Study Group Qs Flashcards by patrick ellis

What is the r value for perfect negative correlation?

A. R = 1
B. R = 0
C. R = -1
D. R = -0.5

What is the r value for perfect negative correlation?

A. R = 1
B. R = 0
C. R = -1
D. R = -0.5

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What happens to the confidence interval as sample size increases?

A. Doubles
B. Stays the same
C. Gets bigger
D. Gets narrower

What happens to the confidence interval as sample size increases?

A. Doubles
B. Stays the same
C. Gets bigger
D. Gets narrower

If the sample size increases, the 95% confidence range stays the same;
however the 95% confidence interval gets narrow since the standard error decreases if the sample size is larger

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What study type should be used if you wanted to investigate if a rare exposure is associated with a disease?

A. Cohort study
B. Case control study
C. Clinical trial
D. Cross-sectional survey

What study type should be used if you wanted to investigate if a rare exposure is associated with a disease?

A. Cohort study
B. Case control study
C. Clinical trial
D. Cross-sectional survey

If an exposure is rare there may be too few people exposed in a case-control study to be able to draw conclusions

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What study types is this graph often used in?

A. Cohort study
B. Case control study
C. Clinical trial
D. Cross-sectional survey

What study types is this graph often used in?

A. Cohort study

Kaplan-Meier curves
Plot proportion of people surviving over time
Compared using a log rank test
Used in cohort studies and randomized trials.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where is aldosterone secreted from?

A. Zona reticularis
B. Zona fasciculata
C. Zona Glomerulosa
D. Cortex

Where is aldosterone secreted from?

A. Zona reticularis
B. Zona fasciculata
Zona Glomerulosa
D. Cortex

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of these would decrease satiety?
A. Insulin
B. Ghrelin
C. Leptin
D. Glucagon-like peptide

Which one of these would decrease satiety?
A. Insulin
B. Ghrelin
C. Leptin
D. Glucagon-like peptide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What acid-base disturbance is common in acute COPD?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory acidosis with no compensation.
Lost sensitivity to CO2, only thing keeping patient breathing is that they are hypoxic 🡪 lost respiratory drive

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of these causes hyperkaleamia?
A. Beta blockers
B. Diarrhoea
C. Alcoholism
D. Diuretics

Which of these causes hyperkaleamia?
A. Beta blockers
B. Diarrhoea
C. Alcoholism
D. Diuretics

RAAS inhibition

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the rate determining enzyme in glycolysis?
A. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
B. Glycogen synthase
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Phosphofructokinase-1

What is the rate determining enzyme in glycolysis?
A. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
B. Glycogen synthase
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Phosphofructokinase1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

There are different types of analysis used within statistics. What is a t-test used to compare?

A – Medians of a continuous variable between 2 groups
B – Proportions of a binary variable between 2 groups
C – Proportions of binary variable within one group, measured at 2 time points
D – Standard deviations of a continuous variable between 2 groups
E – Means of a continuous variable between 2 groups

There are different types of analysis used within statistics. What is a t-test used to compare?

A – Medians of a continuous variable between 2 groups
B – Proportions of a binary variable between 2 groups
C – Proportions of binary variable within one group, measured at 2 time points
D – Standard deviations of a continuous variable between 2 groups
E – Means of a continuous variable between 2 groups

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Regurgitation through the tricuspid valve would lead to volume overload of which heart chamber?

A – R.V.
B – R.A.
C – L.V.
D – L.A.

Regurgitation through the tricuspid valve would lead to volume overload of which heart chamber?

A – R.V.
B – R.A.
C – L.V.
D – L.A.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which type of brain herniation causes ipsilateral mydriasis (pupil dilation)?

A – Central (transtentorial)
B – Cingulate (Subfalcine)
C – Transcalvarial
D – Uncal
E – Upward cerebellar (transtentorial)

Which type of brain herniation causes ipsilateral mydriasis (pupil dilation)?

A – Central (transtentorial)
B – Cingulate (Subfalcine)
C – Transcalvarial
D – Uncal
E – Upward cerebellar (transtentorial)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A 61 year old woman presents to the emergency department with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has recently been started on furosemide by her GP for hypertension. What has happened?

