Lab Quiz 6 Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

What is the purpose of this experiment?

6-2: Urinalysis

A

To grow bacteria from a urine sample and determine if UTI is present (usually indicated by the presence of E.coli)

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2
Q

What is the purpose of this experiment?

6-5 Plaque Assay Phage Experiment

A

To quantify the number of phages (t4 that target t4 receptor on bact.) that are in a sample by measuring the plaques on a plate.

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3
Q

What are the parameters for a countable plate?

6-5 Plaque Assay Phage Experiment

A
  • There will only ever be one countable plate because the dilutions are decreasing by a factor of 10. Therefore because a countable plate is between 30-300 the other dilutions would either be 3-30 or 3000-30000
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4
Q

What is DF? How is it calculated

A

Dilution factor is the volume of stock solution/ volume of total solution

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5
Q

What is CFU

A

Colongy forming unit or plaque forming unit

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6
Q

What is FDF and how is it calculated?

A

Final Dilution Factor is DF x Volume Plate

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7
Q

What is original cell density?

A

Also known as titer is PFU/FDF

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8
Q

If you have Tube X with a dilution factor of 10-8 and remove 0.1mL to transfer to an agar deep for plating. What is the final dilution factor?

A

FDF = DF x PV
FDF = 10^-8 x 0.1 mL
FDF = 10^-9 mL

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9
Q

If you remove 1.0mL from a tube A that has a dilution factor of 10-3 and diluted it in another tube containing 9.0mL of diluents (tube B). What is the dilution factor of tube B?

A

DF = volume of sample (Tube A)/volume total
DF = 1.0mL/10mL = 0.1
Therefore 10^-3 (in Tube A) x 0.1 (DF) = 10^-4 is the label on Tube B

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10
Q

What is the purpose of this experiment?

10-3: Transformation

A

To show that bacteria can transform using naked DNA to develop ampicillin resistance

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11
Q

What conditions made the bacteria take up the naked DNA

10-3: Transformation

A
  1. Bacteria were heat shocked
  2. Bacteria are put on ice then put onto plates with LB (general growth) and ampicillin
  3. Some plates had no plasmid and others had no CaCL2
    a. Plasmid DNA was necessary for DNA to be taken in and bacterial survival
    b. CaCl2 was necessary for E.coli to take up DNA
    c. Incubating in ice cold calcium chloride makes bacteria competent
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12
Q

Describe some general characteristics of fungi?

12-1: Fungi (Yeast and Molds)

A
  • Eukaryotic
  • Chitin Cell Wall
  • Heterotrophic
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13
Q

The HUrBi biplate contains selective media where Gram ______ bacteria grow on one side of the plate and Gram ______ bacteria grow on the other side.

6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis

A

Positive
Neegative

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14
Q

Name the causative agent (genus and species) of schistosomiasis.

12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance

A

Schistosoma mansoni
(trematode)

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15
Q

What are the two groups that leukocytes are divided into? How do we distinguish between these two groups?

11-1: Differential Blood Smears

A

Granulocytes: Have prominent granules
- Neutrophils
- Eosinophils
- Basophils
Agranulocytes: Lack granules
- Lymphocyte
- Monocyte

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16
Q

What are the two general categories of fungi and what characteristics are associated with them?

12-1: Fungi (Yeast and Molds)

A

Yeast:
-Unicellular
- Colonies resemble bacteria
- Reproduce via budding (asym division)

Molds:
- Multicellular
- Velvety/fuzzy
- Hyphae filaments for nutrient absorption
- Filamentous - thread like
- Reproduce either sexually or asexually via spores

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17
Q

Why is Sabouraud Dextrose Agar used in this experiment?

12-1: Fungi (Yeast and Molds)

A

Low pH of 5-6 encourages fungal growth over bacteria

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18
Q

Which segment of the human population is most susceptible to infection by fungi? (5)

12-1: Fungi (Yeast and Molds)

A
  • Diabetics
  • Immunocompromised
  • Catheterized patients
  • Infants
  • Women on antimicrobials
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19
Q

Members of the genus Penicillium are well known for producing the antibiotic ____________________.

12-1: Fungi (Yeast and Molds)

A

Penicillin

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20
Q

What are two examples of asexual spores that exist for filamentous fungus?

12-1: Fungi (Yeast and Molds)

A

Rhyzopus stolonifer:
- Sporangium have sporangiospores
Penicillium notatum:
- Conidiospores (naked) are (used for asexual reproduction) are on conidiophore

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21
Q

Two selective ingredients contained in this medium that work to inhibit Gram (+) bacteria are _____________________________ & ______________________________.

6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis

A

-Sodium Azide
- PEA

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22
Q

Two selective ingredients contained in this medium that work to inhibit Gram (-) bacteria are _______________________________ & _______________________________.

