L2: CONTROLLING MICROBIAL GROWTH Flashcards

1
Q

purpose is to destroy all microorganisms and their spores on inanimate objects

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

purpose is to destroy or irreversibly inactivate microorganisms (but
not their spores) on inanimate objects

A

Disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

chemical germicide for use on the skin or tissues and should not be
substituted for disinfectant

A

Antiseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

inhibits/ suppresses growth of bacteria

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

kills bacteria

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Kills microorganisms by denaturing/coagulating their proteins and enzymes

A

Sterilization by Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

minimum time it takes to kill a population of
microbes at a specific temperature

A

Thermal Death Time (TDT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • lowest temperature that is required to kill a population of microbes when applied for a specific time.
A

Thermal Death Point (TDP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Time in minutes at which 90% of bacteria is killed within a given period of time. 🡪 canning industry

A

Decimal Reduction Time (DRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Kills vegetative forms of bacteria (water-borne), most virus, and fungi within
1 minute

A

Boiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hepatitis virus can survive up to __ minutes of boiling

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Endospores can survive up to __minutes of boiling

A

20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Temperatures of about 160C for 60minutes – necessary to kill most spores

A

Dry heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most effective method of sterilization (Autoclave)

A

Moist Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Moist Heat 2 methods:

A
  1. Tyndallization
  2. Autoclaving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

AKA Fractional sterilization

A

Tyndallization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tyndallization- the steaming process performed at 100°C done in steam sterilizer for 15-20 minutes followed by incubation at 37°C overnight and this cycle is repeated
for successive __ days

A

3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tyndallization Uses____ Sterilizer

A

Arnold Sterilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most reliable method of heat sterilization, More modern, Use to sterilize culture media and surgical supplies

A

Autoclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

AUTOCLAVE - __C, __min, __lbs pressure

A

121C, 15min, 15lbs pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

process of food preservation in which packaged and unpacked foods (e.g.,
milk and fruit juices) are treated with mild heat, usually to less than 100 °C
(212 °F), to eliminate pathogens and extend shelf life

A

Pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

destroys or deactivates microorganisms and enzymes that contribute to food
spoilage or the risk of disease

A

Pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Types of Pasteurization

A

High-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization
Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

for milk; (71.5 °C
(160.7 °F) for 15 seconds) which ensures safety of milk and provides a
refrigerated shelf life of approximately two weeks

A

High-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
milk is pasteurized at 135 °C (275 °F) for 1–2 seconds, which provides the same level of safety, but along with the packaging, extends shelf life to three months under refrigeration
Ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization
26
UV rays with shorter WL are more effective in killing bacteria
Irradiation
27
______ with WL 240 -280 ARE used to sterilize rooms
Mercury vapor lamps with WL 240-280
28
Use if heat is not feasible (some carbohydrates solutions, serum, body fluids), Removes microbes by passage of liquid or gas through a screen like material with small pores
Filtration
29
A typical microfiltration membrane pore size range is ___ - ___ µm, with the most commonly used being 0.2 µm and 0.45 µm, which is sufficient to eliminate bacteria and fungi
0.1-10 µm
30
use in operating rooms to eliminate bacteria; mostly filters particles that are 0.3um; capture pollen, dirt, dust, moisture, bacteria (0.2–2.0 μm), viruses (0.02–0.3 μm), and submicron liquid aerosol (0.02–0.5 μm).
High Efficiency Particulate Air filter (HEPA)
31
usually inhibit or stop microbial growth and proliferation but often do not kill bacteria (BACTERIOSTATIC)
Low Temperature
32
three types of alcohol are ___, ___, and ___
ethanol, methanol, and isopropanol
33
works by denaturing and coagulating proteins, disrupting their cell wall, and killing them; dissolves lipid membranes, highly efficient against viruses and can be used in adjunct with other ___ to obtain a powerful synergistic effect against microorganisms
Alcohol
34
EXAMPLE OF Oxidizing Agents
H2O2, K-permanganate
35
act by oxidizing the cell membrane of microorganisms, which results in a loss of structure and leads to cell lysis and death
Oxidizing Agents
36
Disrupts oxidative phosphorylation, which is the most important process in cell ex. Iodide, Chlorines
Halogens
37
Porous surface- __:__dilution
1:10 dilution
38
Hard Surfaces- _:___ dilution
1:100 dilution
39
Concentrated infectious agents: __:__ dilution
1:5 dilution
40
produce saponification of the fatty acids within cell membranes, resulting in the loss of membrane integrity. ex KOH, NaOH
Alkalies
41
disrupts the amphoteric matter in microbial surface structures and increases the permeability of cell membrane, subsequently metabolic processes are hindered
Acids
42
inactivates microorganisms by alkylating the amino and sulfhydral groups of proteins and ring nitrogen atoms of purine bases. ex. Formaldehyde
Gases
43
ex. hexadecyltrimethylammonium ('cetrimide'), chlorhexidine, and benzalkonium chloride
Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
44
bactericidal and fungicidal activity, permeate into the membrane and disrupt its physical and biochemical properties
Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
45
disrupt the chemical bonds that allow bacteria, viruses and grime to stick to surfaces, lifting them off the skin
Soaps
46
Antimicrobial soaps 🡪
triclosan and triclocarban
47
Any chemical use to treat an infections either by inhibiting or killing pathogens. Antibacterial, Antifungal, Antiprotozoals, Antiviral
Antimicrobial Agents
48
subs produced by microorganism that is effective in killing or inhibiting growth of microorganisms
Antibiotics
49
All antibiotics are ___ but not all ___ are antibiotics
antimicrobial
50
trap bacteria with the assistance of cilia
Mucus
51
present in respiratory secretions lyses bacterial cell wall
Lysozymes
52
possess hydrolytic enzymes that breakdown bacteria
Saliva
53
destroys bacteria that are acid labile
Gastric acid of the stomach
54
Host Defense Mechanisms, ______ of the Large intestines
Normal flora
55
Host Defense Mechanisms, ____ of the urine and constant flushing action
Acidic pH
56
Host Defense Mechanisms, _____ lactic acid – normal flora
Vaginal lactic acid
57
Host Defense Mechanisms, ____ -constant flushing action
Eye tears
58
total changes occurring in tissue factors upon injury
Inflammation
59
Human Immunoglobulins, passive immunity for newborns, mainly involved in secondary (amnestic) immune response
IgG
60
Human Immunoglobulins, mainly involved in primary immune response
IgM
61
Human Immunoglobulins, prevention of bacterial and viral invasions of mucous membranes
IgA
62
Human Immunoglobulins, little is known, may serve as a B cell receptor or play a role in autoallergic diseases
IgD
63
Human Immunoglobulins, Major role in allergic response
IgE
64
infection Acquired in the hospital or other health care setting
Nosocomial Infection
65
Nosocomial Infection 2 Categories:
Endogenous Exogenous
66
infection: result from organisms that are part of the patient’s NF
Endogenous
67
infection: from external sources (contamination, inanimate objects)
Exogenous
68
presence and multiplication of microorganisms within a host with no clinical signs of infections 🡪 Reservoir
Colonization
69
– the entrance and multiplication of a microorganism in a host
Infection
70
condition assoc with functional and structural harm to the host 🡪 s/s
Infectious Disease
71
5 Common Nosocomial Infections
UTI Surgical wound infections LRTI Bacteremia Aspiration Pneumonia
72
6 Common Pathogens causing NI
S. aureus E. coli P. aeruginosa Coagulase negative Staph Enterococcus Klebsiella
73
Routes of Infection, 2 types: __ and __
DIRECT and INDIRECT
74
Direct Route, ____ :across the placenta (Syphillis) or through the vaginal canal (Gonorrhea)
Congenital
75
Direct Route, ____ :common colds, skin infections, GI pathogens
Hand to Hand contact
76
Direct Route, ____ :Strep throat, common colds, URTI
Droplets
77
4 types of Direct Route (Route of infections)
1. Congenital 2. Sexual 3. Hand to Hand Contact 4. Droplets
78
4 types of Indirect Route (Route of infections)
1. Fomites 2. Ingestion of contaminated food and water 3. Airborne 4. Animal or Arthropod vectors
79
JCAHO means
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
80
CAP means
College of American Pathologists
81
Publication of standards for Bloodborne Pathogens, what org
OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Administration
82
describe the handling of clinical specimens where BLOOD and other body fluids should be treated as INFECTIOUS
UNIVERSAL PRECAUTIONS –
83
is a significant part of the Universal Precaution
Personal Protective Equipment
84
Biosafety level: no known pathogenic potential for immunocompetent individuals, ex: Bacillus subtilis
Biosafety Level 1
85
Biosafety level: level 1 practices plus lab coats, protective gloves, limited acess, decontamination of all infectious waste, and biohazard warning signs. ex. HBV, HIV, Staphylococcus, etc
Biosafety level 2
86
Biosafety level: level 2 procedures plus special lab clothing and controlled access. ex. mycobacterium tuberculosis, Brucella, Coccidioides immitis, etc
Biosafety Level 3
87
Biosafety level: level 3 practices plus entrance through separate room where street clothing is changed and replaced with lab clothing ex. Filovirus and Arenavirus.
Biosafety Level 4
88
an enclosed, ventilated laboratory workspace for safely working with materials contaminated with (or potentially contaminated with) pathogens requiring a defined biosafety level.
Biological Safety Cabinets
89
what class of bsc provides protection for the user and surrounding environment, but no protection for the sample being manipulated
Class I BSC
90
what class of bsc sterilize both the air entering and circulating the cabinet and exhaust air, USED BY MOST HOSPITAL MICROBIOLOGICAL LABORATORIES,
Class II BSC
91
Class II BSC is also known as
LAMINAR FLOW
92
what class of bsc provides the highest level of safety, All air entering and leaving the cabinet is STERILIZED with HEPA filter, System is entirely closed and all infectious material are handled with rubber gloves that are sealed to the cabinet
Class III BSC