Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Lieutenant Promotional Process 2019 > LCCTG Medical Guidelines > Flashcards

LCCTG Medical Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

What is the guideline age for an adult?

A

13yo+ or puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the guideline age for a pediatric?

A

1-13yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the guideline age for an infant?

A

1month-1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the guideline age for a neonate?

A

birth-1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lee Health considers any patients less than _____ to be pediatrics?

A

18yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Trauma alert criteria adult age is what?

A

16yo+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the six medication “rights”?

A 
Patient
Drug
Dose
Route
Time
Documentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many intubation attempts are allowed?

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which method of laryngoscopy is preferred?

A

Video

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The passing of a tube past what landmark constitutes an intubation attempt?

A

beyond the teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should be inserted with all advanced airways?

A

gastric tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Proper ventilation consists of adequate what?

A

Tidal volume

Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PEEP increases what?

A

Functional residual capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the range for PEEP?

A

5-15cm H2O (5, 7.5, 10, 12.5, 15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tight lung pt PEEP setting is typically?

A

5cmH2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wet lung pt PEEP setting is typically?

A

7.5-15cmH2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PEEP greater than 15 can result in what?

A

increased intrathoracic pressure causing decrease in venous return and cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Two contraindications for PEEP?

A

Cardiac arrest

Gross hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Apneic nasal oxygenation at what setting has been shown to improve O2 saturation in apneic pt’s during advanced airway placement?

A

NC @ 15 lpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What two monitoring devices are required for all advanced airway pt’s?

A

capnography

pulse oximetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

FBAO on a conscious obese/pregnant pt requires what initial intervention?

A

Chest thrusts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FBAO on a conscious child requires what intervention

A

Abdominal thrusts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FBAO on a conscious infant requires what intervention?

A

5 backslaps + 5 chest thrusts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is the use of pt restraints authorized?

A

When the pt’s behavior may jeopardize the safety of pt or crew.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What shall be assessed and how often, on restrained pt’s?

A

PMS x 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does one assess distal perfusion in the restrained pt?

A

Distal pulses

cap refill<2 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many sets of restrained pt PMS assessment are required regardless of short transport time?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

To what facility are sepsis alert pt’s transported?

A

Any facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a simple extremity fracture? (SEFx)

A

isolated, closed, fracture below the knee or elbow without neuromuscular compromise or surgical need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In a child what joint dislocation is not considered a simple fracture?

A

elbow dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Adults with a high probability for general medical surgical intervention shall be transported to what facility?

A

any

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Oncology pt’s with a fever of _____ or greater shall be transported to what facility?

A 
Lee Memorial
NCH
Fawcett
Bayfront
Sarasota Memorial
North Port ER
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pt’s with a hazmat exposure shall be taken to what facility?

A

any, post decon

34
Q

Pt’s with high likelihood of hyperbaric oxygen need shall be taken to what facility?

A

any

35
Q

Venomous snakes/spider bites shall be taken to what facility?

A

Lee Memorial

Any Collier facility

36
Q

Mammal and marine bites shall be taken to what facility?

A

any

37
Q

Lee county comprehensive stroke center?

A

Gulf Coast

38
Q

Lee county Primary stroke center?

A

Lee Memorial

Healthpark

39
Q

Lee County STEMI facility?

A

Gulf Coast

Healthpark

40
Q

What is the ground transport time cutoff for Priority 1 pt’s?

A

30 minutes

41
Q

Who may request air transport?

A

Any on scene first responder

42
Q

What three pt categories are forbidden from air medical transport?

A

CPR in progress
Haz mat (regardless of decon)
P3 pt’s

43
Q

What is the minimum size for LZ’s?

A

100’ x 100’ (day or night)

44
Q

How shall LZ’s be illuminated?

A

4 corners with strobes or steady burn light source

45
Q

What should the LZ report include?

A

surface type
wind direction/speed
hazards

46
Q

What shall the LZ controller say over the radio if the LZ becomes unsafe during takeoff/landing?

A

Abort, abort, abort

47
Q

AO x 4=?

A

person
place
time
situation

48
Q

Emancipated minor?

A

16-18yo
married
enlisted
court declaration of emancipation

49
Q

Can a DNR be a photocopy?

A

Yes

50
Q

Who’s signatures must appear on a DNR

A

Pt

Physician

51
Q

How does one verify that pt identity corresponds with pt DNR?

A

photo ID

witness

52
Q

How may a DNR be revoked?

A

in writing
destruction of document
failure to present
orally expressing contrary intent

53
Q

What are the five presumptive signs of death?

A 
unresponsive
apneic
pulseless
absence of heart sounds
fixed pupils
54
Q

What are the five conclusive signs of death?

A 
injuries incompatible with life
tissue decomposition
rigor mortis
livor mortis
algor mortis (cold)
55
Q

What three conditions require resuscitation efforts in the absence of injuries incompatible with life?

A

hypothermia
OD
electrocution

56
Q

Maternal resuscitations of ____ weeks or more will not be terminated in the field.

A

24

57
Q

A paramedic may terminate resuscitation efforts provided the following criteria are met:

A

appropriate ALS/BLS interventions with no change
Absent heart tones x 60 seconds
Persistent V fib, PEA, asystole

58
Q

What two pulseless cardiac rhythms require medical direction for discontinuation of resuscitation efforts?

A

PEA

V fib

59
Q

Level 1 MCI pt #?

A

6-10 transports

60
Q

Level 2 MCI pt #?

A

11-20 transports

61
Q

Level 3 MCI pt #?

A

21-100 victims

62
Q

Level 4 MCI pt #

A

101-1000 victims

63
Q

Level 5 MCI pt #?

A

1000+ victims

64
Q

Who does the rehab supervisor report to?

A

IC

ISO

65
Q

How many sets of abnormal vital signs does an emergency worker need before being moved to the medical treatment area?

A

2

66
Q

What symptoms present in the emergency worker require transport to the ER?

A 
CP
SOB
Dizziness
AMS
Nausea
67
Q

What is the required temp to be released from rehab?

A

=100.6

68
Q

What is the required HR to be released from rehab?

A

<100bpm

69
Q

What is the required respiratory rate to be released from rehab?

A

12-20/min

70
Q

What is the required BP to be released from rehab?

A

<160/100

71
Q

What is the pulse oximetry required to be released from rehab?

A

> 91% RA

72
Q

What is the CO level required to be released from rehab?

A

<10% of baseline

73
Q

Adult Rescue breathing rate/seconds?

A

every 5-6 seconds

74
Q

Adult Rescue breathing rate/min?

A

10-12

75
Q

Adult CPR ratio?

A

30:2

76
Q

Pediatric Rescue breathing rate/seconds?

A

every 3-5 seconds

77
Q

Pedi Rescue breathing rate/min

A

12-20/min

78
Q

Pedi pulse rate requiring compressions?

A

<60, with signs of poor perfusion

79
Q

Pedi CPR ration 1 rescuer

A

30:2

80
Q

Pedi CPR with two rescuers

A

15:2

Lieutenant Promotional Process 2019 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions