LOCO EOYS1 Flashcards

1
Q

Label A & B [2]

A

A: EphB4 (receptor on osteoblast)

B: EphrinB2 (ligand on osteoclast)

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2
Q

Forward signaling through EphB4 stimulates

osteoblast
osteoprogrenitors
osteoclast
osteoid
osteocyte

A

osteoblast and bone formation

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3
Q

When ephrinB2 and ephB4 bind, which is switched off?

osteoblast
osteoprogrenitors
osteoclast
osteoid
osteocyte

A

osteoclast

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4
Q

Which of the following have a receptor for PTH?

What effect does this cause? [1]

osteoblast
osteoprogrenitors
osteoclast
osteoid
osteocyte

A

osteoblast: causes production of RANKL - causes more osteoclast activity & number

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5
Q

which cell type makes OPG?

What is the function of OPG?

osteoblast
osteoprogrenitors
osteoclast
osteoid
osteocyte

A

osteoblast: inhibits osteoclast activity

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6
Q

Describe action of increased PTH [3]

A

Low Ca2+ levels stimulates PTH secretion

PTH promotes:
* Ca2+ reabsorption from kidney and PO4 excretion at the kidney

  • Osteoblasts have receptor for PTH, osteoblasts produce RANKL, osteoclasts and their precursors have RANK receptor; increases number and activity of osteoclasts
  • Synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D3)
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7
Q

Which receptor does FGF23 bind to? [1]

What is the effect of FGF23 activation? [3]

A

FGF23 produced by osteoclasts / blasts, targets the kidney:

FGF23 binds to Klotho

Action:
* Causes reductions in serum phosphate and 1,25(OH)2D levels
* Reduces PTH secretion

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8
Q

Name 3 pro-inflammatory RANKL inducers [3]

Name 1 RANKL inhibitor [1]

A

Inducers
TNF-a
IL-1
Prostaglandin E2

Inhibitors
Oestrogen

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9
Q

Describe the physiological effects of calcitonin [3]

A
  • inhibits osteoclast differentiation and activity
  • increases Ca2+ excretion from kidney
  • Inhibits Ca2+ absorption by intestines
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10
Q

Describe effect of oestrogen at the:

Gut [1]
Bone [1]

A

Gut - increased Ca2+ absorption
Bone - decreased re-absorption (inhibit osteoclasts)

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11
Q

Describe the effect of adding progesterone ceram to osteoporosis therapy [1]

A

increases bone density by around 10% in 1st 6 months to rate of 3-5% annually stabilises at levels of 35 year old

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12
Q

Describe the action of FSH on osteoclasts [1]

Describe the action of FSH on IL-1. TNF and IL6 [1]

A

Direct action on osteoclasts upregulates RANK

Indirect action on monocytes to secrete IL1, TNF and IL6

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13
Q

Ca2+ homeostasis

Describe effect of glucocorticoids at the:

Gut [1]
Bone [1]

A

Gut - decrease Ca2+ absorption

Bone - increased re-absorption/decreased formation

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14
Q

Describe the effect of 1,25(OH)2D acting on vitamin D receptor:

  • During normal levels of 1,25(OH)2D
  • During elevated levels of 1,25(OH)2D
A

Normal levels of 1,25(OH)2D act via the VDR (Vitamin D Receptor) in mature osteoblasts to decrease the ratio of RANKL/OPG and reduce osteoclastic bone resorption. As well, 1,25(OH)2D action via the VDR in mature osteoblasts increases the bone formation rate (BFR).

