Mcat 3 Flashcards

1
Q

How ligase enzymes work?

A

Catalyzes addition or synthesis reaction between two molecules by coupling them with the hydrolysis of energy rich bonds such as those between ATP phosphate group.

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2
Q

What is receptor enzymes?

A

Are transmembrane proteins that catalyzes chemical reactions in response to ligand binding. Upon ligand binding to the extracellular domain of the proteins conformational change occurs that allows the intracellular domain to become catalytically active. Antagonists are molecule that bind to receptor proteins and reduce the overall response to the normal ligand (agonist), either through competition for the same binding site or by other means.
Receptor tyrosine kinases are one of most common type of receptor enzyme that dimerize and phosphorylation each other when ligands bind.

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3
Q

How hypothesis test is performed?

A

It assess the validity of a claim made about 2 groups.
H0- theorizes that there is no difference between these 2 groups
Ha- rivals the null by claiming that a difference does exist.
P values evaluate how well the data support Ho, assuming Ho is true. Statistical significance is determined by p value is equal or less than alpha, the predetermined level of significance. In general alpha is set to equal to 0.05

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4
Q

What is conformational stability of a protein? How it can be measured?

A

Is it’s ability to maintain its 3D folded forms and can be measure by the melting temperature Tm, at which half of the proteins in solution are folded and half are denatured. Conformational stability doesn’t necessarily affect protein function as long as the protein is maintained at a temperature that allows proper folding

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5
Q

What is hills coefficient numbers for positive, negative and no cooperativity?

A

n>1 positive cooperativity and have sigmoidal dependence on substrate concentration.
n=1 no cooperativity hyperbolic shape
n is between 0-1: negative cooperativity even more hyperboltic shape.
Hills cooperativity is always positive value

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6
Q

Derivation of lineweaver burk equation from Michaelis- Menten equation?

A

Michaelis- Menten equation: Vo=Vmax [S]\Km+[S]
Reciprocal equation: 1/Vo=km+[S]/Vmax [S]\
Lineweaver burk equation: 1/Vo=km/Vmax 1/[S] + 1/Vmax
Generic equation: y=mx+b
** Michaelis Menten equation is also: Vo=kcat[E][S]/km+[S]
Vmax=kcat[E]

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7
Q

What Upward shifts in the y intercept and leftshift in x intercept corresponds to on lineweaver burk plot!

A

Decreased Vmax and decreased km

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8
Q

What bond proteases break?

A

Peptide bonds in proteins via hydrolysis reaction. During peptide hydrolysis a water molecule is used to cleave CN bond in the peptide linkage

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9
Q

What is the formula for rate constant and enzymes change the rate constant?

A

K=Ae^-Ea/RT
Enzyme increases the reaction rate in both forward and reverse directions

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10
Q

What are the three assumption Michaelis Menten equation relies on?

A
  1. The free ligand approximation- [S] is constant during the reaction. It is only true during the initial phase of the reaction.
    Substrate can also be depleted when it binds to the enzyme to form enzyme substrate complex . To fix that the total concentration of enzyme in the solution should be smaller than any substrate concentration tested.
  2. the steady state Sumption - states that the concentration of ES remains consistent over the course of the reaction. once concentration of substrate becomes significantly depleted, ES levels decrease and the reaction slows.
  3. Irreversibility assumption-
    States that reaction proceeds only in the forward direction and product does not get converted back to substrate. But once product accumulates the reverse reaction occurs at non-negligible levels and further slow the net rate of product formation
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11
Q

What is attribution theory!

A

It suggests that individuals tend to explain behavior their own or that of others as resulting from internal or external causes.
Internal or dispositional attribution’s describe behavior to personal factors such as personality ability or attitude. The external or situational attributions ascribe behavior to environmental factors such as task difficulty, presence of others or lack

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12
Q

How enzymatic reactions that involve more than one substrate form?

A

2 most common mechanisms:
1. Formation of ternary complex which can form in a random order or specific order
2. Ping pong mechanism - always ordered. One substrate binds to enzyme first and reacts, changing the structure of the enzyme itself. This substrate then leaves the active site, allowing 2nd substrate to enter and react, restoring the enzyme to its original form.

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13
Q

Which inhibitors bind to enzyme and enzyme substrate complex with equal affinity?

A

Noncompetitive inhibitors

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14
Q

What shortens and what doesn’t during muscle contraction?

A

Shortens:
1. I band - consists of only actin ( thin) filament.
2. H band- consists of only myosin (thick) filaments
Doesn’t change:
A band - which consists of both actin and myosin filament, marks the length of the myosin filaments.
Other lines that is on the sacromeres;
M line - marked the center of each sacromere
Z line - line delineates the boundary between each sarcomere

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15
Q

What are the main four tissue types in human body?

A
  1. Epithelial tissue - lines surfaces, protection, absorption, filtration and secretion. Eg skin, lining of hollow organs (digestive tract, trachea)
  2. Muscle tissue - voluntary and involuntary (cardiac and smooth muscle) movement. Eg skeletal, cardiac. Smooth
  3. Connective tissue - support and protection, attachment tissues, insulation, thermoregulation, transport eg bone, blood, fat, tendons/ligaments, cartilage
  4. Nervous tissue- transmission and receipt of electrical signal, response to internal and external stimuli. Examples are brain spinal cord and nerves
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16
Q

Is muscle tissue is a connective tissue?

A

All the connective tissue comes into contact with muscle tissue, muscle is not considered to be a type of connective tissue

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17
Q

What is sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Is specialized endoplasmic reticulum found in skeletal muscle fibers. It stores Ca2+ necessary for skeletal muscle contraction to occur. A specific Ca channel permits diffusion of Ca out of the SR, and a specific ATPase pumps Ca from the cytosol back into the SR

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18
Q

What is pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and how it works?

A

Is an enzyme composed of a 3 subunits E1, E2, E3. It catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl CoA, along with the reduction of NAD+ to NADH. During this process, electrons passed from one subunit to next until they can be transferred to NAD+. This transfer is facilitated in part by the cofactor lipoic acid.

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19
Q

How multiple polypeptide chains (subunits) of proteins can be separated in reducing SDS gel?

A

In their native form, many proteins consist of multiple polypeptide chains (subunits) and are know as multimers (eg dimers; trimers, etc). Reducing SDS gel separate multimers subunits by size. Identical subunits migrate the same distance and form a single band whereas distinct subunits migrate different the distances and form separate bands.

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20
Q

How is western blot works?

A

Western blot analysis is a technique used to detect the presence of a specific proteins. It is performed by gel electrophoresis of the protein of interest, followed by a transfer to protein binding membrane and intubation with antibodies specific to the protein of interest. Primary antibody or a label secondary antibody is then detected by florescence or chemiluminescence.

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21
Q

What is an anomeric carbon

A

The carbon that has two bonds to oxygen

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22
Q

What is glycosidic bond

A

Is a bond between anomeric carbon of a carbohydrate and any other biological molecule including proteins lipids nucleotides and other carbohydrates. Single carbohydrate can participate in multiple glycosidic bonds, one through its own and anomeric carbon (the carbon carbon that is bonded to two oxygen) and others through bonds from its hydroxyl groups to the anomeric carbon of other sugars.

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23
Q

What is sphingolipids?

A

They are a structural lipids that help influence the fluidity and curvature of biological membrane. It has hydrolyzable bond and nonhydrozible bond. Has one single fatty acid acyl chain with hydrolyzable head.
The long hydrocarbon chain of the sphingosine head group cannot be readily hydrolyzed and sphingolipids are not primary means of energy storage. They

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24
Q

What is liver and platelets do together?

A

Platelets form a plug at the site where a blood vessel has been damaged. Blood clotting factors that have been synthesized in the liver in the inactive form then participate in a cascade that that leads to blood clot

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25
Q

How long- bones grow in length?

A

By process of where chondrocytes (cartilage producing cells) divide and produce collagen to which calcium phosphates attaches to form hardened bone. This process stops when linear growth of long bones is complete. Chondrocytes located at the interface between long shaft (diaphysis) and the widened ends (epiphyses) of long bones

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26
Q

What is cervix?

A

Is the most inferior portion of the uterus and serves as the opening into the vagina. During childbirth the cervix thins and the fetus passes through the cervix into the vagina.

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27
Q

What muscle uterus has?

A

It is muscular organ responsible for protecting and nourishing the embryo and fetus. It is lined with inner layer called endometrium which changes thickness at different points in the monthly uterine cycle. It has thick layer of smooth muscle (myometrium) involved in contractions during child birth.

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28
Q

What is morphogens?

A

Are signaling molecules that change patterns of embryonic cell differentiation in a concentration dependent manner. Interfering with the signaling pathways induced by morphogens can change patterns of differentiation in an embryo.

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29
Q

What is senescence?

A

Is a natural aging process during which cell acquire damage and eventually diminish in function over time. Over time this aging process can cause cells to diminish in function. This may result from the degradation of chromosomes ends (telomeres) that occur over time. But some cells (eg stem cells express an enzyme telomerase, a reverse transcriptase that allow synthesis of chromosomes ends and the prevention of sensescence (cell immortalization)

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30
Q

What is cell immortalization?

A

Occurs when the cells adapt to aging in away that allow them to continue dividing indefinitely, unlike typical (mortal) cells.

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31
Q

What molecules regulates checkpoints in cell cycle?

A

Molecules called cyclind and cyclin dependent kinases. If cells have abnormalities that can’t be repaired, these cells will undergo apoptosis rather than completing the cell cycle.

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32
Q

What are the different phases of mitosis?

A

Prophase - characterized by condensation of chromatin and nuclear envelope disintegration
Metaphase- in which chromosomes align in the metaphase plate (central region of the dividing cell) and become attached to spindle fibers.
Anaphase - in which shortening of spindle fibers causes sister chromatids to separate and migrate away from one another.
Telophase- characterized by reversal of condensation of chromatin and nuclear envelope reformation

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33
Q

What is tissue regeneration

A

Is the regrowth of the same functional tissues or organs previously present in an organism after loss due to injury. For example the human liver can regenerate after it has been damaged.

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34
Q

What is DNA sequencing is used for?

A

To determine the nucleotide sequences of DNA

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35
Q

How southern blot works?

A
  1. DNA is isolated and cut into smaller fragments by restriction enzymes
  2. The purified DNA fragments are separated by size via gel electrophoresis and then denatured.
  3. DNA fragments are transferred from the gel to a blotting membrane and immobilized
  4. The membrane is incubated with a single strand of DNA probe complementary to the DNA sequence of interest. If the sequence of interest is present, the probe will bind to it (hybridize). The label allows regional detection of the probe.
  5. Sample is washed to remove unbound prompts
  6. The researchers determine if the visual signal is present. A visual signal indicates that hybridization occurred, meaning the sample contain the DNA sequence of interest. The lack of visual signal means the target DNA sequence is absent.
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36
Q

What is prostrate do in male reproduction system?

