Lymphoid system Flashcards

1
Q

what causes splenic congestion

A

barbiturates euthanasia
anthrax
torsion/gdv
circulatory failure
IMHA - vessels blocked with dead RBCs

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2
Q

Splenic nodules

A

Haematoma
hyperplasia
abscess
lymphoid reticular hyperplasia
senile nodular hyperplasia - common incidental change in older dogs, can be caused by incomplete splenic contraction (wrinkley)
capsule/peritonitis
neoplasia

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3
Q

thymus response to injury

A

lymphoid atrophy/depletion
inflammation
haemorrhage/haematomas
neoplasia
cysts
hypoplasia
atrophy
depletion

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4
Q

what is SCID

A

severe combined immunodeficiency
failed production of lymphocytes - splenic/thymic hypoplasia
dogs/horses and mice affected

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5
Q

mechanisms that cause SCID

A

autosomal recessive defect causing inhibition of DNA-dependent protein kinase
X-linked defect in type 1 cytokine receptors

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6
Q

what effect do splenic surface indentations have

A

none - born with them

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7
Q

what cells/tissues are lymphoid

A

Cells - lymphocytes
Tissues - lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, peyer’s patches

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8
Q

what cells/tissue are myeloid

A

cells - granulocytes, monocytes, macrophages, erythrocytes, thrombocytes
tissue - bone marrow

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9
Q

when may a stress leukogram not occur in a sick patient

A

hypoadrenocorticism (Addisonian crisis)

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10
Q

non-neoplastic lymphadenopathy

A

pathophysiology - reactive hyperplasia LN enlarges, usually localised . Lymphadenitis - infection/inflammation of the lymph node

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11
Q

chylothorax/abdomen cause

A

lipids transported via lymphatics, effusions may result for rupture of duct/major vessel
both are rare
treatment involves surgical repair

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12
Q

Lymphangiectasia - lacteal dilation

A

intestinal lymphatics dilate and lose chyle into the lumen causing a protein losing enteropathy
can be congenital, obstructive in cause
management includes low fat diet
lymphopaenia present on haematology
hyperechoic lacteals on ultrasound

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13
Q

examples of non-neoplastic myeloid disease

A

aplastic anaemia - failure of myeloid cell production
red cell aplasia

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14
Q

myeloid neoplasia

A

myeloid leukaemia - acute with immature cells or chronic with differentiated cells

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15
Q

classic presentation for histiocytoma

A

young dogs <2 years
classically benign and regress over several weeks

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16
Q

mast cell tumours

A

form of granulocyte appearing as reactive lymph nodes.
Usually older dogs and common
cytology very good for diagnosis
locally invasive
histamine release can invoke anaphylaxis - anti-histamines

17
Q

approach to mast cell tumours

A

staging (or not)
surgery
chemotherapy
if non-resectable Tyrosine kinase inhibitors, mastinib, tigilanol tiglate

18
Q

feline MCT

A

cutaneous can act benign
visceral have poorer prognoses
association between mitotic rate and survival

19
Q

transmissible venereal tumoour

A

infectious
imported on dogs
can respond to chemotherapy

20
Q

lymphoid neoplasia

A

lymphoid leukaemia - t/b/natural killer cell and acute/chronic
lymphoma - b/t cell. B = better prognosis

21
Q

what is the difference betweeen immunocompromised, immunosuppressed and immunodeficient

A

immunocompromised - any aspect of host defences is deficient
immunosuppressed - immune defences are specifically impaired
immunodeficient - body’s immune system is compromised or absent

22
Q

what does lytic mean

A

goes into cells and destroys them

23
Q

what does oncogenic mean

A

transforms into tumourous cells

24
Q

how does a virus enter a cell

A

utilises natural receptors on the cell surface and are endocytosed
can enter through direct injection or with fusion of the envelope

25
canine distemper virus
morbillivirus related to measles, RNA enveloped has to be transcribed - can have mistakes, easily killed with disinfectants causes lymphocyte destruction oro-nasal infection replicating in lymphoid tissue, looks like a cold with thick crusty snot initially.
26
canine parvovirus/feline panleukopenia
non-enveloped DNA causes V+/D+ e.coli continues GI infection destroys WBC precursors in bone marrow and damages mucosal barrier
27
FeLV
retrovirus - RNA virus 4 subtypes - A, B, C, T transmitted through grooming - saliva, increased risk when being groomed by mum with population density and poor hygiene shed in saliva, respiratory secretions, urine, milk and faeces detection in virus PCR - antigen wont show for 30 days
28
FIV
viral RNA/proviral DNA kittens born to + queen can have anti-bodies to 12 weeks infected for life but have normal lifespan, recurrent infections, gingivitis, neoplasia Debates as to who to test
29
positive predictive value
likelihood of having disease when testing positive
30
what are howell-jolly bodies
nuclear remnants not removed properly as the RBC left the bone marrow
31
what is anisocytosis
RBCs of different sizes due to differing ages
32
what is evans syndrome
combined IMHA and IMTP
33
what drug can be used as an anti-thrombotic?
aspirin
34
differentials for neutropaenia
Increased demand - most common - migration to tissue for inflammation - shift from circulating to marginating pool Increased demand - immune mediated neutropaenia - drugs/toxins/viruses Decreased production - viral disease - drugs/toxins - bone marrow disease - inherited defects Unknown mechanisms - least common - feline idiopathic neutropaenia - breed associated
35
when is a pyrexia a PUO
pyrexia lasting upwards of 72h