Mcat Aamc Flashcards

1
Q

What are the ribosomes numbers for eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotes have 60S 40S =80S
Prokaryotes have 50S 30S =70S
40-60-80
30-50-70

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2
Q

what is myoglobin

A

It is the oxygen binding molecules in muscles and organs. Myoglobin binds to oxygen tighter than hemoglobin which is the oxygen binding molecule in blood.

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3
Q

Which parts of the brain controls involuntary respiration, muscle coordination and hunger?

A

Respiration- brain stem. Chemoreceptors will detect blood pH levels and adjust ventilation rate.
Muscle coordination- cerebellum governs balance n and fine motor movements. It’s main function is maintaining coordination throughout the body.
Hunger- hypothalamus- controls basic drives for hunger, thirst, and sexual attraction.

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4
Q

What is cardiac output formula?

A

Stroke volume x heart rate

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5
Q

What are the two primary factors determine blood pressure?

A

Cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow tension in the blood vessels can either reduce or increase blood flow.

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6
Q

What is role of vasoconstriction in blood pressure?

A

It increases blood pressure. Restricts blood flow to an organ

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7
Q

What is parathyroid hormone and calcitonin do?

A

Parathyroid hormones helps prevent low calcium levels by actin on the bones, intestine, and kidney. Increase in osteoclast.
Calcitonin is a hormones that C cells in the thyroid gland produce and release. It opposes the action of parathyroid hormone. Inhibits the activity of the osteoclasts.
CalcitonIN bring Ca IN to the bone
ParathRoID - parathyroid gets RID of bone

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8
Q

Why do calcium supplement often include vitamin D?

A

The activated form of vitamin D stimulates the absorption of calcium into the blood. It across on small intestine to stimulate the absorption of calcium into the bloodstream.

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9
Q

Vitamin C is required in?

A

Synthesis of bone matrix and bone formation.

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10
Q

What is the function and structure of ribosomes?

A

Made of RNA and protein. It’s function is to read RNA and synthesize protein.
Has two major subunits. Large and small. Both contains protein and rRNA. It is produced in nucleolus. Location of ribosomes determines location of proteins .
Free floating ribosomes- synthesize proteins to be used within the cell.
Membrane bound ribosomes (to ER) - synthesize proteins to be used outside the cell.
Large subunits - amino acids added
Small subunits- read the mRNA

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11
Q

What consists of ectoderm?

A

-Epidermis of skin and its derivatives (including sweat glands, hair follicles,)
- nervous system
- epithelial lining of mouth and anus
- cornea and lens of eye
- sensory receptors in epidermis
- adrenal medulla
- tooth enamel
- epithelium of pineal and pituitary glands

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12
Q

What consists of mesoderm?

A

-notochord
- muscular layer of stomach and intestine
- excretory system
- circulatory and lymphatic systems
- reproductive system (expect germ cell)
- dermis of skin
- lining of body cavity
-adrenal cortex

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13
Q

What consists of endoderm?

A

-epithelial lining of digestive tract
- epithelial lining is respiratory system
- lining of urethra, urinary bladder, and reproductive system
- liver
- pancreas
- thymus
- thyroid and parathyroid glands

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14
Q

What is the structure of acetylcholine?

A

Ester of acetic acid and choline(N connected to 3CH3) It can be broken down by cholineestersses.

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15
Q

What is components of neuromuscular junction?

A

Refers to synapse between a motor neuron and skeletal muscle fiber. It is essential for the contraction of skeletal muscle. The space between the motor neuron and skeletal muscle fiber is synaptic cleft. Skeletal muscle fiber has the motor end plates and junctions folds contain high numbers of ligand gated ion channel receptors for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. End plate potential aka excitatory post synaptic potential EPSP, reaches certain threshold cause opening of Na+ to depolarize the muscle fiber cells. This depolarization starts action potential which will lead to release of Ca+ on the muscle fibers

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16
Q

What is tidal volume of respiration?