6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis

A
  • Bile (oxgall)/synthetic desoxycholate
  • Sodium Sulfite
23
Q

Chromagar ingredients are considered differential because they change ____________ based on distinct metabolic properties of various species of bacteria. What is the differential ingredient on the second side?

6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis

A
  • Color
  • Lactose shows lactose fermentation (coliform)
24
Q

The genus and species __________________ _________________ causes 90% of urinary tract infections (UTI’s).

6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis

25
UTI’s are almost always caused by bacteria that are normal flora of the ___________________ tract (hint: it’s not the urinary tract). ## Footnote 6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis
Digestive
26
Lactose is contained in the Gram (-) side of the HUrBi plate because this fermentation of this sugar is important in the identification of _____________________ bacteria, which are members of the family Enterobacteraciae ## Footnote 6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis
Coliform
27
Greater than _ bacteria per mL of urine indicates a positive for UTI. ## Footnote 6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis
100,000
28
Although urine should be sterile when it is produced by the kidneys, why does urine from a healthy individual without a UTI still contain some bacteria? ## Footnote 6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis
Natural flora from urethra may contaminate sample
29
The number of bacteria/ mL of urine can be calculated by counting the number of _________________ of a given genus and species and multiplying by ____________________. ## Footnote 6-2: HUrBi Urinalysis
- Colony Forming Units (CFU) - 1000
30
Schistosomiasis is most common in freshwater tropical areas with snails and _________________ contamination. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Fecal
31
Identification of the schistosomiasis organism may be made by finding eggs in the _____________________ or ______________________ of infected individuals. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Feces Urine
32
Infection with most helminths usually occurs when a human host ingests ___________________ (stage). ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Eggs
33
_______________ of the pinworm organism are present on the ___________________ region of the human body and may spread on clothing, bedsheets, towels, and fingers and survive for up to ______ weeks. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Eggs Perianal 2
34
Describe the way in which a physician would test someone for pinworm infection. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Cellophane tape on perianal region, Stain and put on slide
35
The most common helminth infection in the United States is _________________________. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Pinworm
36
Name the causative agent (genus and species) of pinworm. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Enterobius vermicularis (Nematode)
37
Hookworm is contracted by larvae that penetrate through human _____________________. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Foot
38
Adult hookworms suck ____________________ from the intestines and can cause anemia in severe infections. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Blood
39
The most prevalent helminth infection in the world is caused by the genus and species ______________________ _____________________. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Ascaris lumbaricoides (nematode)
40
Transmission of ascariasis occurs through the ingestion of _________________ in contaminated food or water. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Eggs
41
Ingestion of undercooked pork may result in an infection with the helminth _________________________ _________________________ (genus and species). ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Taenia solium (cestode)
42
Ingestion of undercooked beef may result in an infection with the helminth ________________________ _________________________(genus and species). ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Taenia saginata (cestode)
43
Ingestion of Taenia solium eggs may result in a brain, eye, or muscle infection with the larval stage of this worm, the name for this infection is ____________________________. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Cysticercosis
44
An adult tapeworm has a head called a _____________________ and body parts that appear to be segmented that are referred to as gravid __________________________. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Scolex Proglottids
45
Flatworm helminths that are long and appear to be segmented are referred to as _______________________. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Cestodes (tapeworms)
46
Flatworm helminths that are non-segmented and often “leaf-shaped” are called ________________________. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Trematodes (flukes)
47
Roundworm helminths are referred to as ______________________. ## Footnote 12-4 Examination of Common Helminths of Clinical Importance
Nematodes
48
What are the three basic types of granulocytes? ## Footnote 11-1: Differential Blood Smears
Neutrophils: - 55-65% - 12-15 um -Phagocytosis and digestion Eosinophils: - 1-3% - 12-15 um - Phagocytic, worms, allergies Basophils: - 0.5-1% - 12-15 um - Release histamine during allergic response
49
What are the two types of agranulocytes? ## Footnote 11-1: Differential Blood Smears
Lymphocyte: - 25-33% - 7-18 um - Aquired immunity (B&T) Monocyte: - 3-7% - 12-20 um - Macrophage (phagocytosis)ZZ
50
An increase in which type of white blood cell (WBC) is indicative of a systemic bacterial infection? ## Footnote 11-1: Differential Blood Smears
Neutrophils
51
Because of the variation in nuclear appearance for neutrophils, they are sometimes referred to as ___________________________________________ ## Footnote 11-1: Differential Blood Smears
polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) or polys
52
## Footnote 11-1: Differential Blood Smears
53
List the 5 types of WBCs IN ORDER, from most abundant in the blood to least abundant. ## Footnote 11-1: Differential Blood Smears
1. Neutrophils 2. Lymphocytes 3. Monocytes 4. Eosinophils 5. Basophils
54
What total magnification should you use to view the blood smears? ## Footnote 11-1: Differential Blood Smears
1000x