Increased levels of 1,25(OH)2D acting via the VDR in less mature osteoblasts may increase RANKL/OPG, stimulate osteoclastic bone resorption, and reduce trabecular bone
The action of high levels of 1,25(OH)2D in mature osteoblasts and osteocytes can increase local and systemic inhibitors of osseous mineralization and decrease mineralization of bone leading to osteomalacia

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15
Q

Prolonged corticosteroid treatment leads to which disease? [1]

A

osteoporosis

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16
Q

Which cell is ephB4 receptor found on

osteoblast
osteoprogrenitors
osteoclast
osteoid
osteocyte

A

Which cell is ephB4 receptor found on

osteoblast
osteoprogrenitors
osteoclast
osteoid
osteocyte

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17
Q

Osteoblasts produce RANKL & OPG. State what their roles are in bone signalling [2]

A

RANKL:
* binds to RANK and stimulates osteoclastic bone resorption

osteoprotegerin (OPG)
* inhibits osteoclast differentiation, fusion, and activation
* protects bone from excessive resorption by binding to RANKL and preventing it from binding to RANK.

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18
Q

State 3 molecules that inhibit bone resorption

A

transforming growth factor beta (TGF beta) (via increase in OPG)
interleukin 10 (IL-10)
osteoprotegerin (OPG)
calcitonin
* interacts directly with the osteoclast via cell-surface receptors

estrogen (via decrease in RANKL)
* stimulates bone production (anabolic) and prevents resorption
* inhibits activation of adenylyl cyclase

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19
Q

Label A-E

A

A: calcified cartilage
B: chondrocytes
C: tide line
D: hyaline cartilage
E: articular surface

Hyaline cartilage: non-calcified
Deeper layers of cartilage are calcified: darker
Seperated via a tide mark

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20
Q

Articular cartilage

Label A-E

A

A: tangenitial layer
B: transitional layer
C: radial layer
D: calcified cartilage
E: bone

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21
Q

Which cells being damaged in OA causes the inflammatory response to occur? [1]

The release of which molecules occurs as a result of this? [2]

What happens to the synovial joint as a result of this? [2]

Describe the MoA for the release of AN the role of proinflammatory cytokines in the pathophysiology of OA [3]

A

Once the chondrocytes become damaged, they release pro-inflammatory cytokines which causes inflammatory response in the rest of the joint:

  • increase the production of matrix metalloproteinases and ADAMT-4
  • reduce aggrecan production and type 2 collagen production
  • overall cartilage degradation
  • Local inflammation: IL-1, IL-6, TNF
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22
Q

Describe key changes in pathology of OA

A
  • Repetitive excess mechanical loading is what leads to stress-induced signals in the articular cartilage
  • Chondrocyte cloning and hypertrophy
  • tidemark duplication, followed by osteophyte formation, bone microfractures, angiogenesis
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23
Q

Name a gene that is known to contribute to OA pathogensis [1]

What is the effect of losing this gene [3]

A

HMGB2: high mobility group protein 2 (chromatin protein)

Loss of HMGB2, leads to superficial zone cell death, loss of progenitor cells, and reduced synthesis of ECM components

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24
Q

Macroscopically articular cartilage goes through 3 phases of degeneration. What are they? [3]

A

Fibrillation: rougher with frilly edges, compared to the usual nice and smooth appearance
Erosion and cracking: these cracks bigger and bigger due to the hydronic action in the joint
Eburnation:
* Complete loss of cartilage
* Completely exposed bone becomes polished

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25
Q

Microscopically what happens in pathogenesis of OA? [3]

A

Chondrocyte necrosis - more in superficial layers. Dead cells not removed: ECM contamination

Focal clumps or clones of chondrocytes
* Increased local proliferation
* Large Isogenic clusters
* (The middle zone normally contains evenly spread out layers of chondrocytes, yet in osteoarthritis there are isogenic clusters/focal clumps of chondrocytes due to increased local proliferation where they group together in areas)

Change from type II to type I cartilage
* Reduces thickness of articular cartilage & Duplicated tidemark

26
Q

What is happening in this slide of OA? [1]

A

Conversion of type II to type I collagen

27
Q

What happens biochemically in pathogenesis in osteoarthritis [4]

A
  • In early stages of OA articular cartilage thickens and swells - increased water
  • But loss of proteoglycans make it less compressible
  • Water moves in and out faster
  • Focal erosion of cartilage develops and chondrocytes die.
  • Disordered repair of adjacent cartilage occurs and an overall failure of synthesis of ECM occurs
  • Creates fibrillated cartilage
  • Bone underneath the cartilage is exposed: subchondral sclerosis and cysts occur
  • Overgrowth of bone at joint margins causes osteophytes
28
Q

Which area of articular cartilage does OA initiate in?

