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PVM > Lecture 7- Equine Preventative Medicine > Flashcards

Lecture 7- Equine Preventative Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is a natural diet for horse

A

Grass/forage, salt and water

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2
Q

Dietary needs are inflicted by

A

Geographic location, stabling environment, athletic discipline

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3
Q

Horses consume ___% of body weight in feed per day

A

1.5-3%

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4
Q

Example: 1000lb horse will eat ___lb of feed per day

A

15-30

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5
Q

Horses will consume ___% of body weight in water per day

A

5%

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6
Q

Example: 1000lb horse will drink ___ gallons daily

A

7

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7
Q

What are some common equine diseases caused or controlled by diet

A

Endocrinopathic laminitis, obesity/insulin resistance, white muscle disease, hyperkalemic periodic paralysis, polysaccharide storage myelopathy, developmental orthopedic disease

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8
Q

What type of teeth do horses have

A

Hypsodont

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9
Q

How many teeth does an adult horse have

A

36-44

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10
Q

Incisors number on right upper

A

101-103

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11
Q

Canine number on upper right

A

104

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12
Q

Wolf teeth number on upper right

A

105

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13
Q

Premolars number on upper right

A

106-108

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14
Q

Molar numbers on upper right

A

109-111

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15
Q

Molars are lower right

A

409-411

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16
Q

Premolars number on lower right

A

406-408

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17
Q

Wolf teeth number on lower right

A

405

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18
Q

Canine number on lower right

A

404

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19
Q

Incisor numbers on lower right

A

401-403

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20
Q

How often should routine dentals be done

A

Every 6-12 months

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21
Q

How much do teeth erupt per year

A

4mm

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22
Q

Horses anisognathic jaw (grinding) predisposes them to what

A

Sharp points which can cause oral ulcers

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23
Q

Parasite control: clients have uncontrolled access to

A

Anthelmintics which can lead to resistance

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24
Q

What things must be taken into consideration when prescribing dewormers

A

Age, immune status, geography, climate, population density

A one size fits all is ineffective

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25
Q

What common parasite do foals get and then get can small intestinal impactions

A

Ascarids (parascaris equorum)

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26
Q

Where can Ascarids be found

A

Dirt in the environment

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27
Q

When should you start deworming foals to prevent Ascarid impactions

A

6-8 weeks

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28
Q

Ascarids have widespread resistance to what type of dewormer

A

Macrocyclic lactones

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29
Q

What are common parasites in adults

A

Large and small strongyles, tapeworms, bots, pinworms

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30
Q

Which parasite causes thromboembolic colic

A

Large strongyles

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31
Q

What is an effective treatment of large strongyles

A

Invermectin once yearly absolishes disease entirely

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32
Q

What parasite causes diarrhea, weight loss, has resistance to benzimidazole

A

Small strongyles

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33
Q

Which parasite must we measure to determine shedding status

A

Small strongyles

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34
Q

Encysted small strongyles are only removed with ___ or __

A

Moxidectin or power pack

35
Q

Tapeworms are commonly found in what type of hay

A

Baled hay

36
Q

What parasite causes typhilitis and doesn’t show up in fecal

A

Tapeworms (anophlocephala perfoliata)

37
Q

Which parasite lays eggs on hair of limbs and doesn’t show up in fecal

A

Bots (gasterophilius spp)

38
Q

Which parasite comes from environmental contamination, causes excoriation of tail and anus, and doesn’t show up on fecal

A

Pinworms (oxyuris equi)

39
Q

Fecal counts should be run at least every ___

A

3-4 months past deworming

40
Q

FEC for low shedder

A

0-200epg

41
Q

What is the deworming and FEC protocol for low shedders

A

Avermectin twice yearly, praziquantel once yearly, larvicidal once yearly
Check FEC twice a year just before deworming

42
Q

What is FEC in moderate shedder

A

200-500epg

43
Q

What is deworming and FEC protocol for a moderate shedder

A

Avermectin twice yearly, praziquantel once yearly, larvicidal once yearly
Deworm an additional 1-2 times with another class of dewormer
Check FEC twice a year

44
Q

What is FEC for high shedder

A

> 500epg

45
Q

What is deworming and FEC protocol for high shedder

A

Avermectin twice yearly, praziquantel once yearly, larvicidal once yearly, deworm an additional 4 times with other classes of dewormer, check FEC twice a year

