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Pathology > Lecture 3-6 - Lab Diagnostics > Flashcards

Lecture 3-6 - Lab Diagnostics Flashcards

(105 cards)

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1
Q

What’s the correct equation for determining positive predictive value?

A

TP/(TP+FP)

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2
Q

What percent of healthy individuals is equal to 1 standard deviation?

A

68%

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3
Q

Red blood cell counts & hemoglobin/hematocrit levels in people living in the Himalayan mountains are expected to be ____ than people living at sea level due to ____ oxygen levels.

A

Higher

Decreased

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4
Q

To be anemic, what do your hematocrit and hemoglobin levels have to be?

A

Low

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5
Q

If you order 20 tests on a healthy person, what’s the chance that at least one will be outside the reference range?

A

Test #1 -> 0.95^1 = 0.95 = 5%
Test #5 -> 0.95^5 = 0.77 = 23%
Test #20 -> 0.95^20 = 0.35 = 65%

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6
Q

Testing glucose/HgA1c monitors for what?

A

Diabetes

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7
Q

What is the most important renal function test?

A

BUN/creatinine

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8
Q

What is the most important Liver test?

A

ALT

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9
Q

What is the most likely test to check heart levels?

A

Troponin

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10
Q

What is the fasting blood sugar level and random blood sugar level that you can automatically diagnose diabetes with?

A

Fasting DM = 126 mg/dL or higher

Random Blood sugar = any time it’s greater than 200

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11
Q

What’s the HgA1c that signifies the pt has diabetes?

A

> 6.5%

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12
Q

What’s the best liver test we have?

A

ALT

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13
Q

What test is most specific for the ductal cells of the liver?

A

ALP

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14
Q

When there is a loss of function of the liver, what loss of functions does the pt get?

A
  • Bilirubin fails to be cleared
  • Albumin is not synthesized (Na+ and albumin are huge blood pressure factors)
  • Clotting factors (proteins) are not synthesized (if liver function drops, then clotting is reduced more too)
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15
Q

Identify the blood test that best supports liver failure

A

Rising bilirubin levels

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16
Q

Which tests are used to monitor damage to the liver as an early warning system? (To prevent it from failing)

A

ALT and AST

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17
Q

In normal adults, double the serum creatinine approximates how much GFR?

A

It approximates halving the GFR

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18
Q

What is the creatinine level in normal healthy adults?

A

1

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19
Q

If the creatinine levels are 2, then how much kidney function does the pt have?

A

50%

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20
Q

If the creatinine levels are 4, then how much kidney function does the pt have?

A

25% kidney function

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21
Q

If glomerular filtration rate is 30ml/min, how much percentage kidney function is this?

A

30%

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22
Q

If someone gets down to about a 30% GFR, which is about a serum creatinine of 3-4, then what do they need to do?

A

See a nephrologist

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23
Q

If someone gets down to about a 15% GFR, then what do they need to do?

A

Be put on dialysis or receive a transplant b/c they are going to die

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24
Q

Where is myoglobin primarily found?