A: tangenitial layer
B: transitional layer
C: radial layer
D: calcified cartilage
E: bone

A

Which area of articular cartilage does OA initiate in?

A: tangenitial layer / superifical layer
B: transitional layer
C: radial layer
D: calcified cartilage
E: bone

29
Q

Which layer do chondrocytes die in?

A: tangenitial layer
B: transitional layer
C: radial layer
D: calcified cartilage
E: bone

A

Which layer do chondrocytes die in?

A: tangenitial layer
B: transitional layer
C: radial layer
D: calcified cartilage

Leave an empty hole, releasing their extracellular contents into the matrix which triggers calcification. Calcified cartilage is eventually digested by osteoclasts and replaced with bone

30
Q

Describe final stage; of OA impacting the subchondral bone

A

As articular cartilage is eroded, the underlying bone is exposed:
* There is microfractures of the trabeculae,
* increased osteoblastic activity and new bone formation
* resulting in subchondral sclerosis
* The surface also undergoes focal pressure necrosis, which leads to subarticular cysts forming.
* There is vascular engorgement, which slows blood flow, and there is bone marrow oedema.

31
Q

OA

What change has undertaken at A [1]?

A

Eburnation of cartilage: complete loss of cartilage, exposing bone

32
Q

OA

What change has undergone at the A? [1]

A

Eburnation of cartilage: complete loss of cartilage, exposing bone

33
Q

OA

Name the change that the arrow is pointing to [1]

A

Fibrillation: saw tooth surface irregularity of cartilage

34
Q

OA

Name the change that the arrow is pointing to [1]

A

A-Fibrillation of the articular cartilage (arrow)

35
Q

OA

Name the change that the arrow is pointing to [1]

A

Eburnation of articular cartilage

36
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of RA [4]

A

RA is primarily a synovial disease and synovitis (inflammation of the synovial lining) occurs when chemoattractants produced in the joint recruit circulating inflammatory cells
- Over-production of TNF-alpha leads to synovitis
and joint destruction

Type A synoviocytes proliferate:
* increase in number of macrophages
* Early RA: Subintima normal

Infiltration of inflammatory cells:
* Synovial fluid: neutrophils
* Subintima: lymphocytes (CD4 T helpers; dendritic cells; macrophages)
* Both become thicker & more dense

Proliferation of fibroblasts in subinitima causing thickening

Generation of new synovial blood vessels is induced by angiogenic cytokines and activated endothelial cells produce adhesion molecules which FORCE LEUCOCYTES into the synovium - where they can trigger inflammation

The synovium proliferates and grows out over the surface of the cartilage (past the joint margins), producing a tumour-like mass called ‘pannus’

  • This pannus of inflamed synovium DAMAGES the underlying cartilage by blocking its normal route for nutrition and by direct effects of cytokines on the chondrocytes

The cartilage becomes thin and the underlying bone exposed

  • The pannus DESTROYS the articular cartilage and subchondral bone
    resulting in bony erosions
37
Q

State why synovial joints are susceptible to inflammatory injury [2]

A

Presence of rich network of fenestrated capillaries
* Fenestrated capillaries: become more leaky so plasma and immune cells can enter synovial membrane and joint cavity

Limited ways it can respond

38
Q

What is a pannus? [1]

Where are pannus created? [1]

What can be the effect of pannus creation ? [2]

A

Villi like projections caused by proliferation of SF and subintima:

Created at the small microenvironment of bone-cartilage junction

. Concentration of pro-inflammatory cytokines causes increase in osteoclasts and thickening of lining and subintima