A

Volume of air inspired or expired during normal respiration.

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17
Q

Which hormone is responsible for triggering ovulation?

A

Luteinizing hormone

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18
Q

What are the phases for ovarian cycle?

A
  1. Follicular phase, largest dominant follicle is prepared to be released at ovulation. From start of period to ovulation. Follicle stimulating hormone is released. The dominant follicle produces estrogen as it grows which peaks just before ovulation
    2.ovulation, luteinizing hormone causes releases of the egg to occur. Estrogen is dropped after ovulation.
  2. luteal phase - after ovulation, the follicle that held the egg turns into something called corpus luteum. It makes the hormones progesterone and estrogen to support pregnancy. If pregnancy doesn’t occur, corpus luteum breaks down.
    Progesterone supports early pregnancy if egg and sperm connect. If no pregnancy, progesterone drops. Drop in estrogen and progesterone causes menstruation.

OFL -Oh Fucking Lord

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19
Q

What are phases of uterine cycle?

A
  1. Period - endometrium is thinnest during this phase, estrogen and progesterone are typically at their lowest.
  2. proliferative phase- end of period until ovulation. Uterus builds up a thick inner lining while ovaries prepare eggs for release. Estrogen typically rises during this phase. This signals the uterine lining to grow.
  3. secretory phase. Endometrium gets ready to support pregnancy or to break down for menstruation. Progesterone is high,
    UPS -uterine cycle, period, proliferation, secretion.
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20
Q

What is avogadros number?

A

The number of particles per mole of substance.
6.022*10^23

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21
Q

In water carbonate ion turns into?

A

Co3 -2+H2O=HCO3- +OH-

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22
Q

Which metals form green precipitate and why

A

Chromium, iron, nickel. Complex ions containing transition metals are usually colored, it is due to partly filled d orbitals. The electrons in the lower energy d or Ilya absorb visible light to move to the higher energy d orbitals.

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23
Q

What is ionization energy?

A

Is the energy required to remove an electron from the outer shell of an atom. Eg noble gas has a complete outer shell of electrons and therefore it has extremely high ionization energy.

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24
Q

How to find number of protons, electrons and neutrons in an element?

A

Uncharged element has an equal number of positively charged protons and negatively charged electrons.
Mass number is sum of protons and neutrons.

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25
Q

What is the formula for number of possible peptides that contain each of n amino acid?

A

n!
Eg n=3
321

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26
Q

What is the conductivity of covalent bond and ionic bonds?

A

Vast majority of covalent compounds are comprised exclusively of nonmetalic elements and it doesn’t conduct electricity.
Ionic bonds made up of metal and nonmetal. It conduct electricity.

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27
Q

How solution of NaNO3- is basic?

A

It is a salt. Salts that contain group 1 elements are soluble. NO3- is basic because it can take H from water and leaving OH-

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28
Q

What are the solubility rules?

A

Always soluble: sag pants will be nagged
Nitrates NO3-
Acetates C2H3O2-
Group 1 metals
Sulfates SO4-2
Ammonium NH4+
Group 17 (F,Cl etc)
Exceptions:
1. PMS - Pb lead, Mercury Hg, silver Ag. Never soluble with sulfates and group 17
2. Castro bear - Ca, Sr, Ba
Never soluble with sulfates.

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29
Q

What is tautomerism?

A

The isomers interchange into or between one another very easily in order to exist together in equilibrium. During the reaction, proton transfer occurs in an intermolecular fashion. Example is ketone-enol tautomerism. It is constitutional isomers. Have same molecular formula just different connectivity.
Resonance structures are two forms of molecule where the chemical connecting is the same

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30
Q

What is dielectric constant? What is the formula? Examples

A

Is a measure of its ability to store electrical energy.
K=e/e0
E- permittivity of the substance
e0- permittivity of free space
Dielectric materials has weak electrical conductivity but can store an electrical
Energy. Eg water, glass, PVC plastic

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31
Q

What are the three Newton’s laws?