A

All muscle tissue

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25
CPK is the energy source primarily for what?
Muscle contraction
26
Troponin I/T is found where?
It is protein that is found in heart muscle only
27
Between myoglobin and troponin, which one usually reacts quicker?
Myoglobin
28
Between myoglobin and troponin, which one is more specific?
Troponin for the heart
29
What is the goal for total cholesterol?
<200 mg/dL
30
What is the goal for HDL-C (high-density lipoprotein cholesterol)?
>40 mg/dL
31
What is the goal for LDL-C (low-density lipoprotein cholesterol)?
<100 mg/dL
32
What does LDL promote?
Atherosclerosis
33
What is the goal for triglycerides?
<150 mg/dL
34
If you have a very high (>500 mg/dL) triglyceride value, what is it associated with?
Pancreatitis
35
What values of glucose show that the pt is pre-diabetic?
100-125
36
What 2 tests look for hepatocytes?
ALT and AST
37
What 3 tests are damage liver tests?
ALP ALT AST
38
What test is a function liver test?
Bilirubin
39
Which metabolic panel looks at liver function?
CMP = comprehensive metabolic panel
40
Which metabolic panel doesn't look at liver function?
BMP = basic metabolic panel
41
Identify the condition and/or organ system that is measured by a comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP), but not a basic metabolic panel (BMP).
Liver function
42
What function is not measure in either BMP (basic metabolic function) or CMP (comprehensive metabolic function)?
Cardiac function
43
Composes WBC count, RBC count, HGB/HCT, RBC indices (MCV, MCHC, RDW), and platelet count (PLT)
Complete blood count (CBC)
44
Composes WBC count, RBC count, HGB/HCT, RBC indices (MCV, MCHC, RDW), and platelet count (PLT) WITH WBC TYPES (neutrophils, lymphs, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils)
CBC with Differential
45
If only one is low out of HGB and HCT, then is it anemia?
No
46
If both HGB and HCT are low, is it anemia?
Yes
47
What is the primary test to look at to see what type of anemia the pt has (volume of blood cells)?
MCV
48
What is the Erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR)?
How fast RBCs settle out in a tube (mm/hour)
49
What is the normal ESR (erythrocyte sedimentaion rate)?
0 - 20 mm plasma
50
What are the 2 tests that screen for inflammation?
ESR and CRP | Erythrocytes sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein
51
Is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) a specific test for a certain disease?
It is not specific to certain diseases. You can't differentiate things from it. Therefore, it's only a good screening test.
52
Explain you a high ESR suggests inflammation
Liver gets excited and produces reactive substances because of interluken-6, which creates fibrinogens. These are sticky, and they stick to RBC membranes, making them precipitate out faster.
53
How many factors are there in forming a clot?
13
54
Which coagulation pathway uses naked collagen?
The contact factor pathway (intrinsic pathway)
55
Which coagulation pathway uses exploded tissues (tissue factor III)?
Tissue factor pathway (extrinsic pathway)
56
What are the 4 vitamin K-dependent factors?
II, VII, IX, X
57
Which vitamin K-dependent factor is the most important (ultra-dependent on vitamin K)?
VII
58
Where are vitamin K-dependent factors produced?
In our gut
59
The contact factor pathway is responsible for making which factor?
IX
60
The tissue factor pathway is responsible for making which factor?
VII
61
Which factors does heparin target?
X and II
62
Which factors does warfarin (Coumadin) target?
VII BIG TIME!!!
63
Vitamin K antagonist
Coumadin (warfarin)
64
What factors does Coumadin (warfarin) hit?
II, VII, IX, X
65
What is coumadin (warfarin) monitored with?
PT/INR (prothrombin time) - tissue factor pathway
66
Why is VII affected so much by Coumadin (warfarin)?
It has a very short half life
67
Antithrombin activator
Heparin
68
A patient has hemophilia, which is the most common serious bleeding disorder in the world. What does it have an absence of? What test do you use for this?
- Factor VIII (8) | - Use PTTT
69
What is PT/INR used to monitor?
Warfarin/Coumadin therapy, and liver function
70
Most common serious bleeding disorder
Hemophilia
71
What do you divide to find INR (international normalization ration)?
INR = Pt's time to clot/normal time to clot
72
What is the common target PT/INR range for DVT prophylaxis (deep vein thrombosis)?
2.0 to 3.0
73
What is the common target PT/INR range for a mechanical heart valve?
2.5 to 3.5
74
What composes neutrophils?
Segs, bands, and milos | PMNs and Segs
75
What test determines anemia?
MCV
76
Certain infections can be WBC indicators. If you have elevated WBC's, what does neutrophilia suggest?
Bacterial source
77
Certain infections can be WBC indicators. If you have elevated WBC's, what does lymphocytosis suggest?
Viral source
78
Certain infections can be WBC indicators. If you have elevated WBC's, what does eosinophilia suggest?
Allergies or worms
79
With leukemia, does the patient have high or low WBC count?
Either
80
What is the HGB x 3 rule?
Give HGB, multiply by 3, and get hematocrit (HCT) | Hematocrit/3 = hemoglobin
81
What is the level of RBCs in a patient with polycythemia vera?
High RBC count
82
Neoplastic proliferation of RBCs causing increased RBC, HGB, and HCT
Polycythemia vera
83
What are the criteria for HGB in women with anemia?
Less than 12 g/dL
84
What are the criteria for HGB in men with anemia?
Less than 13.5 g/dL
85
What is the criteria of HGB in anemia when you think about transfusing?
Less than 10 g/dL
86
What is the criteria of HGB in anemia when you have to transfuse? What is the HCT level?
7 g/dL | HCT = 21
87
Characteristics of microcytic anemia
MCV < 80 | Iron-Deficiency anemia
88
Characteristics of normocytic anemia
MCV 80-100 Recent blood loss Anemia of chromic disease Renal failure
89
Characteristics of macrocyctic anemia
MCV>110 Vitamin B12 deficiency Folic acid deficiency
90
What's the most common type of anemia?
Microcytic anemia (MCV<80) - iron-deficiency anemia - thalassemia
91
Other term for microcytic anemia?
Megaloblastic anemia
92
Recall the most common screening tests for syphilis
- RPR (rapid plasma reagin) | - Venereal Disease Research Lab (VDRL)
93
Explain why RPR and VDRL must be followed | with either a FTA-ABS or MHA-TP when testing for syphillis
RPR and VDRL are sensitive for syphillis, but they are not specific for it, therefore they are only screening tests. FTA-ABS and MHA-TP can confirm that the disease is or is not syphillis after the screening test marks it a possibility for being syphillis.
94
Interpret a urinalysis to determine if the patient has a urinary tract infection
- Leukocyte esterase - blood - nitrite - protein
95
Interpret a urinalysis to determine if the patient has uncontrolled diabetes
-glucose
96
Which diagnostic test is least valuable for visualizing soft tissues?
X-ray (radiography)
97
What does ANA (antinuclear antibody test) look for?
Connective tissue diseases
98
What are the two most common autoimmune conditions that are observed with ANA (antinuclear antibody test)?
- Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) - 95% | - Scleroderma - 60-90%
99
If a patient that has lupus tests positive for ANA (antinuclear antibody test), what 2 tests do you have to run to confirm it?
- anti-double-stranded DNA | - anti-Sm
100
Which diagnostic test penetrates soft tissues easily and dense tissues less easily?
X-ray (radiography)
101
Which diagnostic test can image more soft tissue structures difficult to see on traditional x-ray, and is more sensitive than traditional x-ray (multiple angle x-ray)?
CT-scan (computer tomography)
102
Which diagnostic test is used to image areas where soft tissues meet (ex: spinal cord)?
MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
103
Which diagnostic test uses sound waves to produce the image in a variety of tissues?
Ultrasound
104
Which diagnostic test uses radioactive material to produce an image?
Nuclear scans
105
Which diagnostic test uses magnetic fields/radio waves to produce images?
MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

Pathology (4 decks)

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