Causes synovial membrane to grow over and erode articular cartilage

39
Q

Describe mechanism of how pannus causes bony erosions [3]

A
  • This pannus of inflamed synovium DAMAGES the underlying cartilage by blocking its normal route for nutrition and by direct effects of cytokines on the chondrocytes
  • The cartilage becomes thin and the underlying bone exposed
  • The pannus DESTROYS the articular cartilage and subchondral bone
    resulting in bony erosions

From PBL answers:

Pannus
Grows over and into the articular cartilage
Produces cytokines that attack cartilage and break it down
Cytokines induce synovial fibroblasts to differentiate into osteoclasts to breakdown peri-articular bone

40
Q

Which molecules are the most important for causing systemic [1] and within joint [1] effects of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Systemic: TNF-a

Within the joint: IL-17

41
Q

Describe which cells / cytokines are influential in RA synovium [4]

What do each cause to occur / become?

A

neutrophils
* first responders
* phagocytosing the bacterial infection or some other infection and are citrullinating the proteins in that bacteria so they end up looking like a self-protein that we also citrullinate due to the arginine metabolism pathway

CD4 TH17 cells
* Produce IL-17
* Produce IL-1; IL-6; TNF-a & RANKL

TNF-A
* make synovial fibroblasts - leading to proliferation of synovial membrane

Macrophages:
* Differentiate into osteoclasts

42
Q

Describe the role Anti-Citrullinated protein antibodies (ACPA) in RA pathogenesis [5]

A

Anti-Citrullinated protein antibodies (ACPA) can stimulate osteoclast differentiation from monocytes leading to initial bone loss

Osteoclasts then produce IL-8:
* attracts neutrophils
* sensitises nociceptors
* attracts more osteoclasts

Synovitis at start of clinical disease leads to production of cytokines, which stimulate osteoclast proliferation and differentiation
Inducing expression of RANKL, plus synergize with RANKL to enhance bone erosion by more osteoclast differentiation

43
Q

What is the process of citrullination? [1]

Which process does citrullination occur in? [1]

Which enzyme causes this process to occur? [1]

A

changing of arginine to citrulline by deamination

This occurs during apoptosis.

done by the enzyme peptidyl arginine deiminase (PADs)

44
Q

Describe the action of IL-17 in RA [4]

A

TH17 cells produce lots of IL-17:
* Induces RANKL on synovial fibroblasts
* Stimulates local inflammation
* Active synovial macrophages to secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines: TNF-a; IL-1 & IL-6 - these are the prime drivers of RA

45
Q

What is the overall net effect of RA on osteoblasts? [1]

Describe the cytokines that drive this effect of osteoblasts to occur [3]

A

Osteoblasts are switched off:

  • (TNF-a, IL-1 & IL-6 produce RANKL to turn on osteoclasts)
  • AND
  • Induced expression of DKK-1: induces sclerostin (reduces osteoblastic bone formation)
46
Q

Describe the role of neutrophils in RA [4]

A

Neutrophils:

  • Mount a respiratory burst producing the superoxide anion radical = greater free radical damage
  • Breaks down the hyalorunic acid strands - makes it thinner
  • Directly induce RANKL
  • Produce BAFF (B-cell activating factor) - drives disease process further
  • Undergo NETosis
47
Q

Peptidyl arginine deiminase (PAD) enzymes are essential for which two processes that drive RA? [2]

A

Osteoclast differentiation

APCA-induced osteoclast activation.

48
Q

Describe the first [3] and second [3] step that occurs in PAD-dependent differentiation and maturation of osteoclasts

A

1st step:
* Gradual increase in cell citrullination occurs as a consequence of increased PAD enzyme activity in a calcium-rich microenvironment.
* ACPAs present in the circulation can reach and bind to maturing osteoclasts in the bone marrow, leading to an increase in OC activity and
* consecutive bone resorption through a IL-8 dependent autocrine loop.