A

A gland that produces prostatic fluid containing enzymes necessary to prevent the coagulation of sperm in the vagina.

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37
Q

What is bulbourethral glands do in male reproductive system

A

Glands that secrete thick, alkaline mucus to lubricate the tip of the penis. The alkalinity of the mucus neutralize acids in the urine to protect the sperm from the acidic environment of the urethra

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38
Q

What is seminal gland do in male reproductive system?

A

Accessory glands that produce the largest portion of seminal fluid

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39
Q

What are the order of human embryo develops?

A

Fertilization - formation of single celled zygote
Morula formation - zygotes undergoes successive mitotic divisions (cleavage) to form a ball of cells known as a morula
Blastulation - the morula is transformed into a hollow ball of cells knows as the blastocyst. At this stage, embryo implant in the uterine wall. The blastocyst consist of two layers, the trophoblast (hollow cell sphere) and inner cell mass
Gastrulation - the double layered blastocyst becomes a triple layered gastrula. It is through gastrulation that developing embryo forms germ layers.
Neurulation - nervous system develops. Neural tube becomes the central nervous system.
The remaining portions of neural fold are know as the neural crest, give rise to most of the peripheral nervous system

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40
Q

What is the steps of fertilization?

A
  1. Sperm reaches oocyte- the sperm weaves past follicular cells the corona radiata
  2. Sperm contact- sperm binds receptors in the Zona pellucida, a thick matrix of glycoproteins that surrounds the oocyte
  3. Acrosome reaction- the acrosome is a specialized vesicle filled with hydrolytic enzyme, located in the sperm head. When this enzymes are released, the zona pellucida is degraded, enabling the sperm to reach the oocyte’s plasma membrane
  4. Fusion - the plasma membranes of the oocyte and sperm are fused.
  5. Sperm contents enter oocyte - the nucleus, mitochondria and a pair of centrioles enter the oocyte
  6. Cortical reaction - the contents of the cortical granules in the oocytes are released into the space between plasma membrane and the zona pellucida, fusing with the plasma membraneS this hardens the zona pellucida into a protective envelope, blocking additional sperm from entering
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41
Q

What happens in neurulation?

A

Is the formation of nervous systems. The notochord, a mesodermal cylindrical structure, releases signals promoting the extenders above to thicken and form neural plate. Neural plate folds inward, forming neural groove and then edges of the plate (neural folds) converge to create the neural tube.
Neural tube is the precursor to CNA, then punches off the ectoderm. The remaining sections of neural folds not included in the neural tube comprise the neural crest which migrate away from the tube and toward the periphery of embryo to give rise to most of the PNS

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42
Q

Examples of germ layer derivatives?

A

Ectoderm- give rise to the nervous system and develops into the integumentary system which includes hair, skin, nails and the lining of the mouth, nostrils and anus. Epidermis, neurons, melanocytes
Mesoderm - gives rise to the circulatory system, muscles, bones and parts of urinary and reproductive system. Myocytes, osteocytes, and erthrocytes.
Endoderm- gives rise to accessory digestive organs (eg liver, pancreas) as well as the lining (epithelium) of the digestive and respiratory tracts. Mucous cells, islet beta cell, aveolar cells

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43
Q

What is different potency of cell development?

A

Totipotent stem cells, found in only in zygote and in the embryo up to its eight cell stage. Can give raise to both placental and fetal cells.
Pluripotent stem cells are the cells of inner cell mass of blastocyst. Can give rise to only fetal cells. (Any three primary germ layers.
Multipotent - found in both adult and fetus. It is specific resident cell are preserved in each developing tissue and function to replace damaged/ages cells throughout the organism’s life span. They are able to differentiate only into the specialized cells of certain tissues

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44
Q

What is inductive signaling in cell fate?

A

Cell fate is influenced by inductibe signaling between cells in the early embryo. In inductive signaling, an inducer (the signaling cell) releases chemical signals that act on competent neighboring cells by regulating the expression of specific genes required for cell determination.

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45
Q

What is three segment of sperm?

A

Head - containing acrosome (encapsulates the tip of the nucleus and is Rich in specialized lysosome like enzyme for piercing the outer shell of an oocyte during fertilization) and nucleus.
Mid piece - packed with mitochondria, also contains pair of central micro tubules and extend down the length of the flagellum.
Tail

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46
Q

What is overall developmental pathways of sperm?

A

Spermatogonia undergo mitosis to two daughter cells. One remains spermatogonia stem cell to maintain the line and the other one differentiates into spermatocyte which goes under meiosis 1 and 2 become spermatids.
Then it becomes matured spermatozoa through series of morphological changes.
Spermatogonium- spermatocyte- spermatid- spermatozoon

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47
Q

How is the process of oogenesis happens?

A

Is a hormone driven process and it involves mitosis and 2 meiotic divisions.
Before birth (5 months gestation) oogonia (germ cells, diploid) goes through mitosis and become primary oocytes. It goes though 1st meiotic division but arrested in meiosis 1 until puberty. During puberty normal mentrual cycle hormones stimulate some primary oocytes to resume differentiating into secondary oocyte. However, prior to fertilization secondary oocytes are arrested in metaphase II of meiosis.

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48
Q

What is differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

A

They involve cells that undergo meiosis 1 and 2. However, oogenesis in females begins in the embryo and ends at menopause. Whereas spermatogensis in males doesn’t begin till puberty and continues throughout male’s life. They occur without interruption and produces similarly sized daughter cells. 4haploid sperm cells results.
Oogenesis arrested at certain stages and produce unequal size. 1haploid ovum plus 2-3 polar bodies that eventually degenerate.

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49
Q

How body regulates its water content?

A

By sensing blood volume, osmolarity and pressure. Special sensors ( like stretch receptors) monitor the degree of strain stretching in the heart(blood volume) and transmit this information to the hypothalamus which then sends signal to posterior pituitary to adjust ADH.

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50
Q

What hormones are released from anterior pituitary gland?

A

FLAT PEG
FSH
LH
Adernocorticad simulating hormones
Thyroid simulating hormone
Prolactin - milk production
Endorphin
G- growth hormone
PEG- direct hormone

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51
Q

What posterior pituatary hormones

A

ADH antiduratic hormone
Oxytocin
Those are made in hypothalamus and stored in posterior pituitary gland

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52
Q

How two pituitary glands differ in releasing of the hormones?

A

Anterior pituitary is derived from epithelial cells from the developing roof of mouth and contain grandular endocrine cells.
Posterior pituitary is derived from ectodermal neural tissues in the developing brain and doesn’t contain glandular endocrine cells. Its hormones are transported to axon terminals and stored in vesicles. Depolarization causes release of hormones into blood vessels.

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53
Q

What are the main appetite hormones?

A

Leptin - appetite suppressed
Ghrelin - appetite stimulated

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54
Q

What are the classifications of hormones?

A

Peptide hormone - small proteins, consist of amino acids linked via peptide bonds
Steroid hormones - are lipids derived from cholesterol that has been modified via a series of chemical reactions
Amino acid derived hormones - molecules derived from either tyrosine or tryptophan
Another scheme of classification of hormone is based on their influence on other hormones:
Direct - act directly on target cells to elicit nonendocrine responses
Tropic - can target endocrine tissues to influence the secretion of another hormone
Some hormones act as both direct and as tropic hormones

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55
Q

What is the main regions of phospholipids?

A

Consist of polar head region and non polar tail region. The polar head consists of glycerol, a phosphate and terminal group that is linked to phosphate. Non polar tail consists of two fatty acid lined to the remaining two carbons of glycerol.

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56
Q

What are the three enzymes that is irreversible in glycolysis

A

Hexokinase
Phosphofructosekinase 1
Pyruvate kinase
Those can’t be used in gluconeogeneis so they are bypassed by distinct enzyme catalyzed reactions unique to gluconeogenesis.
Glucose 6 phosphatase
Fructose 1,6 biphosphatase
Pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

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57
Q

What is calcitonin and parathyroid hormone do?

A

The thyroid gland is responsible for helping to regulate basal metabolism and calcium level. The thyroid gland secretes calcitonin, synthesized from c cells. It reduces free calcium levels in the blood.
It reduces osteoclast activity
It reduces ca reabsorption in kidneys.
It antagonize parathyroid hormone which serves to increase the free calcium levels in blood.

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58
Q

What is antiduretic hormone do?

A

Maintains fluid homeostasis when blood pressure is low by stimulating the insertion of aquaporins in the membrane of kidney collecting duct cells. This leads to increased water reabsorption which raises the overall blood volume and blood pressure.

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59
Q

What is effect of aldosterone on kidney function?

A

Aldosterone promotes Na+ reabsorption in distal tumble and collecting duct. Interstitial fluid becomes more concentrated, water reabsorption increases via osmosis. Filtrate becomes more negatively charged due to Na+ reabsorption, promoting secretion of K+ and H+

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60
Q

What are the main types of hormones

A
  1. Peptide hormones: dissolved in plasma of the blood, receptor located on cell membrane, after binding activation of second messenger system happens.
    Examples: insulin, glucogen,vasopressin (ADH), adrenocorticotropic hormone.
  2. Steroid hormone: bound to carrier protein in blood, receptors located in cytosol or nucleus, in response regulation of gene expression happens.
    Examples: cortisol, androgens, estrogens.
  3. Amino acid derivative hormones: 1. Catecholamines: dissolved in plasma of the blood, receptors located on cell membranes. Activation of second messenger system happens.
    Examples: norepinephrine epinephrine
  4. Thyroid hormones: bound to carrier protein in the blood, receptor located in nucleus, regulation of gene expression, examples: thyroxine T4, triiodothyrine T3
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61
Q

How endocrine signaling happens?

A

Hormones are secreted into the bloodstream by specialized cells and transported throughout the body via the circulatory system. Once the hormone reaches its target tissue; it alters cellular function in one of the following ways:
Water soluble (hydrophilic) hormones generally bind to a cell surface receptor and initiate a second messenger cascade, leading to changes in protein activity (eg enzyme, membrane channels)
Water insoluble (hydrophobic) hormones generally diffuse across the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane and bind to cytosolic receptor to ultimately regulate gene expression in the nucleus.
Hormones can effect the function of diverse and distant tissues in the body. Any cell type that expresses a hormone receptor will respond to serum levels of the hormone

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62
Q

What is the function of liver cells?

A
  1. Regulation of blood glucose via glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis
  2. Storage of glycogen, mineral (iron) and vitamins
  3. Synthesis of macromolecules such as plasma proteins (clotting factors and albumin), fats, ketone bodies and cholesterol.
  4. Production and secretion of bile
  5. Breakdown/ detoxification of numerous drugs and metabolic waste products (bilirubin, ammonia)
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63
Q

What is hypothalamus do?