Hypokalaemia
Inverted QRS (Possible block)
T-wave flattening
Possibly due to new loop diuretic (furosemide)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of bleed is diagnosed using lumbar puncture (as well as CT)? What colour is the CSF when it is examined?

A – Epidural haematoma (Colourless)
B – Extradural haematoma (Yellow)
C – Subarachnoid haematoma (Yellow)
D – Subdural haematoma (Colourless)
E – Arteriovenous malformations (Colourless)

What type of bleed is diagnosed using lumbar puncture (as well as CT)? What colour is the CSF when it is examined?

A – Epidural haematoma (Colourless)
B – Extradural haematoma (Yellow)
C – Subarachnoid haematoma (Yellow)
D – Subdural haematoma (Colourless)
E – Arteriovenous malformations (Colourless)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following signs might be seen in shaken baby syndrome?

A – Anencephalopathy
B – Subarachnoid haemorrhage
C – Subdural haemorrhage
D – Epidural haemorrhage
E – Arteriovenosus malformations

Which of the following signs might be seen in shaken baby syndrome?

A – Anencephalopathy
B – Subarachnoid haemorrhage
C – Subdural haemorrhage
D – Epidural haemorrhage
E – Arteriovenosus malformations

Encephalopathy, Subdural haemorrhage and Retinal haemorrhage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following can be given/performed to temporarily stop contractions during pregnancy?

A – Amniofusion
B – Dexamethasone
C – Oxytocin
D – Azithromycin
E - Tocolysis

Which of the following can be given/performed to temporarily stop contractions during pregnancy?

A – Amniofusion
B – Dexamethasone
C – Oxytocin
D – Azithromycin
E - Tocolysis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where is the active form of Vitamin D synthesised?

A – Liver
B – Lungs
C – Kidneys
D– Skeletal muscle
E – Smooth muscle

Where is the active form of Vitamin D synthesised?

A – Liver
B – Lungs
C – Kidneys
D– Skeletal muscle
E – Smooth muscle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

As it exits the axilla the radial nerve lies on which of the following muscles?
A – Teres Minor
B – Teres Major
C – Pectoralis Minor
D – Pectoralis Major
E – Biceps brachii

As it exits the axilla the radial nerve lies on which of the following muscles?
A – Teres Minor
B – Teres Major
C – Pectoralis Minor
D – Pectoralis Major
E – Biceps brachii

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which cardiac abnormality is most common in a baby with Patau’s syndrome?
A – Tetralogy of Fallot
B – Coarction of the aorta
C – ASD
D – VSD
E - PDA

Which cardiac abnormality is most common in a baby with Patau’s syndrome?
A – Tetralogy of Fallot
B – Coarction of the aorta
C – ASD
D – VSD
E - PDA

Patau’s syndrome – Chromosome 13
VSD most commonly associated
-> Can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Name the least abundant isotype in blood serum
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgD

Name the least abundant isotype in blood serum
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgD

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which cell type in the nervous system provides the inner lining of the ventricles?
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells
Schwann cells

Which cell type in the nervous system provides the inner lining of the ventricles?
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells
Schwann cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which valvular disorder is most commonly seen in acute rheumatic fever?
Mitral stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation

Which valvular disorder is most commonly seen in acute rheumatic fever?
Mitral stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is inspiratory capacity?

Max. volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration
Equals residual volume + vital capacity
Equals tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
350ml in females, 500ml in males
3500ml in females, 4500ml in males

What is inspiratory capacity?
Max. volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration
Equals residual volume + vital capacity
Equals tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
350ml in females, 500ml in males
3500ml in females, 4500ml in males

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the cells affects in multiple sclerosis?
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Astrocytes

What are the cells affects in multiple sclerosis?
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Astrocytes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of these is the cell type of acoustic neuromas? A. Schwann cells B. Oligodendrocytes C. Microglia D. Astrocytes

Which one of these is the cell type of acoustic neuromas? **A. Schwann cells** B. Oligodendrocytes C. Microglia D. Astrocytes

A 55-year-old men presents with fever, shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. What is shown in his CXR? Right sided Pleural effusion Right middle lobe consolidation Right lower lobe consolidation Asbestosis R.sided collapsed lung

A 55-year-old men presents with fever, shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. What is shown in his CXR? Right sided Pleural effusion **Right middle lobe consolidation** Right lower lobe consolidation Asbestosis R.sided collapsed lung