A

Law 1: a body at rest will remain at rest and a body in motion will remain in motion unless it is acted upon by the external force.
Law 2: the force acting on an object is equal to the mass of that object times its acceleration. F=ma
Law 3; for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

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32
Q

What is formula for standard heat of reaction?

A

Delta H=delta H products - delta H reactants

Delta H=delta H bonds broken- delta H bonds formed

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33
Q

What is difference between Hawthorne effect and impression management and social desirability?

A

Hawthorne effect- subjects’ behavior in the STUDY is different because they aware being studied.
Impression management- in any social context, a person will alter their behavior to be that of a more socially acceptable manner. Especially on first date or job interviews.
Social desirability- is wanting to be liked by others therefor will act in ways that we may not agree with but do so to be liked.mostly done on surveys

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34
Q

Difference between escape learning and avoidance learning?

A

Escape learning- you perform an behavior to terminate the ongoing, unpleasant, aversive stimulus. You find a way to escape to get rid of unpleasant condition. DURING undesirable stimulus.
Avoidance learning- you avoid yourself from an threat or something that is unpleasant. Like when you heard a gun shot nearby, you are trying to escape this situation. BEFORE undesirable stimulus .

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35
Q

What is the difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning

A

The main difference between them is that classical conditioning associates with involuntary behavior with the stimulus while operant conditioning associates voluntary action with a consequence. They both are forms of associative learning using a behavioral approach.
Classical conditioning- is the procedure of learning to associate an unconditioned stimulus that already brings about an involuntary response, or unconditioned response, with a new, neutral stimulus so this new stimulus can also bring about the same response. The new stimulus then becomes conditioned stimulus and newly learned behavior is the conditioned response.

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36
Q

What is marginal poverty?

A

Involves lacking stable employment. An individual can’t maintain a steady job or find steady job.

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37
Q

What is fundamental attribution error?

A

Describes the tendency to over value internal (dispositional, personality based) and under value external (situational) explanations for another person’s behavior.

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38
Q

Differences between replication of gene and transcription of a gene?

A

Replication the DNA doesn’t necessarily mean it will produce the protein. Replication is not part of the central dogma.
Transcription is first big process of producing functions proteins

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39
Q

What are highly proliferative cells?

A

Cell proliferation occurs as a cell grows and divides into two daughter cells through cell divisions. This complex and highly regulated process increases cell number and allows for the replenishment of cells in healthy, normal tissue. Certain types of cells have different degrees of cell proliferation.
Non highly proliferation cells - human cardiac muscle cells and neuron cells can’t be replaced or go under cell divisions once they are made during embryonic development
Highly proliferation cells- cells with short lifespans that need to be constantly replaced by cell proliferation such as blood cells and epithelial skin cells. Those cells don’t just proliferate themselves, they replaced by the proliferation of stem cells.
While this process is vital in healthy tissues, cancer cells also use proliferation to divide and spread.
Intestinal epithelial cells have the highest proliferation rate in adult humans. As a type of lining, these cells are commonly damaged and need replacement due to the pathogen, high PH, and harsh environments they endure. Also kidney, liver, breast, skin fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells and endothelial cells that line blood vessels.

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40
Q

What are the mechanism of uncontrolled cell growth?

A

Increase of oncogenes -
RAS gene - cell growth proteins for G1/S increase Cdk 2 and cycline
Myg gene- cell growth, cell survival, cell activity.
Decrease in tumor suppressor gene.
p53 - damaged DNA produces p53 which acts like transcription factor. It makes proteins for cell arrest. (P21) which inhibits CDK and cyclin.
Also releases proteins for DNA repair. Also proteins for apoptosis.
APC, barca1/2

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41
Q

What is feedback inhibition and where this could happen in glycolysis

A

Feedback inhibition involves the use of a reaction product to regulate its own further production. Phosphofructokinase is the main enzyme that is controlled in glycolysis.
It is allosterically inhibited by ATP, citrate, or more acidic pH.
It is allosterically activated by AMP

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42
Q

What is the difference between rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Rough ER- ribosomes on surface. Pack and process proteins made by ribosomes
Smooth ER- no ribosomes, synthesize lipids, phospholipid and steroids

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43
Q

All cells whether eukaryotic or prokaryotic have?