A

Is the brain structure located inferior to the thalamus that regulates the synthesis and secretion of multiple classes of hormones. It services as the interface between the nervous and endocrine systems by processing both cortical inputs from brain and sensing the plasma concentration of numerous hormones.

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64
Q

What is SRY gene?

A

Testosterone production in males is related to the presence of the sex determining region Y (SRY) gene on Y chromosomes, a sex chromosome that exists alongside one X chromosome in male cells. It controls male sex determination and promotes development of testes where testosterone is produced.

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65
Q

Hypoglycemia triggers which hormones?

A

Glucagon and epinephrine.
1. Autonomic nervous system: Hypothalamus sends sympathetic nerve impulses to adrenal medulla which secretes epinephrine in response. Epinephrine promotes glycogenolysis.
2. Hormone glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreas. It promotes gluconeogenesis (the synthesis of glucose from other molecules) and glycogenolysis

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66
Q

How does G protein activate adenylate cyclase?

A

Glucagon acts on target cells by binding its stimulators G protein coupled receptor on the cell membrane and including the adenylate cyclase/cAMP second messenger.
The G protein attached to transmembrane cell surface receptor is composed of three subunits alpha beta and gamma.When inactive, the alpha subunit is bound to GDP which is then replaced with GTP on ligand receptor binding.
The GTP bound G a dissociate from the beta and gamma subunits and proceeds to activate adenylate cyclase, an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cAMP, a second messenger. aCAMP then activates protein kinase A which subsequently phosphorylates the proteins necessary to produce ligand specific physiological effects.

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67
Q

Where is Leptin and ghrelin released from?

A

In energy rich state (high concentration of glucose and lipids), hormone Leptin is released by white adipose tissue. This triggers feelings of satiety by communicating to the hypothalamus that the stomach is full thereby suppressing appetite. In energy poor state ghrelin is released by stomach gasteric cells to trigger hunger and food seeking behavior via the hypothalamus.

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68
Q

What is somatostatin do?

A

Delta cells of pancreas produces them. It is a hormone that has a generalized effect on digestive function and has been shown to suppress insulin and glucagon release

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69
Q

What is external intercostals and inter costals do when breathing?

A

During inspiration external intercostals contract, elevate rib cage, reducing the pressure by increasing intrapulmonary volume.
During expiration internal intercostals contract, depress rib cage, increasing the pressure by decreasing intrapulmonary volume.
The external intercostals are inspiratory muscles
The internal intercostal are expiratory muscles

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70
Q

Why alveoli is efficient at gas exchange?

A

To their structure and extensive surface area. The small size and sheer number of alveoli in the lungs provide an enormous surface area available for gas exchange. The destruction of alveolar walls in emphysema is expected to decrease the lungs’ ability to perform respiratory gas exchange

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71
Q

What is asthma do to body?

A

Is due to allergen hypersensitivity can be identified by temporary airway inflammation which causes the bronchioles to narrow. The narrowing of airways increase resistance to airflow which decreases the volumetric rate of forcibly exhaled air. The narrow airways May also trap air in the lungs, decreasing the total volume air that can be exhaled

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72
Q

The regulation of respiratory rate is most sensitive to?

A

PCO2 in the blood. PCO2 of blood sensed by central and peripheral chemoreceptors. These receptors directly detect the [H+] in the blood, which is dependent on the perils pressure CO2 in the blood through the bicarbonate buffer system.
CO2+H2O=H2CO3=HCO3- +H+

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73
Q

What is intrapleural space?

A

Is the thin space between the lungs and the thoracic wall. The contraction of the diaphragm and the elevation of the rib cage decreases the pressure in the intrapleural space, causing the lungs to expand.

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74
Q

How inspiration occurs?

A

Is primarily initiated by the diaphragm l. The diaphragm is a sheet of skeletal muscle below the lungs and when it is relaxed it curves upward to adopt a dome shape. When the diaphragm contracts, it flattens, pulling down on the lungs and causing them to expand. In addition, the external intercostal muscles ( aground of muscles at the rib cage) and scalenes (muscles attached to ribs near the neck) can contract to elevate the rib cage (thereby preventing the diaphragm from pulling the lower ribs inward) and further expand the lungs

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75
Q

What is coughing and sneezing help for respiratory system?

A

Are forms of forced expiration that help clear trapped particles from the pharynx

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76
Q

What is cilia do in respiratory system?

A

Are hair like organelles that are found in some specialized cells. They are involved in the defense mechanisms of the respiratory system.
- nasal hairs- fillet out relatively large particles before they enter the respiratory tract.
- mucociliary escalator- specialized cells lining the upper respiratory tract produce mucus, a thick and sticky secretion that traps inhaled bacteria and particles. Ciliated cells beat synchronously to sweep foreign bodies trapped in mucus up the pharynx. From the pharynx, those foreign bodies can be coughed out or swallowed and destroyed by the harsh acidity of the stomach
-phagocytosis - alveolar macrophages are the type of white blood cell that engulf and digest

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77
Q

How blood vessel injury can be repaired?

A
  1. Formation of the platelet plug- endothelial damage exposes connective tissue (collagen fibers) normally present outside the blood vessel. Circulating cell fragments called platelets (derived from the bone marrow) readily bind to these collagen fibers, aggregating to form a platelet plug. In addition, bound platelets and endothelial cells continue to release signals that enhance platelet aggregation.
  2. Strengthening of the clot- clotting factors are specialized proteins that become activated in response to platelet aggregation and signaling factors outside the vessel. Activated clotting factors induce processes that lead to the formation of enzyme thrombin which induces protein strands to form an adhesive mesh like structure over the platelet plugs
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78
Q

What is gene therapy

A

A technique in which functional gene is introduced into a patient’s cells to replace a mutant gene. The new gene can the. Be transcribed and translated into functional proteins. A common gene therapy method uses retroviral vectors to insert functional gene copies into the stem cells of patients exhibiting specific genetic mutations

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79
Q

What is capillaries?

A

Are the smallest of the blood vessels. Their small diameter and thin walls allow for the efficient exchange of gases and water with the interstitial fluid. The balance between several forces determines the net direction of fluid movement in capillary beds.
Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Capillary oncotic pressure
Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure

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80
Q

What is systolic and diastolic pressure?

A

Systolic- heart muscles contract and pump blood into arteries. Arterial pressure increases. Increased volume of blood flowing through the arteries on contraction of the heart exerts increased pressure on the arterial walls. Arterial blood pressure is highest during systole and is measured as the systolic blood pressure.
Diastolic pressure - heart muscles relax and fills with blood returning to the heart via veins. Arterial pressure decreases and it is lowest.

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81
Q

What are the different blood components?

A
  1. Plasma- 90% water
    10%- electrolytes, gases, hormones, nutrients, metabolic water, blood proteins
  2. White blood cells and platelets
  3. Red blood cells
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82
Q

How hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen works?

A

Hemoglobin consists of four subunits each of which can exist in either of two conformations:
T- tense, low oxygen affinity
R- relaxed, high oxygen affinity
Oxygen’s binding to one subunit stabilizes the subunit’s R state. The bound subunit then positively cooperates with other subunits inducing them to change from T to the R conformation and making oxygen finding easier

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83
Q

What is Bohr effect?

A

During exercise, individuals experience an increase in the H+ concentration in the blood. (ATP +H2O =ADH +P+ H+)
Accumulated H+ ions can bind to hemoglobin and recur its affinity for oxygen in a phenomenon known as the Bohr effect. This reduced affinity appears as the right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curves

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84
Q

What is the effect of 2,3 BPG on oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

It decreases oxygen affinity by stabilizing the oxyhemoglobin conformation. Increasing concentrations of 2,3 BPG produce a right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve and faster oxygen delivery to tissues.
Bisphosphoglycerate mutase converts 1,3 Bisphosphoglycerate into 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate

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85
Q

What is left shift on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

It signifies an increase in the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. This affinity is inversely related to CO2 and H+ concentrations. Therefore left shift in the ODC often indicates lower CO2 and/or acid levels in blood

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86
Q

How reactive oxygen species can damage the cell?

A

Oxidation stress occurs when reactive oxygen species such as hydrogen peroxide are overly abundant near cell membrane. ROS can react with lipids in cell membrane and cause membrane ruptured also known as lysis. When this occurs in red blood cells; hemoglobin can leak out as and denature, becoming nonfunctional and causing hemolytic anemia

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87
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

Measured as a percentage of the total blood volume, indicates the amount of red blood cells in a blood sample. Hemolysis induced by oxidative stress can reduce hematocrit

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88
Q

What does lymphatic system do?

A

It collects protein containing fluid leaked from blood capillaries and transports it back to the bloodstream.
In addition, large lipid droplets absorbed by the small intestine are also transported to the bloodstream via lymph vessels. Fluid is collected by lymph capillaries, flows into larger lymph vessels and is transported into lymph ducts that drain into veins near the heart.
It also involved in the immune system

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89
Q

Which situation will increase pH levels in blood?

A

Increased alveolar gas exchange increases blood pH.

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90
Q

How obesity can effect ventilation?

A

Ventilation is movement of air into and out of the lungs, facilitate gas exchange in alveoli. Anatomical features (eg body position, amount of adipose tissue) can influence respiratory and cardiovascular functions.

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91
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. This volume is pumped by the right ventricle to the lungs and by the left ventricles to the rest of the tissues in the body.
Cardiac output = mean arterial pressure/ vascular resistance

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92
Q

What are the three segments of large intestine?

A

Cecum- receives chyme from the ileum of the small intestine
Colon- absorb water and electrolytes from material not digested by the small intestine. Concentrates feces (human waste product composed of water, indigestible material, bacteria, bile and enzymes.
Rectum - stores feces until excretion through the final opening in the rectum, the anus.

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93
Q

What is the main three components of cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells?

A

Microfilaments 7nm
Intermediate filaments 10nm
Microtubules 25nm

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94
Q

What is intermediate filaments do?

A

Composed of several protein types (eg keratin, lumen) and perform:
- work with Microfilaments to determine cellular shape.
- make up the nuclear lamina (inner lining of nuclear envelope)
- assist in anchoring organelles to specific compartments within the cell
- provide crucial support for the cell to be able to withstand mechanical forces. (Eg compression)

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95
Q

What is Microfilaments do?

A

Are made out of actin protein subunits organized into double stranded rods. They help determine the overall shape of a cell and assist in some cellular locomotion. They also responsible for muscular contractions and forms the cleavage furrow during cytokinesis.

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96
Q

What is microtubules do?

A

Are made of alternating alpha and beta tubulin subunits organized into hollow tubes. They form mitotic spindle during the cell division process. They also involved in movement within the cell. Also forms cilia and flagella.

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97
Q

What is sequence of gastrointestinal tract?

A

Mouth
Esophagus
Stomach - chyme is formed
Small intestine
Large intestine

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98
Q

Nutrient absorption is affected by?