A 62-year-old man is investigated for increasing shortness-of-breath. Pulmonary fibrosis COPD Cancer Heart failure

A 62-year-old man is investigated for increasing shortness-of-breath. Pulmonary fibrosis **COPD** Cancer Heart failure

A 22 year old boy present to A&E, after been stabbed in the chest, with acute shortness of breath and hypotension. L.sided tension pneumothorax R.sided consolidation R.sided tension pneumothorax Normal lung

A 22 year old boy present to A&E, after been stabbed in the chest, with acute shortness of breath and hypotension. **L.sided tension pneumothorax** R.sided consolidation R.sided tension pneumothorax Normal lung

What is the life threatening abnormality? A - Tension pneumothorax B - Pneumoperitoneum C - Pneumobilia D - Pulmonary oedema

What is the life threatening abnormality? A - Tension pneumothorax B - **Pneumoperitoneum** C - Pneumobilia D - Pulmonary oedema

A 55 year old male presents to his GP with a progressive exertional dyspnoea and a persistent dry cough. X-ray was taken. Pleural effusion Consolidation Pulmonary fibrosis Cardiomegaly

A 55 year old male presents to his GP with a progressive exertional dyspnoea and a persistent dry cough. X-ray was taken. Pleural effusion Consolidation **Pulmonary fibrosis** Cardiomegaly

A patient has a 10-29% risk of CAD: What investigation is most appropriate? Angiography Full blood count c. Functional imaging d. CT calcium scoring e. Rule out non-cardiac causes of chest pain

A patient has a 10-29% risk of CAD: What investigation is most appropriate? Angiography If 61-90% Full blood count c. Functional imaging **d. CT calcium scoring** measurement of calcium present in coronary arteries: assess degree of coronary artery disease e. Rule out non-cardiac causes of chest pain

What type of shock are burns? A. obstructive B. Hypovolaemic C. cardiogenic D. neurogenic

What type of shock are burns? A. obstructive **B. Hypovolaemic** C. cardiogenic D. neurogenic

Patient presents with diurnal wheeze, and cough on exercise. His FEV1:FVC is 50% of predicted based on his age. What do you interpret from this? Normal Mild Moderate Severe

Patient presents with diurnal wheeze, and cough on exercise. His FEV1:FVC is 50% of predicted based on his age. What do you interpret from this? Normal Mild **Moderate** Severe

What is the MOA of rifampicin a. Cytochrome P450 inhibitor b. Bacteriostatic c. DNA synthesis inhibitor d. RNA polymerase inhibitor

What is the MOA of rifampicin a. Cytochrome P450 inhibitor b. Bacteriostatic c. DNA synthesis inhibitor **d. RNA polymerase inhibitor**

Which cranial nerve is most likely to be affected first by a cavernous ICA aneurysm? a) Ophthalmic nerve V1 b) Abducens nerve c) Occulomotor nerve d) Trochlear nerve e) Maxillary nerve V2

Which cranial nerve is most likely to be affected first by a cavernous ICA aneurysm? a) Ophthalmic nerve V1 **b) Abducens nerve** c) Occulomotor nerve d) Trochlear nerve e) Maxillary nerve V2

Where does the Mandibular nerve exit the skull? a) Foramen rotundum b) SOB c) Optic canal d) Foramen ovale

Where does the Mandibular nerve exit the skull? a) Foramen rotundum b) SOB c) Optic canal **d) Foramen ovale**

Where does the Ophthalmic nerve exit the skull? a) Foramen rotundum b) SOB c) Optic canal d) Foramen ovale

Where does the Ophthalmic nerve exit the skull? a) Foramen rotundum **b) SOB** c) Optic canal d) Foramen ovale

Where does the trochlear nerve exit the skull? a) Foramen rotundum b) SOB c) Optic canal d) Foramen ovale

Where does the trochlear nerve exit the skull? a) Foramen rotundum **b) SOB** c) Optic canal d) Foramen ovale

Where would a gall stone be lodged that causes pancreatitis? A) Common bile duct B) Cystic duct C) Common hepatic duct D) Ampulla of Vater

Where would a gall stone be lodged that causes pancreatitis? A) Common bile duct B) Cystic duct C) Common hepatic duct **D) Ampulla of Vater**