A

Cell membrane
Cytoplasm
Genetic material

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44
Q

Where ribosomes are made

A

In the nucleolus of the cell.

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45
Q

Transcription factors needs to be inside of?

A

Nucleus. So it must enter the nucleus and proteins that are translocated into the nucleus usually contain a nuclear localization sequence

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46
Q

Ubiquitination means?

A

It targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome.
Ubiquitin protein covalently linked to lysine residue of the protein. Those proteins can be misfolded, toxic, or no use in the cell.

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47
Q

Blood from small intestine go to which organ next

A

Liver which regulates nutrients distribution and removes toxins from blood. It removes ammonia, alcohol and drugs or toxins by metabolizing them.

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48
Q

What is endosome

A

Endosomes are a heterogenous collection of organelles that function in sorting and delivery of internalized material from the cell surface and the transport of material from the golgi to the lysosome or vacuole.

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49
Q

What is the difference between endosome, lysosome and phagosome?

A

Lysosome - has hydrolytic enzymes in a low pH condition. Main degrading enzymes provided by this.
Endosome- hydrolytic enzyme containing compartment but it is formed due to the invagination of the cell membranes.
Phagosome- hydrolytic enzyme in low pH but utilization of small vesicles. Phagocytosis- gulfing the bacteria and becomes phagosome and gets together with lysosome to get degraded.
Autophagocytosis- contain own damaged organelles and gets together with lysosome

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50
Q

What is open reading frame?

A

Sequence of DNA that be translated into protein. This stretch of DNA sequence that has initiation point of translation and termination point of translation and some genes in between to be translated to protein. Start codon- ATG, stop codon- TGA, TAG, TAA. Insertion of nucleotide to open reading frame makes frame shift mutation and can change the reading frame. Proteins translated from N terminus to C terminus, so we add extra nucleotide, we expect C terminus to change.

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51
Q

What is Bernoulli’s principe says and how it is connected to Venturi effect?

A

When a fluid speeds up, it’s pressure goes down.
P1+pgh+1/2pv2= P2+pgh+1/2pv2
Venturi effect refers constriction in the pipe will lead to lower pressure.
V1/t1=V2/t2
It can get lower than atmospheric pressure which will lead to atmospheric pressure to pulled into the constricted section of the pipe. (How oxygen mask work)

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52
Q

Equilibrium constant is bigger than 1 means?

A

Delta G=-RTlnK
Big K (larger than1), the natural log must be positive, so overall reaction is spontaneous and delta G -

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53
Q

What is the difference between covalent and coordinate covalent bonds?

A

Covalent - electrons are equally shared, donating one electron each to make that bond. Eg Br-Br
Coordinate covalent bond- one donates 2 electrons. One doesn’t donate anything. Electron pair comes from one atom. One has lone pair. And on has empty space.
Eg: between Ag and NH3
H2O+H+=H3O

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54
Q

What is classification number for ionic, covalent bonds?

A

EN differences more than 2 -ionic bond
EN differences less than 1.7 - covalent
Covalent can be polar or non polar
EN differences more than 0.5 polar
EN differences less than 0.5 non polar

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55
Q

What Kinsey scale measures?

A

Sexuality. Exclusive homosexual is 6. 0 is exclusively heterosexual.
. The Kinsey scale scores a 6, as exclusively homo-sexual. A score of 3 would equate to bisexuality.

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56
Q

Adding or removing proton vs electrons?

A

Removing or adding proton can’t be happen because it changes the identity of any element. Electrons can be transferred because they are not in the nucleus.