A

The diversity of intestinal bacteria (gut flora), the surface area of the small intestine, and the functions of intestinal proteins (digestive enzyme, nutrient transporters, structure proteins)

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99
Q

What are the excretory system organs?

A

Kidney
Ureter
Bladder
Urethra

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100
Q

What are the muscles that control urination?

A

It is under control of both smooth and skeletal muscle along the urinary tract (the system for removing urine from the body). Layer of smooth muscle lining the bladder known as the detrusor muscle is relaxed while urine is stored in the bladder. During this storage process, two sphincter muscles are contracted so that urine can’t exit the body:
1. The proximal sphincter muscle is known as the internal urethral sphincter (IUS). The IUS is composed of smooth muscle and is under involuntary control by the autonomic nervous system
2. The distal sphincter or the external urethral sphincter EUS is compressed of skeletal muscle and is under voluntary control by the somatic nervous system.

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101
Q

What is insulin do?

A

Food digestion leads to increased glucose level and stimulates specialized cells of the pancreas called beta cells to release insulin. It is a glucose metabolism hormone that decreases the concentration of glucose in the blood. It accomplishes by promoting glucose uptake by tissues (eg adipose, muscle) and decreasing liver glucose production (via gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis) while at the same time promoting liver glycogen formation (glycogenesis)

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102
Q

What is intestinal lumen?

A

The cavity ( hooson zai) of intestine. Digested food is inside. Surrounding it there is epithelial cells, surrounding that interstitial fluid, then capillary.

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103
Q

How nutrients are absorbed into the body?

A

They absorbed by intestinal epithelial cells and transported into surrounding interstitial fluid before diffusing into capillaries, increasing osmotic pressure interstitial fluid and subsequently in the blood plasma

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104
Q

How active transport of NaCl is necessary for reabsorption of salt in renal medulla?

A

Ascending limb of henle is highly permeable for NaCl but impermeable for water. Initially NaCl is passively reabsorbed into the medulla as filtrate moves up the ascending limb. However, as the ascending limb nears the cortex, NaCl is actively transported from the filtrate into the medulla, preserving the medulla’s high salt concentration

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105
Q

What does colon absorb?

A

Electrolytes (eg sodium, chloride) and additional water from the mass of undigested material

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106
Q

What does enzyme lined immunosorbent assay detect??

A

Elisa can detect and quantify proteins. Initially a primary antibody (linked to reporter enzyme) is added, which bind to the antigen (protein). The samples are washed to remove unbound proteins, and the reporter enzyme is added. The enzyme-substrate reaction creates a product that results in a quantifiable/ detectable signal

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107
Q

Where is transcription factors located?

A

They bind to specific DNA sequences and control the rate of gene transcription. They are initially transcribed in the nucleus but are translated in the cytoplasm. Inactive transcription factors which are not bound to their DNA substrate, are found in the cytoplasm. However, during cell signaling, the nuclear localization sequence found in transcription factors allows nuclear import proteins to direct transcription factors back to the nucleus via nuclear pores to alter gene expression.

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108
Q

What does bile do in digestion of lipid?

A

The liver synthesizes bile, a nonenzymatic solution stored in the gallbladder and released into the small intestine to aid in the mechanical digestion of lipids. Bile is composed of bile salts, bile pigments and cholesterol. Bile salts act as detergents to solubilize fats during digestion, they possess both a hydrophobic region that associates with the surface of lipids and a hydrophilic region that associates with water. Consequently, bile salts break down large lipid globules into smaller droplets (micelles) in a process known as emulsification. Emulsified lipids chemically digested by pancreatic lipase

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109
Q

How pH of the stomach is maintained

A

By gastric juice which is composed primarily of hydrochloric acid which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach. This acidic environment is required for protein digestion and to kill harmful bacteria. When gastric juice mixed with food (chyme) enters the duodenum, it is neutralized by bicarbonate ions (produced in the pancreas) and bile (released from storage in the gallbladder).

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110
Q

What are the sphincters in gastrointestinal tract?

A

At certain sections along the gastrointestinal tract, sphincters or rings of muscle, divide the tract into segments with distinct functions. Ingested food passes from the esophagus into the stomach through the cardiac sphincter and from the stomach into the duodenum through the pyloric sphincter.

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111
Q

What cells stomach secrete?

A
  1. G cells (gastrin) signals parietal cells to secrete hydrochloric acid.
  2. Parietal cells: A. Hydrochloric acid B. Intrinsic factor (aids in absorption of vitamin b12 in the ileum.
  3. Chef cells- A. Pepsinogen B. Gastric lipase
  4. Mucous cells - mucus and bicarbonate, protects the stomach walls from auto digestion by gastric juice, which contains acids and proteases
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112
Q

What is peritoneum and peritoneum cavity?

A

Peritoneum comprises two membranes that line the abdomen; the parietal layer which line the abdominal wall, and the visceral layer which covers the abdominal organs. The peritoneal cavity is a potential space between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum.

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113
Q

What is perineum?

A

Is the area between anus and the scrotum (in males) or vulva (in females).

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114
Q

What product liver contribute that can be used in duodenal lumen?

A

Bile is a substance synthesized by the liver and stored by the gallbladder. When released into the duodenal lumen, it aids in the mechanical digestion of lipids. Other functions of the liver include blood glucose regulation, macromolecule synthesis, molecular storage and detoxification.

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115
Q

Which cells in small intestine involved in absorption of nutrients?

A

It occurs across epithelial cells. Any undigestible material passes to the large intestine

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116
Q

How gut bacteria helps with digestive system?

A

The large intestine contains many bacterial species that aid digestive process. Some of these bacteria can process ingested foods that would be undigestable otherwise into molecules that can then be absorbed by the body and used for energy. Other bacterial species in the large intestine synthesize certain vitamins.

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117
Q

What is neutral theory of molecular evolution?

A

The majority of genetic mutations are neutral which means they don’t effect the fitness of an organism. Within species, these neutral mutations are randomly fixed or lost due to genetic drift and occur at fairly constant rate over time

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118
Q

What is molecular clock model?

A

Is based on the theory that most genetic mutations are neutral and occur at fairly constant rate across organisms. It allows researchers to measure evolutionary time by analyzing random changes in the genome over time. For example species that diverged more recently from a common ancestor have accumulated fewer mutations across the short time and are therefore more genetically similar to one another (more closely related).

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119
Q

What are the similarities between meiosis and mitosis?

A
  1. DNA synthesis occurs prior
  2. In a given organism, parent cells have the same chromosomes number
  3. Divided into same stages PMAT
  4. One parent fell undergoes cell division to produce multiple daughter cells
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120
Q

What are the different kinds of evolution?

A
  1. Parallel evolution- occurs when two species more closely related (descended from a recent common ancestor) continuous to evolve the same characteristics to adapt to similar environments.
  2. Divergent evolution- occurs when two species descended from a recent common ancestor inhabit contrasting environments and evolve distinct characteristics that allow them to better adapt to their differing environment pressures.
  3. Convergent evolution l- leads to similar characteristics in distinctly related species that are exposed to similar pressures
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121
Q

What are the hardy weinberg equilibrium equations?

A

P+q=1
P^2+2pq +q^2=1

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122
Q

What is genetic linkage?

A

Refers to the tendency of alleles in close proximity to remain on the same chromosome and be inherited together by offspring. This tendency occurs because of fewer crossover events between these loci during meiosis, resulting in a greater number of haploid gametes with nonrecombinant genotypes

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123
Q

How truncated protein is produced from translation?

A

Nonsense mutation is a mutation in which nucleotide change creates a premature stop codon, causing early translation termination and production of a truncated (shortened) protein.

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124
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

The adult kidney produce it. It is a hormone that signals bone marrow to increase red blood cell production

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125
Q

When dominant mutated allele can survive eradication from gene pool by natural selection?

A

Can remain in the gene pool if the organism’s fitness remains unaffected, even when the deleterious alleles reduce survival after the reproductive years. In addition, deleterious recessive alleles evade elimination by natural selection through phenotypic masking in heterozygotes.

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126
Q

What leads to mosaic phenotype

A

Random X chromosome inactivation leads to mosaic phenotypes

127
Q

What is difference between codominance and incomplete dominance?

A

Incomplete dominance is when there is a blending of the two alleles that result in a third phenotype that doesn’t look like either of the parents. Classic example is when white flower and red flower are crossed and all their offspring is solid pink.
Two common example as height and hair color.
Codominance - both alleles are expressed together in the offspring. If we cross red flower and white flower, the offspring would be flowers with red and white patches on them. Most common examples is AB blood type. Person with A type has baby with B blood, child could have type AB where both phenotypes are fully expressed

128
Q

How many electrons NADH can carry in ETC?

A

2 electrons in form of a hydride H+ion. It reduce ubiquinone UQ to Ubiquinol UQH2. Turning O2 into water requires 2 NADH. Likewise four copies of one electron carrier such as reduced cytochrome c, are required

129
Q

How many carbons short, medium, long chain of fatty acid has?

A

Short at most 5C
Medium 6-12C
Long more than 12C

130
Q

Where is short and medium chain fatty acids activated and oxidized?

A

In matrix of mitochondria. FA oxidation happens in mitochondria. Before this can occurX the hydrocarbon chains of cytosolic FA must enter mitochondrial matrix. For short and medium FA this is accomplished via simple diffusion but hydrocarbon chain of Long FA must be transiently linked to a molecule called carnitine to across.

131
Q

What are the corresponding enzymes that used in gluconeogenesis that the irreversible steps of glycolysis uses?

A
  1. Hexokinase (or glucokinese) - glucose 6 phosphatase
  2. Phosphofructokinase- fructose 1,6 biphosphatase
  3. Pyruvate kinase- pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase
132
Q

Which organ maintains blood glucose level during fasting?

A

Liver. Liver initially synthesizes glucose from degrading glycogen. After glycogen stores depleted in prolonged fasting, gluconeogenesis is up regulated, increasing the synthesis of glucose from precursors such as pyruvate.

133
Q

What are energy investment phase and energy payoff phase in glycolysis

A

Investment: Glucose - glucose 6phosphate, fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6 biphosphate
2 ATP consumed per glucose
Payoff- 1,3 biphosphoglycerate to 3 phosphoglycerate 2ATP
2 phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate 2aATP
Total 4ATP produced per glucose

134
Q

What is glycosidic bond?

A

Is a type of ether bond that joins a carbohydrate molecule to another group which may or may not be another carbohydrate it is a condensation reaction.

