Law 6 Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
In what class of airspace does an IFR flight require clearance for entry but not VFR
A
Class E
2
Q
What class of airspace is uncontrolled
A
Class F & G
3
Q
In what airspace class is all traffic provided an air traffic control service
A
Class A, B, C, D.
Only IFR get ATCS in Class E
4
Q
What two airspace classes don’t exist in the UK
A
Class B & F
5
Q
At what flight level does all airspace in the UK become class C
A
Above FL195
6
Q
How is IFR & VFR separated in Class C airspace
A
IFR separated from IFR
IFR separated from VFR
VFR given traffic advise vs other VFR
7
Q
In class C airspace what is the FL where a speed limit applies
A
Below FL100 speed limit of 250kts
8
Q
How is IFR & VFR separated in Class D airspace
A
IFR separated from IFR
IFR separated from VFR
VFR given traffic advise vs other VFR
9
Q
What class of airspace generally surrounds regional and major aerodromes in the UK
A
Class D
10
Q
What do SVFR flights require to operate
A
Require a clearance. Provided with air traffic control service. SVFR separated like IFR traffic
11
Q
How is separation managed in class E airspace
A
IFR separated from IFR
IFR given traffic information of known VFR
VFR may be unknown as they don’t require clearance to enter
Control zone can’t be class E
12
Q
Why may a VFR aircraft make themselves known in Class E airspace
A
To receive an air traffic service. They can receive FIS and traffic information of other known aircraft
13
Q
What information can an IFR flight in class F airspace receive from ATC
A
Air traffic advisory service
FIS
Separation from other IFR as far as possible
14
Q
In air traffic what can ATZ be known to mean
A
Aerodrome traffic zone. Area immediately around the airfield. Aerodrome has to be busy enough to justify having ATZ.
2000ft up, 2 or 2.5 nm wide if runway >1850m
15
Q
What happens if in air traffic 2 ATZs overlap
A
One aerodrome takes control of the overlap, can’t be shared
16
Q
How does a typical ATZ differ from an offshore ATZ
A
Offshore smaller. Still 2000ft but 1 or 1.5nm wide
17
Q
In air traffic what can CTR be known to mean. Where does it sit
A
Control zone. Protect approaching and departing aircraft. Above and outwards of ATZ. Varies in size
18
Q
In air traffic what can CTA be known to mean. Where does it sit
A
Control area. Typically sits on top of CTR (Control Zone) but is larger. CTR & CTA typically have same airspace classification
19
Q
In air traffic what can TMA be known to mean. Where does it sit
A
Terminal control area. Established at meeting point of air traffic service routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.
20
Q
In air traffic what can UIR be known to mean. Where does it sit
A
Upper information region, typically start FL245. Upper airspace control areas, upper air traffic service routes and military areas sit within here
21
Q
How is a prohibited area defined in airspace
A
Airspace of defined dimensions where aircraft are prohibited
22
Q
How is a restricted area defined in airspace
A
Airspace with defined dimensions where operating an aircraft may be prohibited. Depends on time of day, some aircraft like mil could be allowed to use it
23
Q
How is a danger area (DA) defined in airspace
A
Airspace with defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist.
Live firing, parachute drops, violent unpredictable aircraft manoeuvres.
Can fly in them but pilot in command must take precautions
24
Q
In airspace what can TRA be understood as
A
Temporary reserved area. Normally FL195 - FL245 Normally military, civil giving temp authority to mil. Normally act on a schedule. Traffic can transit with ATC clearance
25
In airspace what can TSA be understood as
Temporary segregated area. Same as TRA but only one aviation authority can use it. Can't transit it. None in UK, found in Europe
26
How is an Air Traffic Service (ATS) route defined
A specified route to channel the flow of traffic as needed for the provision of ATS
27
How wide is an airway typically
10nm
28
What is an airway
Control area established as a corridor
29
In airspace what is an ADR
Advisory route, Class F. IFR flights filing flight plan to make intentions known. Not in UK
30
What is an upper air route
Sits above airways. FL245 upwards. No set width, 5nm either side of 2 joining points
31
In airspace what are conditional routes
Known as CDR's, routes that can be tactically used at set days & times. Typically through danger areas when not used by mil
32
In airspace what are SIDs
Standard instrument departures. Defined route linking departure to a specified point in the en-route phase of flight
33
In airspace what are STARs
Standard Instrument Arrivals. Linking a specified point in ATS route to a point where instrument approach can be commenced. Typically a hold.