46
Q

What formula can be used to determine resistance

A

Fecal egg count reduction test
%FECR= (FECpre-FECpost)/(FECpre) x 100%

47
Q

FECR test only works on which parasites

A

Ascarids and strongyles- others don’t appear in fecals

48
Q

What do benzimidazoles act on

A

Fumate reductase to interfere with carbohydrate metabolism

49
Q

What are two examples of benzimadazoles

A

Fenbendazole and oxibendazole

50
Q

What is dosing for fenbendazole

A

5mg/kg once
10mg/kg q24 x 5days (larvicidal)

51
Q

What category of dewormers are safeguard and panacur

A

Benzimidazoles—> fenbendazole

52
Q

What parasite is resistant to benzimidazoles

A

Cyathostome

53
Q

Benzimidazoles is the drug of choice in ___ infections in foals

A

Ascarid

54
Q

What is the mechanism of action for macrocyclic lactones

A

Increase cell permeability to Cl- leading to flaccid paralysis and death

55
Q

What are some examples of macrocyclic lactone dewormers

A

Avermectin
- ivermectin
- moxidectin (quest)

56
Q

What parasite is resistant to macrocyclic lactones

A

Ascarid

57
Q

What does macrocyclic lactone dewormers reliably treat

A

Strongyles

58
Q

What is the mechanism of action for tetrahydropyrimidines

A

Function as a cholinergic agonist

59
Q

What is an example of tetrhydropyrimidines

A

Pyrantel

60
Q

Which parasites are resistant to tetrahydropyrimidines

A

Ascarids and cyathostomes

61
Q

Which parasites are tetrahydropyrimidines effective against

A

Adult strongyles and tapeworms at double dose

62
Q

What is the mechanism of action of praziquantel

A

Induces spastic paralysis and disrupts tegument

63
Q

What does praziquantel treat

A

Tapeworms

64
Q

What are some examples of praziquantel

A

Equimax, quest plus, zimecterin gold

65
Q

Vaccine effectiveness is based on

A

Vaccine construct, storage and disease incubation period

66
Q

____ immunity is key

A

Herd

67
Q

What is the criteria for identifying core vaccines

A

Public health risk/legally mandated
Endemic disease
Severe disease
Favorable risk/beenfit

68
Q

When do foals receive first vaccination

A

3-6 months

69
Q

What are the core vaccinations for horses

A

Rabies, tetanus, viral encephalitides: eastern, west ear, Venezuelan, west nile

70
Q

How often are horses vaccinated for rabies

A

Annually

71
Q

How often are horses vaccinated for tetanus

A

Yearly after initial series

72
Q

How often are hoses vaccinated for eastern and western encephalitis

A

Initial dose, booster 3-4 weeks later and then annually 1 month prior to mosquito season

Endemic areas perhaps twice yearly

73
Q

How often should horses be vaccinated for West Nile virus

A

Initial vaccine, booster 3-4 weeks later and then vaccinated annually before mosquito season

Endemic areas, twice yearly

74
Q

What are 3 non-core vaccines but are considered at risk

A

Influenza, equine herpes virus types 1 and 4, streptococcus equi (strangles)

75
Q

How often should horses be vaccinated for influenza

A

2-3 booster series, 3-4 weeks apart and then yearly

76
Q

Vaccines to protect against equine herpesviruses are licensed for protection against what

A

Respiratory disease/abortion

77
Q

Viral shedding of equine herpesvirus has been reduced in horses with high _____ and who have been vaccinated with ____

A

High circulating antibody titers of VN antibody and vaccinated with rhino immune MLV vaccine

78
Q

None of the available equine herpes vaccines claim to prevent ____

A

Neurologic form of EHV-1 infection

79
Q

How often should horses be vaccinated against strangles via intranasally route

A

2 administrations intranasally 2 weeks apart then annually

80
Q

How often should horses be vaccinated against strangles with the intramuscular version

A

Requires series of 3-4 injections at 3 week interval then annually

81
Q

What is the disease vector for strangles

A

Inapparent carries (guttural pouch chondroids)

82
Q
A
83
Q

What is the disease vector for equine encephalitides

A

Mosquitoes

PVM (8 decks)

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