Second step:
* IL-8 will reach the joint and initiate the chemoattraction and migration of inflammatory cells, particularly neutrophils.
* Neutrophil extracellular traps are released by neutrophils in the presence of ACPAs,
* This further contributes to the joint inflammation and local accumulation of other inflammatory cells, such as macrophages, and activation of synovial fibroblasts

49
Q

State and explain the two different subclasses of RA [2]
- Which populations are they more common in? [1]
- Which type of infection are each more common with? [1]
- Which HLA types are more risky for each?

Describe the factors that cause each [4] & [3]

A

Seropostive (ACPA positive): more common
* Smokers
* Bacterial infections
* HLA DRB1 alleles
* PTPN22

Seronegative (ACPA negative)
* Viral Infections:EBV, cytomegalovirus
* HLA-DR risk alleles
* Contribution of HLA alleles much lower and different (HLA-DR3)
* IRF5 = human interferon regulatory factor-5: Mediates virus induced immune response

50
Q

Explain the process of NETosis in the initiation of RA [3]

A
  • Ca2+ dependent
  • Bacterial stimulus attracts neutrophils
  • Neutrophils release NET fibres (made from DNA) that entrap microorganism: forms a scaffold for enzymes, peptides etc. High concentrations kill microbes.
  • Results in neutrophils dying / suicidal NETosis
51
Q

Rheumatoid factor is found on which Ig

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE

A

Rheumatoid factor is found on which Ig

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE

52
Q

Rheumatoid factor is found on IgM and binds to Fc portion of

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE

A

Rheumatoid factor is found on IgM and binds to Fc portion of

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE

RF autoantibodies do not seem to play a major pathogenic role

53
Q

Describe symptoms of RA [5]

A

Slowly progressive, SYMMETRICAL swollen, painful and stiff:
* MCP
* PIP
* Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) of the feet
* Wrists, elbows, shoulders, kness and ankles

Morning stiffness lasting MORE than 30 minutes

Joints swollen, tender and WARM

Movement limitation and muscle wasting

Tenosynovitis - inflammation of tendons

54
Q

RA

Describe which specific joints are effected in swan neck deformity [1] and boutonniere deformity? [1]

A

Swan neck deformity: the PIP joint is hyperextended with flexion at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint.

In a boutonniere deformity, there is flexion the PIP joint with hyperextension of the DIP joint

55
Q

RA

Label A & B

A

A: swan neck deformity

B: Boutonniere deformity

56
Q

Describe role of ACPAs in RA [3]

A

ACPAs bind directly into osteoclast
* Causes osteoclast to make IL-8
* IL-8 drives osteoclast and neutrophil recruitment (which causes NETosis)

ACPA can also bind to macrophages in SF and synovial membrane: produce pro-inflammatory cytokines and drive disease progression

57
Q

Describe what the process of carbamylation is [1]

What process causes this to occur more? [1]

Whic autoantibodies are associated with carbamylation [1]

A

Carbamylation converts lysine into homocitrullines by chemical reaction with cyanate

Smoking

Anti-carbamylated protein antibodies (anti-CarP antibodies): go to range of self-proteins and can bind to osteoclasts (and make IL-8 etc) but also cause further inflamation.

58
Q

Which types of drugs are better for seropostive patients? [1]

Which types of drugs are better for seronegative patients? [1]

A

Seropositive RA patients:
* biologicals that target B-cells or inhibit T-cell co-stimulation are particularly effective (compared to TNF-a inhibitors)

seronegative RA patients
* Biologicals that target cytokines less difference

59
Q

Which drug targets autoantibody production in RA? [1]

A

Rituximab

60
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of anaemia with RA [4]

A
  • Dysregulation of iron homeostasis
  • Decreased iron availability for RBC production
  • Blunted EPO response
  • Impaired proliferation of erythroid progenitor cells
  • Shortened lifespan of RBC