135
Q

During starvation how triglycerides can be used by the body

A

It is broken down by liver into glycerol and free fatty acids. Glycerol is rapidly converted to glyceraldehyde 3phosphate for glucose synthesis (gluconeogenesis) while free fatty acids enter the mitochondria where they are oxidized to generate acetyl CoA for the CAC to produce energy. Excess acetyl CoA that accumulate beyond what is needed for the liver can be converted to ketone bodies such as acetoacetate and 3 hydroxybutyrate which are then exported into circulation. Brain can use ketone bodies as energy source when needed

136
Q

Phospholipids can be separated by which differences?

A

Each phospholipid has a unique mass, charge and solubility due to distinct features in the backbone, polar head groups, and fatty acid chains. They can be separated by their mass charge and solubility

137
Q

How cholesterol determine membrane fluidity?

A

Membrane fluidity is determined partially by the concentration of cholesterol and the tail length of fatty acid. Cholesterol is a steroid alcohol. At high temp, it provides rigidly and stabilized the membrane, at low temp, it increases fluidity and prevents the membrane from solidifying. Short unsaturated FA tails increase membrane fluidity by preventing phospholipids from cluster together, but longer saturated tails such as those typically found in sphingolipids induce lipid clustering and decrease fluidity

138
Q

What emulsification do?

A

Increases the surface area of lipids by breaking down large globules into spherical structures called micelles. Micelles have a hydrophobic core which contains the non polar hydrocarbon tails of lipids, and an other shell of polar head groups, which make contact with water.
Lipases can cleave the ester bonds in hydrolyzable lipids such as triglycerides, phospholipids and waxes by adding water. Nonhydrolyzable lipids don’t contain the ester linkages necessary for lipase digestion. Most common are cholesterol (steriods) and fat soluble vitamins (KADE)

139
Q

Cholesterol is precursor for which compounds?

A

Synthesis of steroid hormone, bile salts and vitamin D. Common steroid hormones are:
Cortisol
Aldosterone
Testosterone
Progesterone
Estrogen (CAT PE)

140
Q

What are the vitamins are water soluble?

A

B series and C
B1 - thiamine - required as a cofactor for decarboxylation
B2 - riboflavin- precursor of flavonoid cofactors such as FAD
B3 - niacin - precursor of the cofactor NADH NADPH
B5- pantothenate- precursor for coenzyme A
B6- pyridoxine- cofactor in transamination of amino acids
B7 - biotin - required as cofactor in carboxylation reactions.
B9 - folic acid -precursor of THF necessary for methylation reaction in nucleotide synthesis
B12 - cobalamin - cofactor in metabolism of odd fatty acids, required for brain function and red blood cell formation
C -ascorbic acid- acts as an antioxidant, required for collagen synthesis

141
Q

What are the functions of fat soluble vitamins?

A

A- cell membrane and repair, immune system maintenance, eyesight
D- calcium absorption and utilization in the development and growth of bones and teeth
E- antioxidant, protects cell membranes from oxidative damage, particularly red blood cells
K- required for blood clot formation

142
Q

What is epimers?

A

Have multiple stereocenters but differ only at one of them. Eg D mannose is C2 epimer of glucose

143
Q

What is the structure of sucrose?

A

Sucrose is disaccharide in which the reducing end of D glucose is linked to the reducing end of D fructose. Because both reducing ends are already involved in a glycosidic bond, sucrose is not a reducing sugar

144
Q

What is exonuclese activities?

A

DNA polymerase catalyze the accurate addition of nucleotide to growing stands of DNA 5’-3’ direction. 3’ is the new added nucleotides located. To accomplish this, DNA polymerase possesses both polymerase and exonuclease activities. When incorrect nucleotide is added, it is removed by exonuclease region and it removes it from 3’ to 5’

145
Q

Why animal cells store glucose as glycogen?

A

Storing large amounts of glucose as monomers results in high osmotic pressure which can cause the cell to rupture as too much water flows in. This problem can be avoided by linking multiple glucose particles into one large particle. Osmotic pressure п=iMRT
Ps: glucose is highly soluble in water whereas glycogen has low solubility

146
Q

What is functions of lipid?

A
  1. Energy storage- triacylglycerols, free FA
  2. Structural- cholesterol, waxes, sphingolipids, glycerophosholipids
  3. Signaling - steroids, fat soluble vitamins, eicosandoids, prostaglandins, diacylglycerol
147
Q

What is deamination?

A

It changes a single functional group of nitrogenous base from an amine to a carbonyl, causing mutations that alter hydrogen bonding patterns. The deamination of cytosine results in its conversion to uracil

148
Q

What are polarity of functional groups?

A

Most polar to less polar
Carboxylic acid, amide, alcohols, amine, /(aldehydes ketones), ester, alkyl halide, ether, alkane

149
Q

What is cholesterol esterification changes the normal cholesterol?

A

It removes the hydrophilic hydroxyl group and replaces it with a hydrophobic acyl tail. This modification changes the molecule from an amphipathic cholesterol to a hydrophobic cholesteryl ester; resulting in the movement of the ester from the membrane to surface to the hydrophobic core of lipoprotein

150
Q

What is supernatant?

A

Denoting the liquid above the solid after crystallization, precipitation, centrifugation or other process

151
Q

What is prostaglandin?

A

Are nonhydrolyzable, 20 carbon (eicosanoid) lipids involved in autocrine and paracrine signaling. They are derived from arachidonic acid and often help mediate localized inflammatory responses

152
Q

What is conservative DNA mutation do?

A

Base substitution codes for different amino acid with similar chemical structure

153
Q

Which amino acids are nucleophilic amino acids?

A

Serine, threonine, cysteine, tyrosine, lysine.
These amino acids become nucleophiles when they are deprotonated

154
Q

Which amino acids side chains are ionizable?

A

7 of them ionizable- meaning their charges can be altered as protons are added or removed with varying pH.
DYCE- aspartate, tyrosine, cysteine, glutamate. Can carry a negative charge
RKH- arginine, lysine, histidine, can carry positive charge

155
Q

How ion exchange chromatography works?

A

Cation exchange- (catch cations) beads are negatively charged and bind cations. Positively charged residues stick and negative charge will be repelled and sped on.
Anion exchange does the opposite.

156
Q

How do calculate the net charge of ionizable side chains of amino acids?

A

pH<pKa>pKa deprotonaed
pH=pKa buffer zone
pKa is higher than the surrounding pH - the group is protonated and therefore more positive (or less negative)
The net charge is the peptide at given pH is the sum of the charges of all the ionizable groups.</pKa>

157
Q

What are the three branched amino acid?

A

Leucine, isoleucine, valine.
Has the branched alkyl side group. (Only CH-alkyl)

158
Q

What is high liquid performance chromatography? And it is best used for separating?

A

HPLC is a technique in which a mixture of molecules enters a column packed with beads. The beads maybe hydrophilic (normal phase) or hydrophobic (reverse phase). As the mixture moves through the column, different compounds in the mixture experience different strengths of attraction of beads. Molecules with stronger attraction to the beads stay in the column longer and are separated from molecules with a weaker attraction to the beads. It is best to used for separating small organic molecules such as individual amino acids and dipeptides.

159
Q

What is ubiquitin do?

A

The protein ubiquitin can be attached to other proteins as a molecular signal, usually through linkage to a lysine residue. Polyubiquitination is a signal for protein degradation by the proteasome.

160
Q

Differences between precision, accuracy and validity?

A

A measurement is said to be precise or reliable, if similar or very close results are obtained on repeated trials. Accuracy can be assessed using a “gold standard” test; which is used to calibrate instruments. A result is said to be valid if it is both precise and accurate as it reliably produces real world values

161
Q

What is common between asparagine and glutamine?

A

They are only two amino acids that have amide group in the end

162
Q

What is common between aspartate and glutamate?

A

They are both has carboxylic acid in their side chains.

163
Q

Special characteristics of of certain amino acids?

A

Met- thioether
Phe- phenyl
Tyr- phenol
Trp- indole
His- imidazole
Lys- amine
Cys- thiol
Ser. Thr- alcohols
Arg- guanidinium
Gly- hydride

164
Q

In beta sheet, which amino acids can make bigger difference in the structure?

A

Stacking interaction can stabilize secondary structures. This happens between aromatic side chains like phe, Tyr, trp.
Glycine has the flexibility favorable for beta turns
Proline - rigidity induces right turns

165
Q

What is the reason for insoluble protein?

A

Protein folding is primarily driven by the hydrophobic effect. Proteins that adapt non native conformations are generally forced to expose more hydrophobic residues to the aqueous environment. These residues cannot interact with water, and therefore tend to aggregate to minimize exposure due to hydrophobic effect. The inability to interact with water results in precipitation out of solution.

166
Q

What are the different kind of beta sheets?

A

Parallel and antiparallel beta sheets differ in the alignment of their strands, with parallel strands having aligned N termini. Antiparallel strands can be linked by 180° beta turns whereas parallel strands require longer connecting regions. All data sheets participate in backbone hydrogen bonds

167
Q

What is chaperones?

A

Molecular shape pronouns are defined as proteins that facilitate the proper folding of other proteins. They usually accomplish this by binding hydrophobic regions of nascent, misfolded, aggregated proteins, preventing exposure of those regions to aqueous solvent. This arrangement prevents incorrect interactions between hydrophobic residues and can prevent or reverse aggregation by blocking interactions between hydrophobic regions of separate polypeptides.

168
Q

What is difference between native polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis PAGE and SDS page

A

PAGE is used to separate proteins by charge and molecular weight without affecting their 3D structure. Electric field is applied to a gel and proteins migrate toward one of the electrodes based on their mass and charge. Under these conditions, proteins maintain their biological function because they retain their tertiary and quaternary structure during native PAGE purification.
SDS PAGE separates proteins only on the basis of mass. SDS is a detergent that coats proteins with negative charge and denatures proteins by disrupting non-covalent interactions.
Proteins separated by SDSPAGE are unfolded into their primary structure and are unable to perform their biological functions

169
Q

How salt can denature a protein structure?

A

Acidic and basic side chains of amino acids form ionic bonds referred as salt bridges, which contribute to tertiary and quaternary structure. High salt concentration (NaCl by forming ionic bonds with amino acids) can disrupt salt bridges and cause proteins to become denatured (unfold). The loss of three dimensional structure in denature proteins result in loss or reduction of function

170
Q

What is used and what is produced in anabolic and catabolic reactions?

A

Anabolic- build up
Required: NADH, NADPH,FADH2, ATP
Produced: NAD+, NADP+, FAD, ADP Pi
Catabolic: break down
Required: NAD+, NADP+, FAD, ADP Pi
Produced: NADH, NADPH,FADH2, ATP

171
Q

What is needed for fatty acid synthesis?

A

It requires energy, reducing power, and sufficient precursor molecules.
ATP, NADPH, and acetyl CoA

172
Q

What is procured in beta oxidation and what is rate limiting step?

A

Produces NADH, FADH2.
RL step: conversion of fatty acid acyl CoA molecules to fatty acylcarnitine by carnitine palmitotransferase I

173
Q

What are the enzymes in pyruvate dehydrogenase complex mechanism?

