Lecture 2: Intro To Immunology Flashcards
(75 cards)
1
Q
What cell type secrete TNF?
A
Macrophages and T cells
2
Q
What effect does TNF have?
A
Activation of endothelial cells and neutrophils
Fever
Synthesis of APPs
3
Q
What cell types secrete IL-1?
A
Macrophages and endothelial cells
4
Q
What effect does IL-1 have?
A
Activation of endothelial cells
Fever
Synthesis of APPs
5
Q
What cell types secrete chemokines?
A
Macrophages
Endothelial cells
T lymphocytes
Platelets
6
Q
What effect does IL-12 have?
A
IFN-gamma synthesis in NK and T cells
Th1 cell differentiation
7
Q
What effect do chemokines have?
A
Chemotaxis and activation of leukocytes
8
Q
What cell types secrete IFN-gamma?
A
NK cells
T lymphocytes
9
Q
What effect does IFN-gamma have?
A
Activation of macrophages
The only cytokine that macrophages dont secrete
10
Q
What cell types secrete type I IFN’s (IFN-alpha and beta)?
A
IFN-alpha = macrophages
IFN-beta = fibroblasts
11
Q
What effect do type I IFN’s (IFN-alpha, beta) have?
A
Increased class I MHC expression inn all cells
NK cell activation
12
Q
What cell types secrete IL-10?
A
Macrophages and T cells (Th2)
13
Q
What effect does IL-10 have?
A
Inhibition of IL-12 production and reduced expression of costimulators and class II MHC molecules
14
Q
What cell types secrete IL-6?
A
Macrophages, endothelial cells and T cells
15
Q
What effect does IL-6 have?
A
Synthesis of APPs!
Proliferation of B cells
16
Q
What cell types secrete IL-15?
A
Macrophages
17
Q
What effect does IL-15 have?
A
Proliferation of NK cells and T cells
18
Q
What cell types secrete IL-18?
A
Macrophages
19
Q
What effect does IL-18 have?
A
IFN-gamma synthesis by NK cells and T cells
20
Q
How many hours does the innate immune response dominate?
A
0-12 hours
21
Q
How many days does it take for Ab secretion after a primary infection?
A
5-7
22
Q
How many days does it take for Ab secretion to occur after a secondary infection?
A
3-4 days
23
Q
How many hours after a primary infection does it take for induced innate/broadly specific response to occur?
A
4-96 hours
- Phagocytosis, complement activation, cytokine secretion
24
Q
How many hours after a primary infection does does t take for an induced adaptive/highly specific response to occur?
A
> 96 hours
- B cells, helper T cells and CTLs
25
What is the function of granulocytes in an innate immune response
Phagocytosis and release of mediators
26
What are the 3 functions of macrophages in the innate response?
Phagocytosis
Release of mediators
Ag presentation
27
What is the function of the complement in the innate response?
Lysis of pathogen
28
What is the function of lysozyme in the innate response?
Bacterial wall destruction
29
What are the 4 polymorphonuclear innate immune cells?
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Mast cells
30
What innate cells are mononuclear?
Monocytes and macrophages
31
What innate cells respond to allergic reactions?
Eosinophils
Basophils
Mast cells
32
What innate cell is a circulating macrophage precursor?
Monocyte
33
LPS on the extracellular side, porin channel in the outer membrane, and lipoprotein in the periplasmic space is characteristic of what type of bacteria?
Gram-negative bacteria
34
Teichoic acid, Lipoteichoic acid and peptidoglycan all on the extracellular side of the cell are characterized as what type of bacteria?
Gram-positive
35
Lipoarabinomannan on the extracellular side of the cell is characteristic of what type of bacteria?
Mycobacteria
36
Mannose proteins on the extracellular side of the cell is characteristic of what type of bacteria?
Fungi
37
___________________ encoded refers to sequences that are found in gamete producing cells
Germ-line
38
Which TLR's are found in the plasma membrane?
TLR1:TLR2 heterodimer
TLR2:TLR6 heterodimer
TLR4:TLR4 homodimer
TLR5
39
What TLR's are found in endosomes?
TLR3
TLR7
TLR8
TLR9
40
What is the role of PRRs in phagocytosis?
1) Microbe binds to phagocyte receptors
2) Phagocyte membrane zips up around microbe
3) Microbe ingested in phagosome
4) Fusion of phagosome with lysosome
5) Killing of microbes by lysosomal enzymes in phagolysosomes
6) Killing of phagocytosed microbes by ROS and NO
41
How is NO formed in the phsgolysosome?
Arginine is converted to NO by iNOS
42
How is ROS formed in the phagolysosome?
O2 is converted to ROS by phagocyte oxidase
43
Oxygen-dependent intracellular killing is a by-product of the respiratory burst that accompanies phagocytosis and produces several other microbicidal oxygen metabolites. What are the events in the respiratory burst?
1) Oxygen consumption increases
2) Hexose monophosphate shunt (HMPS) activity is stimulated
3) Hydrogen peroxide production increases
4) Superoxide anion is produced
44
________________ is a potent oxidizing agent that kills microbes by denaturing essential enzymes and transpor protein in the cytoplasmic membrane
Hydrogen peroxide
45
Superoxide anon is extremely toxic to bacteria and tissue, but it is very unstable. It is quickly converted to hydrogen peroxide by _____________ ___________. The hydrogen peroxide is broken down by ______________.
Superoxide dismutase; catalase
46
_______________, in the presence of toxic oxygen metabolites, catalyzes toxic peroxidation of a variety of surface molecules on microorganisms
Myeloperoxidase
47
______________, the product of the myeloperoxidase enzyme, is more antimicrobial alone than each of its 3 components
Hypochlorite
48
___________ are small proteins secreted by many cell types and can be either pro-inflammatory or anti-inflammatory. ________ are small protein chemoattractants important for trafficking of immune cells
Cytokines; chemokines
49
What are the major effects of IL-1beta?