34
What in terms of safety is the key benefit of STARs and SIDs
Keeps arrivals and departures separate from each other
35
In air traffic what can NPR be known to mean
Noise preferential route. Routing that assures arriving and departing aircraft do not generate excessive noise in specified areas
36
How is a flight plan defined
Specified information provided to ATSU relative to an intended or portion of flight
37
When can a pilot not file a flight plan
Never, the pilot always has the option to. Sometimes a pilot is obligated to file a flight plan
Such as:
1) IFR in advisory airspace
2) Flight being provided ATCS
3) Flight in areas designated by competent authority as requiring flight plan to be filed
38
Who's responsibility is it to close a flight plan
Pilot
39
What are the functions of a flight plan
1) Generates flight progress strips for controllers
2) Flight information for airports and passengers
3) Info for flow managers
4) Assists SAR operations
5) Assists ANSPs collecting route charges
40
What are the three types of flight plans
Full individual
Repetitive
Abbreviated
41
How are Repetitive flight plans (RFP) defined
A flight plan for a regular recurring flight featuring identical basic features. Details such a alt aerodromes, passenger numbers, fuel change each time. Tran-Atlantic **not** RFP due to different tracks
42
What is an abbreviated flight plan
Limited information on flight plan just to cover a portion of the flight in CAS with the rest typically VFR. Just to get clearance. Normally done tactically during flight
43
What is a Full flight plan (FPL)
One off individual flight plan for a specific individual flight
44
What are the pilots responsibilities in relation to adherence to flight plans
Carry out the flight plan as written, request permission to deviate from ATSU
45
How soon in advance can a flight plan be filed
120 hours in advance
46
What are the 5 key update messages may be applied to a flight plan
Delay (DLA)
Change (CHG)
Cancellation (CNL)
Departure (DEP)
Arrival (ARR)
47
In flight plans, what does a DLA message mean
Delay, flight needs to depart more the 30 minutes after its estimated off-block time (EOBT) for controlled flights. 1hr for uncontrolled. Flight plan must be changed, or cancelled and re filed
48
In flight plans, what does a CHG message mean
Change. Modifying original flight plan. New route, level, aircraft type
49
In flight plans, what does a DEP message mean
Departure, flight has left and flight strips will be generated for en-route sectors based on true departure time
50
In flight plans, what does a CNL message mean
Cancellation. Flight not taking place or new estimated off block time (EOBT) needed so being resubmitted
51
In flight plans, what does a ARR message mean
Arrival, flight has arrived and flight plan can be closed
52
In flight plans what does a SAM message mean
Slot allocation message
53
In flight plans what does a SRM message mean
Slot revision message
54
In flight plans what does a SLC message mean
Slot requirement cancellation message
55
In flight plans what does a REA message mean
Ready message
56
In flight plans what does a SMM message mean
Slot missed message
57
In flight plans what does a RQS message mean
Request supplementary information message
58
In flight plans what does a RQP message mean
Checking if a flight plan for a flight is available with internal flight plan processing system (IFPS)
59
Why is it important a flight plan is kept up to date
So the sectors concerned know the likely levels of traffic and can plan accordingly
60
What are some commonly requested flight plan changes when a flight is en-route
Level changes
More direct routing
61
At what point of variation must a flight with a different true air speed to what is filed between reporting points report as such
+/- 5%
62
At what point of a flight estimated as being early to its reporting point, FIR boundary or designation must it be reported
3 minutes early
63
If a VFR flight in CAS reports weather below VMC what options does a pilot have if they can't maintain VMC in CAS
1) Leave CAS to maintain VMC
2) Land at nearest suitable aerodrome
3) Request SVFR
4) Request IFR
64
Who may submit flight plans
1) Pilot
2) Aircraft Operator
3) Local ATSU unit on behalf of pilot where avaliable
65
Through what network are flight plans filed
Aeronautical fixed telecommunication network (AFTN)
66
Who collects, processes and disseminates flight plans
Initial flight plan processing system (IFPS), EUROCONTROL in Europe
67
Describe the general design and layout of an aerodrome
Defined area of land or water (including buildings, installations & equipment) to be used wholly or partly for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft
68
Explain the numbering system and orientation of runways
Runways numbered in reference to their magnetic heading, rounded to the first 2 digits. Aircraft depart/arrive in the direction of the magnetic heading of the runway. Parallel runways use L/C/R
69
How is a controlled aerodrome defined
An aerodrome where air traffic control services are provided
70
How is a uncontrolled aerodrome defined
An aerodrome without ATC service but there may be Aerodrome flight information service officer (AFISO), provides information but doesn't control
71
What are the seven seconds of an air traffic circuit
1) Climb out
2) Crosswind
3) Downwind
4) Late downwind
5) Base
6) Long Final
7) Final
72
What 2 options does a pilot in a circuit have for their direction and what may affect their choice
Right hand or left hand. Typically what to fly circuits that keep you most visible to the tower. Also affected by vicinity of other aerodromes, local towns, terrain
73
What factors may affect runway usage choice
1) Surface wind direction & strength
2) Lighting and approach aid operability
3) Noise sensitive areas
4) Length, width & strength of runways
5) Proximity of adjacent aerodromes
6) Traffic patterns
7) Taxiway system, layout may make one direction easier
8) Type of operation fixed wing vs heli
9) Work in progress, runway may have maintenance
74
Why may an aircraft use a hold
1) Traffic management, too many a/c to accept all at once. Stacks
2) Waiting for clearance to enter CAS. A/c waiting to cross lower priority than those already in CAS
3) Poor weather, slowed arrivals
4) Ground issue, blocked runway
5) Pilot request, too heavy, tech issue
6) Awaiting diversion, holding for company/ATC info
7) Runway inspection
75
What are the two categories of holds
Published and non-published
76
Where can the published holds for an airspace be found
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
77
What details are typically found in a published hold
1) Name of hold
2) Location
3) Radio frequency of associated ground-based nav aids
4) Direction to enter hold
5) Turns to make in hold
6) Speed in hold
7) Length/size of hold legs
78
Where are published holds typically established over
1) Over VOR, VOR/DME, NDB
2) Defined distance from VOR radial
3) Intersection of VOR radials or NDB bearings
4) Specified Lat/Long
79
What is a non-published hold
Tactically deployed hold not published in AIP or otherwise in charts/FMS
80
Can a non-published hold be used in CAS
Yes, can be used inside and outside CAS
81
What is typically used as a holding point for unpublished IFR holds
En-Route nave point
82
In an unpublished hold if a controller gives no direction to time of each leg, what time of leg would a pilot typically do
180 degree turn every minute
83
How does ICAO doc 4444 define a holding procedure
A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft in specified airspace while awaiting futher clearance
84
How does ICAO doc 4444 define a holding fix
A geographical location that serves as a reference for a holding procedure
85
In a typical racetrack hold, in turns what bank angle or rate of turn is used. What determines which to use
25 degrees of bank angle or 3 degrees of turn a second. Whichever requires less bank
86
What is the time constraint of both inbound and outbound legs of a hold **below** 14,000ft
One minute
87
What is the time constraint of both inbound and outbound legs of a hold **above** 14,000ft
One minute 30 seconds
88
When entering a hold, what is a parallel entry
Enter via the fix in the reciprocal direction. Follow the leg and turn back towards the fix. On arrival at the fix a second time turn to follow the hold normally
89
When entering a hold, what is an offset entry
Enter via the holding fix and fly less than a 30 degree angle in to inbound leg. Turn to intercept the inbound track to the holding fix then fly the hold as published
90
When entering a holding pattern, what is a direct entry
Enter the hold via the fix then turn to follow the holding pattern
91
Unless otherwise stated in local charts, what is the speed limit for an aircraft in a hold above 34,000ft
Mach 0.83, same in turbulence
92
Unless otherwise stated in local charts, what is the speed limit for an aircraft in a hold between 20,001ft & 34,000ft. What about if in turbulence
265kts typical, if possible 280kts if in air route structure
Lower of 280kts or Mach 0.8 in turbulence with ATC permission
93
Unless otherwise stated in local charts, what is the speed limit for an aircraft in a hold between 14,001ft & 20,000ft. What about if in turbulence
240kts. 280kts if possible if in airway route.