A

E1- pyruvate dehydrogenase
E2- dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
E3- dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
This reaction requires CoA, thiamine pyrophosphate, lipoic acid and NAD+

174
Q

How acetyl CoA is transported to the cytosol?

A

Insulin stimulates lipid synthesis by activating major enzyme involved in fatty acid synthesis. In the mitochondria, insulin activates pyruvate dehydrogenase which provides acetyl CoA which then transported to the cytoplasm through citrate shuttle.
Citrate shuttle is acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate which can exit mitochondria. In the cytoplasm, citrate is converted back to acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate.

175
Q

What is protein catabolism ?

A

Refers to breakdown of polypeptide chains and proteins into individual amino acids to produce ATP, glucose, or new proteins. Transamination reactions generate alpha keto acids from amino acids by transferring NH3 group to alpha ketoglutarate which is co vetted to glutamate

176
Q

Glycolysis enzymes

A
  1. Hexokinase
  2. Phosphoglucose isomerase
  3. Phosphofructokinase
  4. Aldolase
    *triose phosphate dehydrogenase
  5. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
  6. Phosphoglycerate kinase
  7. Phosphoglycerate mutase
  8. Enolase
  9. Pyruvate kinase
177
Q

How glycogenolysis happens?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase break the bond between two adjacent glucose molecules in a glycogen chain by phosphorolysos or addition of a phosphate molecule across a bond to produce glucose 1 phosthate. G1P is then transformed into glucose 6 phosphate for use in glycolysis or the pentose phosphate pathway

178
Q

What is glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase do?

A

It is the rate limiting enzyme for the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway which is the primary cytosolic source of NADPH in eukaryotes. Eukaryotic cells use NADPH as a reducing agent in lipid synthesis.

179
Q

Where does urea cycle occurs?

A

It occurs in the liver of animals and spans both the cytosol and mitochondria. Each molecule of urea produced contains two nitrogen atoms. The first nitrogen atom comes from a free ammonium which may be produced through deamination of glutamine or asparagine side chains or by deamination of any other amine including the Alpha amine of the alpha amino acids. The second nitrogen atom in urea comes from the amino acid aspartate, although any amino acid can become aspartate by donating its alpha amino acid group to oxaloacetate through transamination.

180
Q

What epinephrine activates?

A

Activates the B-adrenergic receptor, a G protein coupled receptor on skeletal muscle cells. Stimulation of this pathway leads to an increase in glycogenolysis and in skeletal muscle, an increase in glycolysis, which supports the sympathetic fight or flight response.

181
Q

Where does fermentation occurs?

A

In the cytosol. Under anaerobic conditions, there is no oxygen to receive the high energy electrons and therefore NAD+ cannot be regenerated through respiration. Instead NAD+ is anaerobically regenerated through fermentation. Animal cells for perform lactic acid fermentation in which NADH and pyruvate produced during glycolysis react together to regenerate NAD+ and produce lactate.

182
Q

How NAD+ is transported back to cytosol?

A

Either malate aspartate shuttle or glycerol-3-phosphate shutttle are used to oxidize NADH back to NAD+ in cytosol

183
Q

Animal cells tend to create ATP in which ways?

A

One of two ways:
1. Substrate level phosphorylation - the direct coupling of ADP phosphorylation to the hydrolysis of a high energy molecule (eg creatine phosphate) is an example of substrate level phosphorylation
2. Oxidative phosphorylation - the ADP phosphorylation is indirectly coupled to the oxidation or reduced molecules ( NADH, FADH2). This molecules pass high energy electrons into an electron transport chain, where the electrons participate in a series of oxidation reduction reactions that pump proteins against their electrochemical gradient before ultimately reducing oxygen to water. The proton gradient forms a protein motive force that powers the phosphorylation of ADP

184
Q

What is the relationship between reversiblity and spontaneity (delta G)

A

Reversible biochemical reactions have a small delta G near 0 and can proceed in both the forward and reverse direction under physiological conditions.
Biochemical reactions with a large negative delta G are spontaneous but irreversible

185
Q

What is the ATP consumption and production using glucose molecule and glucose 6 phosphate molecule?

A

Same ATP produced
Different ATP consumed.
Glycolysis 2 ATP used.
Glucose 6 phosphate from glyconolysis enters glycolysis, less ATP is invested because the initial Hexokinase reaction is bypassed

186
Q

Blood glucose is mostly supplied by which organ?

A

Skeletal muscle and liver are the major sites of glycogen storage in the body. The activity of glucose 6 phosphatase allows the liver to release glucose derived from glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis into the blood where as muscle lacks significant levels of glucose 6 phosphatase

187
Q

What is beta oxidation and what it produces?

A

Is a four step (oxidation, hydration, oxidation, cleavage) repetitive pathway that breaks down acyl CoA into acetyl CoA and an acyl CoA chain shortened by two carbons. It produces both NADH and FADH2.
In fatty acid synthesis NADPH is used.

188
Q

Which metabolic pathways produce NADH, FADH2?

A

Produced in the citric acid cycle, glycolysis and B oxidation

189
Q

Which enzymes involved in glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the release of glucose residues from linear glycogen segments, and debranching enzyme linearizes branched segments of glycogen for subsequent degradation by phosphorylase

190
Q

How cytochrome C is involved in apoptosis

A

Apoptosis can be caused by certain developmental events, DNA damage, or reactive oxygen species. It is induced when cytochrome C is allowed to leave the mitochondria and enter the cytosol where it activates caspase which in turn activate several degradative pathways such as proteolysis.

191
Q

How many NADH and FADH pyruvate to CAC produce?

A

Pyruvate to acetyl CoA - 1NADH
Acetyl CoA in CAC- 3NADH, 1FADH2
Each NADH=10 FADH3=6 H+
proton pumped into the intermembrane space.
1ATP is produced every 4H+

192
Q

What can effect the isoelectric point of protein?

A

PI is calculated based on pKa values of ionizable functional groups on a protein and can therefore be affected by posttranslational modifications (which can add or remove functional groups) or by protein structures (which alters the pKa values).

193
Q

Mitochondrial matrix is acidic or basic than the rest of the cell?

A

High in pH, basic. Has proteins with high pI values.

194
Q

What is the shape of the curve when protein has negative cooperativity?

A

n<1 Sharp beginning and almost straight line continues.
n=1 hyperbolic shape (like the normal michalis Menten curve)
n>1 sigmoidal shape (s)

195
Q

What is prions?

A

Is a misfolded protein that acts as an infectious agent by inducing changes in the secondary structure of other normal proteins, causing these normal proteins to also become misfolded.

196
Q

What are the viroids?

A

Are subviral infectious particles consisting of short circular single strand of DNA. Unlike viruses, viroids are not surrounded by a protein coat. When infecting cells, viroids can bind host cellular RNA sequences, resulting in gene silencing that prevents synthesis of necessary proteins

197
Q

What is centrioles?

A

The microtubules are involved in intracellular transport. They are involved in this process originate near the nucleus on organelles called centrioles and radiate out toward the plasma membrane

198
Q

What is kinetochore?

A

Is a protein DNA complex to which spindle fibers, made of microtubules, attach during metaphase of mitosis.

199
Q

What is quiescent?

A

Nondividing cells. They are in the G0 phase of the cell cycle/

200
Q

What is the shape of condensed DNA of bacterial prokaryotic cells?

A

In the nucleoid region of bacterial prokaryotic cells, double stranded DNA is condensed into a circular chromosome that has no telomeres or associated histones. In contrast, eukaryotic cells package their histone wrapped, double stranded DNA into their chromosome with ends capped by telomeres to prevent DNA from unraveling.

201
Q

What is the difference between virus and prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

Generic material can be RNA or DNA
Can be double or single stranded
Either enveloped or non enveloped, enveloped viruses have a membrane or phospholipid bilayer, generally derived from the cell membrane of the host.
Nonenveloped has no phospholipid bilayer.
In contrast, all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are enclosed by a phospholipid bilayer

202
Q

What is retro viruses?

A

Are class of envelope viruses that have RNA genomes. Upon entering a host cell, the envelope and capsid disassemble, releasing viral RNA and proteins into the cytoplasm of the host cell. Viral reverse transcriptase converts a viral RNA into double stranded DNA that is then transported into a nucleus. 

203
Q

What is transposons?

A

Fragments of DNA that can move between different areas of the genome are called transposons. Retro transposon move via an RNA intermediate that is transcribed from DNA, translated into a specialized enzyme, converted back to DNA and re-insert it into new genomic location.

204
Q

How reduction in chromosome number can occur in eukaryotes?

A

Alterations to chromosome structure (eg fusion or breakage) can occur due to their DNA mutations and chromosomal alterations may cause changes in chromosome number with that particular species. Reduction can happen via:
1. End to end (telomeres to telomere) fusion of two chromosomes and inactivation of one of the centromeres would initially generate a larger chromosome with 2 centromeres, reducing the chromosome number by one.
2. Breakage of a chromosome at centromere and fusion of each chromosome portion to the ends of other chromosomes. This initial leakage would result into individual chromosome portions. Fusion of those portions to other chromosome would cause the original chromosome to be lost, also reducing the overall chromosome number in the cell by one.

205
Q

What is conjugation?

A

It is a transfer of DNA between bacteria through a tube formed by the pilus. During conjugation, transfer occurs unidirectionally from cells with the F factor to the cells lacking the F factor. 

206
Q

Operan composed of

A

Composed of three elements:
1. A promoter or the upstream region of DNA to which RNA polymerase and other transcriptional modulators binds
2. An operator which is a nucleotide sequence either within the promoter or between the promoter and the downstream genes regulated by the promoter to which a repressor binds
3. Gene controlled by the operan

207
Q

What is misinformation effect?

A

Occurs when a person’s recall of episodic memories becomes less accurate because of post event information. It is an example of retroactive interference which occurs when information presented later interferes with the ability to retain previously encoded information. Eg when asked the question “how fast were cars going when they smashed into each other? The answer typically involves a higher rate of speed than when the question was phrased, how fast were the cars going when they bumped into each other

208
Q

What is dual coding effect?

A

Refers to the retrieval advantage of verbal items that are imageable. These items are encoded with both a verbal code and a visual code which benefits their retrievablity

209
Q

What is reticular formation

A

Deep in the brain stem, is concerned with functions involving arousal, particularly the sleep awake cycle and attention

210
Q

What is cornea located?

A

The cornea forms the outermost layer of the front of the eye, in which it directly contacts the back of the eyelids.

211
Q

What is stimulus generalization?

A

Occurs when a response that has been associated with one stimulus occurs for another stimulus that is similar in some way.

212
Q

What is optimal arousal theory?

