation to the volume of fluid injected? a. Equal volume b. Injected volume less than or equal to the volume collected c. Injected volume more than or equal to the volume collected d. 50cc
c. Injected volume more than or equal to the volume collected ## Footnote *Slightly distend joint*
62
How many views are required for examing distal joints? Which views?
**4 views** 2 obliques 1 lateral 1 DP
63
What is the only modality that allows for real time evaluation of both soft tissues and to some extent, bone?
Ultrasound
64
What is the modality of choice for imaging bone?
CT
65
What component of the synovial membrane allows for phagocytosis? Which produce hyaluronic acid and collagen?
Type A -Macrophages Type B -Fibroblasts
66
What portion of the joint absorbs shock? a. Synovial membrane b. Subchondral bone c. Articular cartilage
b. Subchondral bone
67
Which condroprotective agent is a long unbranched non-sulfated GAG which originates from type B synoviocytes and chronocytes? The drug is chrondroprotective when administered IA, provides analegsia and reduces cartilage fibrillation, when used appropraitely.
Sodium Hyalurinate / Hyaluronan / Hyaluronic Acid / **HA**
68
What can you combine with HA in order to decrease inflammation?
Triamcinolone (IA)
69
T/F: Generic and brand name chrondroprotectants have very similar if not idential efficacy.
False, brand name is better (e.g. Adequan)
70
PSGAGS (e.g. Adequan) significantly potentiate subinfective doses of bacreria. What can you do counteract this? a. Combine with Triamcinolone IA b. Combine with NSAID IA c. Combine with Amikacin IA d. Only administer PSGAGS IV
c. Combine with Amikacin IA ## Footnote *125mg*
71
T/F: Polyglycan can be administered IV or IA, but is less effective IV.
False, IV causes increase in disease progression
72
Which chondroprotective has a greater effect on articular cartilage fibrillation?
HA
73
Which chondroprotectant has a greater magnitude of postive effects on the synovial membrane?
PSGAG
74
Which corticosteroid has consistently shown to have deleterious effects on articular cartilage and so should not be used IA?
Methylprednisolone acetate