Fever and production of IL-6
50
What are the major systemic effects of TNF-alpha?
Fever
Mobilization of metabolites
Shock
51
What are the local effects of IL-6?
Lymphocyte activation and increased Ab production
52
What is the role of IL-8?
Chemotactic factor that recruits neutrophils, basophils, and T cells to site of infection
53
The complement pathways deposit opsonins, chemotactic factors and anaphylatoxins. What is the role of anaphylatoxins?
Cause degranulation of mast cells/basophils and release vasoactive substances
54
The complement pathways deposit opsonins, chemotactic factors and anaphylatoxins. What is the role of chemotactic factors?
Attract immune cells
55
The complement pathways deposit opsonins, chemotactic factors and anaphylatoxins. What is the role of opsonins?
Deposited on microbes and enhance their uptake by phagocytes bearing complement receptors
56
What complement pathway is activated by Ag-Ab complexes?
Classical pathway
57
What complement pathway is activated by microbial-cell walls?
Alternative pathway
58
What complement pathway is activated by the interaction of microbial carbohydrates with mannose-binding protein in the plasma?
Lectin pathway
59
PRRs are nonclonal, what does this mean?
They are identical receptors on all cells of the same lineage
60
What is the main function of alternative macrophages besides anti-inflammatory effects?
Wound repair
61
A workup on an ill child revealed low levels of complement C3 in her blood. Which one of the following presentations did this child most likely manifest?
A) Chronic eczema
B) Immune hemolytic anemia
C) Incomplete recovery from viral infections
D) Poor response to vaccination
E) Recurrent infections with extracellular bacteria
E) Recurrent infections with extracellular bacteria
62
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Which of the following is a receptor on macrophages hat is specific for a structure produced by bacteria but not by mammalian cells?
A) CD36 (scavenger receptor)
B) Fc receptor
C) Complement Receptor
D) Mannose receptor
E) ICAM-1
```
D) Mannose Receptor
- TLRs and NFmet would be right too if those were answer choices
63
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Which one of the following cells is the major source of tumor necrosis factor alpha, IL-1 and IL-12?
A) B cells
B) Macrophages
C) Mast cells
D) Th1 cells
E) Th2 cells
```
B) Macrophages
64
Activation of the complement system, directly results in which of the following outcomes?
A) Enhanced phagocytosis
B) Expression of TLRs on phagocyte cell surface
C) Enhancement of immune-mediated neutralization
D) Interaction of Fc receptors with Abs bound to Ags on the pathogen surface
E) Proliferation of T cells
A) enhanced phagocytosis
65
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Septic shock may develop when bacterial components are recognized by macrophages. Which 2 proinflammatory cytokines are rapidly elevated during early phases of bacterial septic shock?
A) TNF-alpha and IL-1Beta
B) IL-2 and TNF-beta
C) IL-4 and IL-5
D) TNF-beta and TGF-beta
```
A) TNF-alpha and IL-1beta
66
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Several of the complement components are:
A) Glycolipids
B) Cytokines
C) Enzymes
D) Hormones
E) Abs
```
C) Enzymes
67
NK cells are activated by several cytokines that are produced by specific cell types including which of the following?
A) IL-12 which is produced by macrophages
B) IL-12 which is produced by virally infected cells
C) IFN-gamma and IFN-beta which are produced by virally infected cells
D) Answers A and C are correct
E) ANswers B and C are correct
A) IL-12 which is produced by macrophages
68
Complement lyses cells by:
A) Enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
B) Activation of adenylate cyclase
C) Insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
D) Inhibition of elongation factor 2
E) Activation of TLR4
C) Insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
69
Major function(s) of the lymphatic system is/are?
A) Provide a route for return of ECF
B) Act as a drain off for inflammatory response
C) Render surveillance, recognition and protection against foreign materials via lymphocytes, phagocytes and Abs
D) A and C
E) All of the above
E) all of the above
70
When a macrophage ingests an invading bacterium and takes the Ag to a lymph node, what happens next?
A) The macrophage will present it to the first B-cell it encounters, and the B-cell will in turn change its surface receptors to match the Ag
B) A B-cell will only become activated if it already has a match for the Ag
C) A matching B cell will become activated into a cytotoxic T-cell
D) The cells of the LN will release histamine
E) The LN will increase production of neutrophils
B) A B-cell will only become activated if it already has a match for the Ag
71
What is the most common portal of entry for diseases into the body?
Respiratory system
72
Nonspecific resistance is:
A) The body's ability to ward off diseases
B) The body's defense against any kind of pathogen
C) The body's defense against a particular pathogen
D) The lack of resistance
E) None of the above
B) The body's defense against any kind of pathogen
73
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Administration of the DPT vaccine (diphtheria toxoid, pertussis products, and tetanus toxoid) would stimulate which of the following types of immunity?
A) Adoptive
B) Artificial active
C) Artificial passive
D) Natural active
E) Natural passive
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B) Artificial active
74
Which of the following characteristics most strongly suggests in a photomicrograph that a macrophage is phagocytically active?
A) Immunocytochemical detection of collagenase
B) Microvilli-covered surface
C) Presence of receptors of IgG and complement
D) Presence of secondary lysosomes throughout cytoplasm
E) Shape of the nucleus
C) Presence of receptors for IgG and complement
75
Which cytokine is produced by CD4+ T cells and has the principal action of B-cell switching to IgE?
IL-4