A

Posits that there is an ideal level of anxiety or stress that leads to peak performance. This level is different for every individual and can change depending on the task at hand. Too much or too little arousal will lead to suboptimal performance. (Yerkes and dorson)

213
Q

What is selye’s general adaptation syndrome states?

A

Universal physiological changes in response to any kind of stressor (human stress response is not specific to the type of stresses). It has three stages:
1. Alarm - similar to the fight or flight response
2. Resistance - forces will be build up, cope with stressor
3. Exhaustion- will cause death if the body is unable to overcome the threat. Reserves depleted

214
Q

What is cerebellum do?

A

Is located underneath the cerebrum, and governs balance and fine motor movements. It’s main function is maintaining coordination throughout the body

215
Q

What is median represents?

A

Middle of distribution, splitting the sample distribution of values in half.

216
Q

What is risk averse?

A

The tendency to avoid risk and have low risk tolerance.

217
Q

What is relinquish means?

A

Voluntarily cease to keep or claim, give up (adandon, hand over)

218
Q

What is the difference between subjectivity and objectivity?

A

Subjectivity is based on feelings, emotions and opinions. Objectivity is truth that is independent of subjectivity meaning no bias, prejudice, or partiality.

219
Q

What is automatic processing?

A

Involves processes that are quick and initiated involuntarily and automatically without active control.

220
Q

What is chunking

A

Is the process of organizing parts of objects into meaningful whole. The whole is then remembered as a unit instead of individual parts.

221
Q

What is multi store memory model (atkinson and shiffrin)

A

There are three unitary (separate) memory stores and that information is transferred between these stores in a linear sequence.
Sensory memory, short term memory (aka working memory), long term memory

222
Q

How gas chromatography works?

A

Involves samples being vaporized and passed through a liquid or solid stationary phase using a gaseous mobile phase. The stationary phase let’s polar molecules elite more slowly. The molecules with the lowest BP come out of the column first.

223
Q

What is formula for strengthen of a persons eye lens?

A

1/o+1/I=S
O- object distance
I- lens to retina distance

224
Q

What are the strong acids?

A

HCl
HBr
HI
HNO3
HClO3 chloric acid
HClO4 perchloric acid
H2SO4 - sulfuric acid

225
Q

What is the formula of index of refraction?

A

n=c/v
c- speed of light in vacuum
v- speed of light in a medium

226
Q

The intensity of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to?

A

Number of photons emitted. The of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to the number of photons and intensity of electromagnetic radiation is defined as energy emitted per unit time.
Intensity=Power/area

227
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

Is defined as the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

228
Q

What is work equation that is correlated to power

A

Work=Pt (Ws)

229
Q

What bond is disulfide bridge is?

A

Intermolecular covalent bond

230
Q

What are the two photoreceptors that involved in vision in most vertebrates?

A

Rods and Cones. They contain different opsins.
Rods - rhodopsin, which underlies twilight vision
Cones- cone opsin, which underlie daylight (color) vision

231
Q

How different radioactive decay changes the atomic number (number of protons)?

A

B- decay- adds the atomic number
The rest decreases the atomic number.
Alpha, B+, electron capture

232
Q

Thin lens equation and magnification equation?

A

1/f=1/o+1/i
M=ratio of the height of the image to the height of object
m=hi/ho=-di/do

233
Q

What is adhesion protein?

A

Are glycoproteins that mediate cell-cell connections. They are found on the membrane of cells and interact in the space between the cells, holding the membrane together

234
Q

What is clathrin?

A

Functions in formation of vesicles for intracellular trafficking

235
Q

What is nuclear localization signal?

A

Is a sequence that tags the protein for it to be transported into the nucleus.

236
Q

What is chemiosmosis?

A

Involves the pumping of protons through special channels in the membrane of mitochondria from the inter to the outer compartment.

237
Q

What is the function of Na K ATPase during neuronal action potential

A

Restoration and maintenance of the resting potentials. This is achieved by moving three Na+ out of the cell for every two K+ ions that are brought into the cell

238
Q

Where transcription factors bind to?

A

Binding to the promoter or the enhancer of the gene located on the DNA, along with RNA polymerase

239
Q

What is ABC transporter?

A

ATP- binding cassette, They use ATP to transport a variety of different substrates across cell membranes, most common out of cell.

240
Q

What is lipid rafts?

A

Are cholesterol rich domain with composition of carbohydrates, proteins and other lipids found on the cell surface. It is important for signaling receptors.
There are three categories for them.
1. True resident proteins - gpi anchored proteins
2. Signaling proteins GPCR RTK
3. Cytoskeleton proteins/adhesion molecules
Also play important role in the events involved in B cell activation

241
Q

What are the three pressures that work together to regulate filtration in the glomerulus?

A

Glomerular capillary pressure - force filtrate from capillary into bowman’s capsule.
Other two for new promote movement of the filtrate in the opposite direction
Capsular hydrostatic pressure
Blood colloid osmotic pressure

242
Q

How many ATP is made from NADH and FADH2

A

NADH- 10 protons to be pumped, yielding 2.5ATP.
FADH2-6 protons to be pumped, yielding 1.5ATP
4protons pumped per 1 ATP produced

243
Q

What is function of tRNA?

A

Is generally single stranded but folds into a t shape.
It brings the amino acid to growing polypeptide chain by recognizing the codons in an mRNA sequence

244
Q

What is the function of rRNA?

A

Main component of ribosomes
It combines with special proteins to form ribosomes which then read mRNA to form proteins.
Essentially ribosomes contain rRNA and help build proteins

245
Q

What is fibroblast?

A

Is a type of cell that contribute to the formation of connective tissue, fibrous cellular material that supports and connects other tissues or organs in the body. They secrete collagen proteins that help maintain the structural framework of tissues.

246
Q

What cells are involved in gas exchange?

A

Endothelial cells are the cells that are in direct contact with blood and the surrounding matrix so these are the cells that play the most important role in gas exchange

247
Q

What is aldosterone do for the serum level ions?

A

It maintains ionic balance by causing conservation of Na+ and excretion of K+.
Cl- follows Na+movement

248
Q

What is endomembrane system?

A

Is the set of membrane bound organelles that are involved mainly in the modification and transportation of proteins. This include the nuclear envelope, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, vesicles and lysosomes.

249
Q

People with diabetes use which alternative energy sources?

A

Metabolizing fatty acids or protein degradation which can lead to unexplained weight loss and feeling of fatigue. Those alternatives energy sources can cause increase in appetite

250
Q

Indicators change color based on?

A

A specific pH range. The range at which the color change takes place depends on the point at which HIn is converted to ln-, and this depends on the pKa of the indicator.

251
Q

What is shadowing task?

A

It allows one to test for selective attention. Subjects are presented with two different messages, one on their right ear and one in left ear, then they are told to shadow the attended message by repeating it out loud with a delay of a few seconds between hearing a word and repeating the word.

252
Q

Which side of brain is responsible for language and speech?

A

Left hemisphere

253
Q

What is selective attention and divided attention?

A

Selective attention - is demonstrated when many stimuli are present, and a person ignores the non task related stimuli.
Divided attention- is the ability of the brain to attend two different stimuli at the same time.

254
Q

How IQ is score is set and distributed generally?

A

IQ is used to quantitatively measure intelligence. Average IQ is 100 and standard deviation is 15 points. Majority of the population falls within one standard deviation of the mean, meaning 68% of the population falls within that 85 and 115 range.

255
Q

What is thalamus do?

A

Serves as a relay station for information that comes and goes to the cortex. It plays a role in memory.

256
Q

How cocaine effects the brain?

A

It is a stimulant that rapidly enters the bloodstream and penetrates the brain. It ultimately causes a buildup of dopamine. That’s why people experience increased pleasure and motivation. Increased activity in the brain would cause increased glucose consumption.

257
Q

Difference between hormone and neurotransmitters?

A

They are different chemical messengers.
Hormone is secrete by endocrine system and act on distant target cells.
Neurotransmitters are released from the presynaptic nerve terminal in the brain. They move across the synaptic cleft and move to next neuron (aka postsynaptic neuron). (Released by nerve cells)
Hormones effect can be slower to build up but longer lasting.
Neurotransmitters can be fast to act but shorter lasting. It is part of nervous system. Common neurotransmitters are dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine

258
Q

What is shaping?

A

Shaping uses operant conditioning principles to train a subject by rewarding proper behavior and discouraging improper behavior. It is important to do that early to establish proper behavior.
Eg when the person or animal exhibits a behavior that is similar to the target behavior, it is rewarded. This process is repeated as the behavior exhibited closer and closer to the target.

259
Q

What is counter culture?

A

Is a group whose members adopt cultural patterns in opposition to the larger culture

260
Q

What is distal and proximal stimulusv

A

Distal stimulus is the actual physical stimulus, the physically objective dimensions of the viewed object.
The proximal stimulus is the very image that falls on the retina. It is registered nu the sensory receptors

261
Q

What is whole and partial report testing?

A

Partial: A method of testing memory in which only some of the total information presented is to be recalled. It is used to minimize output interference in studies of iconic memory.
Whole report- used in iconic memory in which the participants attempts to recall all the presented information

262
Q

What is word association testing?

A

This requires the subject to respond to a series of words with the first word that comes to mind. This can be used to explore individual differences like thoughts and traits

263
Q

What are the three levels of moral development by kohlberg?

A

Pre-conventional - stage 1- obedience and punishment: behavior driven by avoiding punishment
Stage2- individual interest; behavior driven by self interest and rewards
Conventional - stage 3- interpersonal behavior driven by social approval.
Stage 4- authority -behavior driven by obeying authority and conforming to social order
Post-conventional- stage 5- social contract: behavior driven by balance of social order and individual rights
Stage 6: behavior driven by internal moral principles

264
Q

What is sensitive period?

A

Also referred as critical period, which identifies a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life.

265
Q

What is drive theory for motivation?

A

This theory is based on the principe that organisms are born with certain psychological needs and that is a negative state of tension is created when these needs are not satisfied. When a need is satisfied, drive is reduced and the organisms return to a state of homostasis and relaxation.

266
Q

What is incentive theory of motivation?

A

States external rewards and punishment are primary cause of an individual’s behavior as opposed to internal factors. The most common types of incentives 1. Compensation, 2. Recognition 3. Security.
It could be also following norms of colors and fit in and be accepted

267
Q

What is social epidemiology?

A

It focuses on the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease patterns in population

268
Q

What is difference between cultural capital and social capital

A

Cultural capital refers to knowledge, skill, education and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status.
The social capital is the relationship of people which live and work in a particular society.

269
Q

What is ascribed status?

A

Is the status you receive when you are born, it’s given at birth. Eg Royal family

270
Q

What is social cognitive theory?

A

Suggest that behaviors are learned through observing others and modeling their actions.

271
Q

What is intersectionality?

