Lab Procedures Flashcards

(108 cards)

1
Q

What information do Safety Data Sheets contain?

A

Flammability of the chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Standard Precautions were issued by which agency?

A

CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is CLIA needed?

A

to maintain quality control of laboratory tests performed on specimens taken from the human body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many categories of testing are there in CLIA?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who is responsible for compliance with OSHA regulations?

A

employer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the core of the OSHA safety standard for chemical exposure?

A

the chemical hygiene plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which is the agency that requires employers to ensure employee safety related to exposure to potentially harmful substances?

A

OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does CLIA regulate?

A

training of the personnel involved in testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does OSHA require for employees?

A

PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which agency is charged with implementing CLIA?

A

CMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the major purpose of material safety data sheets?

A

identifies hazardous ingredients, first aid procedures and spill and leak procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

medical assistants perform most of their tests in which CLIA category?

A

waived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a patient who has no complaints or symptoms of illness known as?

A

asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is the light intensity adjusted?

A

use condenser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what best describes the most commonly used microscope in the clinic setting?

A

compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what best describes the purpose of using oil immersion?

A

multiply ocular lens magnification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when a patient comes to the clinic with a combination of symptoms that can be related to one or more conditions, the doctor usually will perform a laboratory test to rule out of the possible conditions or diseases. This is known as ?

A

differential diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which departments studies tissue sample biopsies?

A

histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which laboratory specialties performs testing and microscopic examinations of cells to detect early signs of cancer and other diseases?

A

cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which laboratory specialties performs testing for blood typing, cross matching, and the separation and storage of blood components?

A

immunohematology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which laboratory specialities performs testing for identification of bacteria and fungi?

A

microbiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which test would NOT be covered by insurance if the patient’s diagnosis was “Urinary Tract Infection”?

A

glucose tolerance test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the range of values considered normal because they include 95% of test results for normal healthy population?

A

reference values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is true about caring for a microscope?