What structure is the arrow pointing to? A) Adenocarcinoma B) Central vein C) Bile duct D) Hepatic artery

What structure is the arrow pointing to? A) Adenocarcinoma B) Central vein C) Bile duct **D) Hepatic artery**

Which of the following is a symptom of late Congenital syphilis? A – Rash B – Rhinorrhoea C – Saber shins D – Osteochondritis E - Lymphadenopathy

Which of the following is a symptom of late Congenital syphilis? A – Rash B – Rhinorrhoea **C – Saber shins** D – Osteochondritis E - Lymphadenopathy

A foetal ultrasound identifies the following, what is the likely diagnosis? A – Gastroschisis B – Myelomengocele C – Omphalocele D – Placental abruption E - Spina bifida occulta

A foetal ultrasound identifies the following, what is the likely diagnosis? A – Gastroschisis B – Myelomengocele **C – Omphalocele** D – Placental abruption E - Spina bifida occulta Gastroschisis would be everywhere

Identify A: A – Membranous urethra B – Ischiocavernosus C – Transverse perineal muscles D – Bulbospongiosum E - Puborectalis

A – Membranous urethra B – Ischiocavernosus C – Transverse perineal muscles **D – Bulbospongiosum** E - Puborectalis

In which part of the reproductive system do sperm become motile? A – Seminiferous tubules B – Membranous urethra C – Spongy urethra D – Epididymis E - Prostate

In which part of the reproductive system do sperm become motile? A – Seminiferous tubules B – Membranous urethra C – Spongy urethra **D – Epididymis** E - Prostate

Which of the following drugs should not be consumed with foods like mature cheese, pickles and wine? A – Escitalopram B – Imipramine C – Phenelzine D – Reboxetine E – Trazodone

Which of the following drugs should not be consumed with foods like mature cheese, pickles and wine? A – Escitalopram B – Imipramine **C – Phenelzine** D – Reboxetine E – Trazodone Phenelzine = MAOI (irreversible) and interacts with tyramine containing foods. Restrictions continue at least 2 weeks after discontinuing it.

Which of these lesions is most commonly associated with Barrett’s oesophagus? A – Squamous cell carcinoma B – Gastro intestinal stromal tumour C – Carcinoid tumours D – Leiomyosarcoma E - Adenocarcinoma

Which of the following is responsible for vasoconstriction? A – Parasympathetic nervous input B – Endothelin C – Nitric oxide D – Prostacyclin E - Erythropoetin

Which of the following is responsible for vasoconstriction? A – Parasympathetic nervous input **B – Endothelin** C – Nitric oxide D – Prostacyclin E - Erythropoetin

A researcher is interested in investigating a recent outbreak of Listeria monocytogenes. Which of the following best describes the design of this study? A – Case-control study B – Randomised control trial C – Cohort D – Cross-sectional study E – Meta-analysis

A researcher is interested in investigating a recent outbreak of Listeria monocytogenes. Which of the following best describes the design of this study? **A – Case-control study** B – Randomised control trial C – Cohort D – Cross-sectional study E – Meta-analysis

A – Hepatic artery proper B – Gastroduodenal artery C – Splenic artery D – Left gastric artery E – Right gastric artery

A – Hepatic artery proper

The presence of what in the CSF might indicate Multiple Sclerosis? A – Venous blood B – Arterial blood C – Oligoclonal bands D – Grey matter E – White matter

The presence of what in the CSF might indicate Multiple Sclerosis? A – Venous blood B – Arterial blood **C – Oligoclonal bands** D – Grey matter E – White matter

Where is GnRH released from? A – Anterior pituitary B – Posterior pituitary C – Zona fasciculata D – Hypothalamus E – Zona glomerulosa

Where is GnRH released from? A – Anterior pituitary B – Posterior pituitary C – Zona fasciculata D – **Hypothalamus** E – Zona glomerulosa

Which of the following is another cause of Hypothyroidism? A – Excess iodine B – Aminodarone C – Cabbage D – Hamburger thyroxicosis E - Thyroditis

Which of the following is another cause of Hypothyroidism? A – Excess iodine B – Aminodarone C – **Cabbage** D – Hamburger thyroxicosis E - Thyroditis