A

Is a framework that describes how our overlapping social identities relate to social structures of racism and oppression. Intersectionality merges many identity markets including race, class, gender, sexual orientation, age, ethnicity, religion, disability etc to create more truthful and complex identity

272
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

Examines small scales (micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small group

273
Q

What is positive correlation means?

A

Either of them can cause each other. Eg positive correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep. This implies either sleep deprivation causes hunger or hunger causes sleep deprivation

274
Q

What are the stages in Piaget’s stages of
Cognitive development?

A

Sensorimotor 0-2
Preoperational 2-7
Concrete operational 7-11
Formal operational 11 and older

She probably can fuck

275
Q

What is voltage across plates?

A

E*d
E- electric field
d- distance between plates

276
Q

What are the three laws of thermodynamics?

A
  1. Energy can’t be created or destroyed
  2. For a spontaneous process, the entropy of the universe increases
  3. A perfect crystal at zero kelvin has zero entropy
277
Q

How to know which one is image and which is object on thin lens diagram?

A

The image forms where light ends up and the object is where light is coming from.

278
Q

What is difference between convex and concave lens?

A

Convex lens- converging
+f, inverted, real,
If Object placed on; the image will be:
At f - infinity
At 2f - same size as the object
At between 2f and f, larger than object
If object placed at same side as lens, image is upright, virtual and larger than the object
Concave lens- diverging
-f, upright, virtual, smaller than object, image formed between the lens and the object,

279
Q

What is kinetic control and thermodynamic control?

A

Short reaction times favor kinetic control whereas longer reaction times favor thermodynamic reaction control. Kinetic control is fast because activation energy is low. It usually associated with irreversible reactions. Thermodynamics control is preferred for more stable product (lower free energy). If there is lower energy state product can be formed, then it will be formed. This is associated with reversibility.

280
Q

What is phosphorylation?

A

The addition of a phosphate to a molecule or protein. Enzymes that phosphorylate molecules are called kinases. Typically kinases use phosphate from ATP to add to a molecule. So it is transferase enzyme. OH is phosphorylated.
Two kinds of phosphorylation:
1. Substrate level phosphorylation- synthesis of ATP by the direct transfer of phosphate gourd from bight energy intermediate to a molecule of ADP.
2. Oxidative phosphorylation- use of O2 to oxidize electrons carriers NADH/FADH2 in order to generate ATP.

281
Q

What is the reward system of the brain?

A

Are group of structures that are activated whenever we experience something rewarding, such as eating good food, having sex or using addictive drug.
Structures that are considered to be a part of the system are found along the primary dopamine pathways of the brain.
Main neurotransmitters of reward and pleasure is dopamine. It is produced in ventral tegmental area, located in midbrain.
Once dopamine is produced in the VTA, the dopamine is transported to other areas of the brain, through different pathways. Two mains are mesolimbic, and mesocorticol dopamine pathways.
Mesolimbic pathways: dopamine projected on the nucleus accumbens (which is part of complex circuits involving amygdala, hippocampus)

282
Q

When stranger anxiety starts with children?

A

It is a fear of strangers and infants start expressing it around 8 months old.
Newborn to 6 weeks- will only form the beginning of attachment. The babies are ok with being left with unfamiliar people.
Around 6weeks -8 months go through attachment in makings. No separation anxiety yet.
8-18 months - clear cut attachment

283
Q

What is the difference between assimilation vs accommodation?

A

Piaget believed that there 2 basic ways that we can adapt to new experiences and information:
1. Assimilation - new information is added to existing knowledge. Schemas remain the same. Fits into current interpretation of reality.
Eg chef learns new cooking technique. Child sees new type of dog that they never seen before and immediately points to the animal and says dog
2. Accommodation- new information changes or replaces existing knowledge. New schemas may develop, transforms current interpretation of reality.

284
Q

What fMRI measures?

A

Used to measure oxygen levels in specific areas of the brain as a measurement of brain activity. It can be used to defects changes associated with blood flow.

285
Q

Night time or in the dim light which part of eye region is better for clearer view?

A

The object is can be better viewed by the peripheral vision because it is the rods at the edges of the retina, rather than the cones at the center. Fovea is the region in the center of the eye that is responsible for acute vision. It has high density of cones, works well in bright light.

286
Q

What is intelligence? And g factor?

A

It involves the ability to adapt to one’s environment and the capacity to learn from experience.
G factor is the measure of general intelligence.

287
Q

What is correlation means in data?

A

R=0 no correlation
R=1 strong correlation
R=0.38 - partially correlated, potential common factor but with a significant degree of common error factor

288
Q

What is counterbalancing?

A

Is a technique used to deal with order effects when using a repeated measures design. With counterbalancing, the participant sample is divided in half, with one half completing the two conditions in one order and the other half completing the conditions in the reverse order.

289
Q

What is priming?

A

It is a change in response to a stimulus because of a subconscious memory effect. Implicit memory refers to the ability to subconsciously use previous experiences to aid in future tasks. Priming is a key player in implicit memory. Positive priming speeds up the reaction to the stimulus while negative priming slows down the reaction to stimulus. So priming requires implicit memory

290
Q

What is neuroleptics?

A

Also known as antipsychotics (typical one)

291
Q

What is fluid intelligence

A

Is the ability to think on one’s feet, be adaptable, and solve problems using deductive and inductive reasoning. It involves thinking, reasoning, and solving problems in novel situations.

292
Q

What are the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Most common type of dementia. It is a progressive disease beginning with mild memory loss and possibly leading to loss of the ability to carry on a conversation and respond to the environment. It involves parts of brain that control thought, memory, and language. Brain cell connections and the cells themselves degenerate and die.

293
Q

What is difference between Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease?

A

Are both neurological conditions caused by neurodegeneration. They are associated with buildup of certain proteins in the brain.
Alzheimer’s always cause demantia but Parkinson’s - movement disorder can sometimes cause dementia.

294
Q

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Three stage process that describes the physiological changes the body goes through when under stress. Hans selye.
Alarm reaction stage
Resistance stage
Exhaustion stage

295
Q

What is temporal means?

A

Relating to the sequence of time or to a particular time.

296
Q

What is parallel processing

A

In parallel processing, we take in multiple different forms of information at the same time. Like information about space, time, and frequency of events is automatically processed. This is especially important in vision. Eg when you see bus coming toward you, you see it’s color, shape, depth, and motion all at once.

297
Q

What is signal detection theory depends on?

A

Detection of a stimulus depends on both the intensity of the stimulus and the physical/physiological state of individual.

298
Q

What is informal and formal sanctions?

A

Social sanctions are attempts to control behavior. Formal sanctions are written and have official consequences of obeying or disobeying the law. Informal sanctions are actions taken by peers, family members, coworkers, religious leaders or anytime else. Such sanctions are applicable as consequences of obeying or disobeying cultural norms.
Examples: paying fine for littering is a formal negative social sanction. Someone glassing at a person when they litter, which makes them feel guiltily and ashamed is negative, informal social sanctions. Both are meant to be punishment for discouraging behavior which is negative sanction.
Getting a tax credit for being married is a positive formal sanctions and being congratulated and receiving gifts for the same are positive informal sanctions. Both meant to reinforce the socially desirable behavior of getting married.

299
Q

What is Thomas theorem?

A

States: if men define situations as real, they are real in their consequences.
It helps us understand how everyday aspects of our society are socially constructed. For example the country you live in doesn’t actually exist (in the sense that there aren’t lines constructed). Only exists in our minds.

300
Q

What is the social constructionist’ views on gender

A

Gender is defined as social construct. Gender is the division of groups of people by associate roles, expectations and stereotypes in a culture that is shaped by many things. Male and female are considered sex assignments while man and woman are considered genders and gender is spectrum.
Social constructionism view of gender looks beyond categories and examines the intersections of multiple identities and the blurring of the boundaries between essentialist categories.

301
Q

What is mead’s take on me and I in self?

A

He studied self, person’s distinct identity tied is developed through social interaction.
Me component - socialized and conforming aspect of self. Eg studying for exam instead of going to party.
I- spontaneous and less socialized component of self. Eg going party by skipping work.

302
Q

What is the formula for catalytic efficiency

A

Kcat/km

303
Q

What is catalytic efficiency and it’s formula?

A

Kcat/km
Measure how well an enzyme is able to grab its substrate and turn it into product.
Kcat - turnover number (catalytic constant) measures number of molecules of substrate turned over into product per unit time. Vmax/[E] total

304
Q

How hydrolysis reaction changes the hybridization state?

A

Hydrolyzing peptide bond changes it from:
Sp2-sp3-sp2
Substitution reaction is happening. Water is deprotonated becomes OH, which attacks sp2 carbonyl carbon of peptide bond. Which results in sp3 intermediate, unstable and the double bond reforms shortly after. Back to sp2

305
Q

What is the formula for Delta G regarding Delta H and delta S?

A

Delta G=Delta H -TdeltaS
Temperature is in Kevin

306
Q

Which elements are more likely to accept electrons?

A

Best electron acceptors are those with highest electron affinity. Electron affinity increases to the right and up the periodic table.

307
Q

What could a the reason for increased level of hemoglobin in the blood plasma?

A

Red blood cells ruptured or were damaged.

308
Q

What is S phase of cell cycle do?

A

This occurs during interphase, before mitosis or meiosis and is responsible for the synthesis or replication of DNA. In this way, the genetic material of cell is doubled before it enters mitosis or meiosis, allowing there to be enough DNA to be split into daughter cells

309
Q

What is cognitive behavioral therapy?

A

It is first addresses maladaptive behaviors through behavior therapy to systematically modify a person’s behavior. This is followed by sessions designed to foster cognitive change through self-assessments.
CBT therapy usually involves efforts to change thinking patterns. These strategies might include: learning to recognize one’s distortions in thinking that are creating problems and then evaluate them in light of reality.

310
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

Is the amount of air that moves into the lungs during each inspiration. Some of this air doesn’t reach alveoli, the volume of such has in the air passageways (trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles) is called the respiratory dead space.

311
Q

Stages of female egg

A

A female baby is born with all the eggs (oocytes) she will need in her lifetime. These oocytes are arrested in prophase I at the time of birth. So they have already gone though mitosis (fertilization and till birth) and have started meiosis I.
At puberty, each month, some of these oocytes complete meiosis I and start meiosis II. When they are ovulated, they are arrested in metaphase II. Meiosis II completes only when fertilization takes place but the fusion of nuclei of the egg and sperm takes place once meiosis II completes.

312
Q

What is reproductive, respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts have in common?

A

They all have contact with external environment or elements of the external environment. Nostrils, mouth, genital areas, anus. The tissues that exposed to the external environment have mucous membranes which acts as a barrier and stops pathogens from entering the body.

313
Q

What is Vmax measure?

A

Vmax measure max speed at which a concentration of enzymes can work.
Vmax=kcat*[E]
Kcat- speed at single enzyme can work
[E]- concentration of enzyme