Lower of 280kts or Mach 0.8 in turbulence with ATC permission.
94
Unless otherwise stated in local charts, what is the speed limit for an aircraft in a hold between SFC & 14,000ft. What about if in turbulence
230kts. 170kts if can't reach 230kts.
280kts in turbulence with ATC permission.
95
For heli in hold, what speed should be flown when in a hold between SFC - 6000ft?
100kts max
96
For heli in hold, what speed should be flown when in a hold 6001ft+?
170kts max
97
If in a hold and a pilot is given an EAT what is it?
Expected approach time
98
According to ICAO when should I pilot be given an EAT (expected approach time). What about in the UK
When arrival flight is expected to have a delay of more than 10 minutes, but in the UK the limit is 20 minutes
99
What are the two key factors than affect and aircrafts holding pattern it can fly
Speed and level
100
How does speed affect the holding pattern and aircraft flies
The faster an aircraft flies the greater distance it will travel. Its 180 degree turns at each end of the leg will be larger also
101
In a holding pattern what can be understood as the inbound leg
The portion of the hold flying in line with the hold fix
102
In a holding pattern what can be understood as the outbound leg
The portion of the hold flying abeam of the hold fix
103
How does flight level affect the holding pattern and aircraft flies
The higher the aircraft is the more likely it is to be flying faster. Hence why holds above 14,000ft are flown as 1 minute 30 second legs
104
What issues may be faced using an NDB nav aid for a hold compared to a VOR/DME or RNAV
Less accurate hence potential for more errors
105
What consideration should a controller take when an aircraft experiences turbulence in a hold
The pilot may find it harder to keep to their assigned level so the controller may leave larger gaps in the hold, like 2000ft
106
What three zones makes up a holding pattern
The hold itself
Entry area
Buffer zone
Elongated at the ends
107
What consideration should a controller take when an aircraft experiences high wind in a hold
Aircraft may drift off the holding pattern eating into the established buffer area
108
What consideration should a controller take when an aircraft experiences icing in a hold
Pilot may request level change, warm air below but -20 degrees air also decreases icing. May also need to fly quicker to account for increase drag & reduced thrust increasing the stall speed
109
How do VFR flights typically establish holds
Using large geographical features; bridges, towns, reservoirs
110
In an aircraft chart what may a VRP be knows as
Visual reporting point
111
What is the risk of using a visual reporting point (VRP) as a hold for a VFR flight
Other aircraft use it as a navigation point hence risk of collision. If in coms with controller could use VRP as long as everyone involved is aware of traffic
112
What shape is a typical VFR hold
360 degree orbit LH or RH around a specified point. Typically smaller as normally slower aircraft
113
Why may a VFR flight use a hold
1) Orbiting in a traffic circuit to sequence themselves into landing traffic
2) Holding at edge of CAS waiting for clearance
3) Holding at aerodrome waiting to be sequenced with IFR traffic
4) Orbit in traffic circuit to facilitate a runway departure
5) Indicate radio failure
114
What are the benefits of Visual reporting points (VRP)
Assists ATC routing VFR traffic
Easy to identify
Often used to mark entry point to CAS for VFR traffic
115
In airspace how does a TMA and CTA differ
TMA may have many levels and dimension, can consist of different airspace classifications