A

use oil only with oil-immersion lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Lipid panel includes:
cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL, and LDL
26
arthritis panel includes:
uric acid, ESR, fluorescent noninfectious agent screen, and rheumatoid factor
27
obstetric panel includes:
CBC with diff, hepatitis B surface antigen, rubella antibody, syphilis, antibody screen, RBC, and blood typing
28
general health panel includes:
comprehensive metabolic panel, CBC with diff and TSH
29
In TDM (Therapeutic Drug Monitoring), measuring the highest level of medication in the patient’s blood is referred to as?
peak
30
which blood cells are responsible for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide?
erythrocytes
31
the plasma and red blood cells are separated by what when using anti coagulated tubes?
Buffy coat
32
what methods are used to perform a venipuncture?
syringe, vacuum tube, and butterfly
33
what best describes why OSHA requires safety needles be made available to employees?
prevents on-the-job needle stick injuries
34
when a blood sample cannot be obtained, what should be done?
advance the needle slightly, withdraw the needle slightly, try another tube
35
when performing a venipuncture, which vein is used majority of the time?
median cubital
36
what is the appropriate action when palpating for a vein in the upper arm?
palpate the vein with the tip of your index finger
37
what is the first step in performing a successful venipuncture?
put the patient at ease
38
what best describes when a syringe is most often used for venipuncture?
when collecting small amounts of blood from fragile veins
39
what is the usual site for capillary puncture in infants?
heel
40
what best describes the purpose of additives?
anticoagulant to prevent clotting, chemical to help preserve blood, substance to accelerate the clotting process
41
what is included in the necessary information written on the specimen tube label?
patient identification number, complete name of the patient, and date/time the specimen was drawn
42
what is the recommended order for checking the best available vein site?
antecubital region of the arm, back of the hand, back of the wrist, ankle/foot
43
what combination system can be used with the syringe or the vacuum tube?
butterfly collection system
44
what best describes the cause of hemolysis?
puncturing the skin before allowing the alcohol to dry completely
45
what best describes how a tube with anticoagulants is identified?
tube stopper color
46
what is the gauge of needles most commonly used in venipuncture?
20, 21, and 22
47
what best describes an advantage of a soft rubber tourniquet?
inexpensive enough to replace often
48
pressure to the site must be held longer than 2 to 3 minutes after a venipuncture is performed if the patient is taking what kind of medications?
Coumadin, aspirin, ginko biloba
49
what is not a quality assurance control?
specimens are in syringes with a needle still attached
50
when using the safer plastic vacuum tubes, what is the correct order of draw?
cultures, blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST
51
what best describes the correct application of a tourniquet?
apply 3 to 4 inches above the puncture site
52
what is the usual site for capillary puncture in adults?
fingertip
53
what factors can affect laboratory values?
fasting, heparin, exercise
54
what is the most appropriate action when using a phlebotomy tray?
label with an approved biohazard symbol
55
chemistry testing is which tube color?
red top
56
glucose testing is which tube color?
light gray top
57
hematology testing (CBC) is what color tube top?
purple top
58
coagulation testing uses what color tube top?
light blue top
59
what is the most numerous white blood cells?
neutrophils
60
what is not a cellular component of the blood?
plasma
61
what is the normal range of values for hemoglobin of adult women?
12-16g/dl
62
when a sed rate increases it detects what type of disease of condition?
inflammatory disease, acute stress, and lupus
63
WBCs are divided into two basic groups known as what?
granulocytes and agranulocytes
64
what type of blood is used for microhematocrit test?
capillary
65
what best describes a hematocrit test?
ratio of volume packed red blood cells
66
platelets or thrombocytes are involved in doing what in the blood?
coagulation
67
what is not generally included in a CBC?
sedimentation rate
68
what is the major component of the RBC that transports oxygen?
hemoglobin
69
what hormone is required for the production of new red blood cells?
erythropoietin
70
what is the normal value for a platelet count?
150,000-450,000
71
anisocytosis
cells have marked variation in size
72
poikilocytosis
cells show marked variation in shape
73
normochromatic
cells have the proper amount of hemoglobin
74
hypochromic
cells have large pale centers
75
what is the most common urine specimen type in the provider's office laboratory?
random urine
76
what is the common medication used to treat bladder infections and turns the urine bright orange?
pyridium
77
what smell will the urine of a patient with diabetes who has ketoacidosis have?
sweet
78
which part of the urinalysis is to be performed by the provider?
microscopic
79
what is the threshold for a blood sugar level to start spilling over in to the urine?
180
80
abnormal substances found in the urine include:
potassium, urobilinogen, blood, and protein
81
midstream
urine sample collected in the middle of the flow of urine
82
pH
scale that indicates the relative alkalinity or acidity of a solution
83
supernatant
the liquid (top) portion of centrifuge urine that is disposed of
84
turbid
opaque; lack of clarity
85
ketones
compounds produced during increased fat metabolism; can be treated on a reagent strip
86
regent test strip
narrow strip of plastic used in urinalysis to detect a variety of substances and values
87
specific gravity
test considered part of the physical urinalysis but is actually on the reagent strip which is the chemical part of the urinalysis
88
UTI
an infection of the urinary system
89
what is the filtering unit of the kidney called?
glomerulus
90
ketoacidosis
accumulation of ketones in the body, occurring primarily as a complication of diabetes mellitus; if left untreated, it could cause a coma
91
refractometer
instrument that measure the refractive index of a substance or solution; used in urinalysis chemical examination to measure the urine specimen's specific gravity
92
hematuria
abnormal presence of blood in urine, symptomatic of many disorders of the genitourinary system and renal diseases
93
bilirubin
orange-yellow pigment that forms from the breakdown of hemoglobin in red blood cells; usually travels in the bloodstream to the liver, where it is converted to a water-soluble form and excreted into the bile
94
creatinine
waste product formed in the muscle that is excreted by the kidneys; increased in blood and urine when kidney function is abnormal
95
urobilinogen
colorless compound produced in the intestines after the breakdown by bacteria of bilirubin
96
TRUE OR FALSE: PPE should be worn when working with specimens. assuming that all specimens are infectious is an important element of following Standard Precautions for infection control
true
97
what is septicemia?
blood infection
98
what color does gram-negative bacteria stain?
pink
99
which organism causes boils?
staphylococcus
100
normal flora
natural bacteria
101
the act of coughing up material from the air passages
expectorate
102
living only in the absence of oxygen
anerobic
103
infection acquired in a hospital
nosocomial
104
applied to bacteria to differentiate two basic groups, either positive or negative
gram stain
105
airborne particles that can be released into the air when culturing
aerosols
106
what shape best describes bacilli?
rod
107
bacteria that remain purple in the staining process are known as what?
gram positive
108
what type of organism requires O2?
aerobic