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57
Q

What is primary structure of amino acid look like and secondary and tertiary?

A

NH2-amino acid 1-amino acid 2…..COOH
Linked together by peptide bond
-C=O-NH-
Secondary structure is made from hydrogen bonds between the backbones of amino acids. Hydrogen bond is between backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens. NH-O=C
Tertiary - arrangement of protein in 3D space. It has hydrogen bond, dissulfide bond and hydrophobic interaction and ionic bond. Tertiary and quaternary structures are stabilized by side chain interactions

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58
Q

Energy conversions of battery powered resistive circuit?

A

Battery -redox reaction which is chemical energy. It is converted to electric current. When current is running, heat is going to dissipate as we have resistance. (Thermal)

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59
Q

What is the equation for work done on elastic object?

A

W=1/2*kx^2
k -elastic constant
x- length stretched

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60
Q

What are the structures of glycerol and fatty acid look like?

A

Glycerol- H2C-CH-CH2 each has OH connected.
Fatty acid: HOOC-R (carboxylic acid and R group)

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61
Q

What is difference between ionization energy and electron affinity and electron negativity?

A

Electron affinity is the energy change that results from adding an electron to a gaseous atom. Eg when a fluorine atom in the gaseous state gains an electron to for F-, the associated energy change is -328kJ/mol. Because this value is negative, energy is released, and electron affinity of F is favorable. N and noble gases on the other hand is 0 and not favorable.
Ionization energy- the energy required to remove an electron from an isolated gaseous atom is the ionization potential. The reactivity of metal depends on the it’s ionization potential.
Electron negativity - a measure of an atom’s ability to attract shared electrons to itself.

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62
Q

How Molecular weight is related to number of moles in gas?

A

The volume of the gas depends only on the number of moles of gas present and not on the identity of gas. At constant pressure, the volume will increase with temperature. Compounds with higher molecular weight will have lower volume because of fewer mole compared to the molecules that have lower molecular weight.

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63
Q

How phase diagram for water in varies pressure and temperature?

A

Y axis- pressure
X axis- temperature
It goes from: solid, liquid, gas

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64
Q

What is ksp measure?

A

The amount of a substance that will dissolve in water. Excess of ksp, precipitate would form

65
Q

How constructive and destructive interference work between two sources?

A

If Two sources started in phase:
One wavelength is one revolution. So 360 degrees would be one wavelength
DelaX=x1-x2=0, one wavelength, 2 wavelengths—> constructive
Half wavelength is 180 degrees
DelaX=x1-x2=half wavelength, 3wavelenght/2, 5wavelenght/2 —> destructive
If the sources starred out of phase is opposite.

66
Q

What is period in wave?

A

Period is the time it takes to complete one cycle of the wave. Bosood middle 0 (0 displacement point) g buuj tuulad ahij bosoj ireh

67
Q

Thick and thin filament made out of?

A

Thick filament - myosin makes up the thick filament
Thin filament- actin, tropomyosin, troponin (ca 2+ binding site)

68
Q

Muscle is made of which subunits?

A

Myofibril and myofibrils contains many sarcomeres. Myofibril is like train and sarcomeres are like individual train carts.
Sarcomeres are the contractile units of cardiac and skeletal muscles.
Sarcomeres are separated by Z desk. Middle of the sarcomere there is M line.
Thick filament- H zone
Think filament - I zone
Thick and thick+thin together - A band
Bands move in contraction:
H zone is gone,
I band is smaller
A band is proportionally bigger
From HAI to Ai (for memorization)
Distance between Z line becomes closer
* within a sarcomere, the microfilament length remains stable because one end of the microfilament is anchored in the Z line, and the + ends are capped by another protein.

69
Q

How antibiotic resistance can occur?

A

The short generation time, random mutations, and genetic recombination allow bacteria to have a higher likelyhood of acquiring antibiotic resistance.

70
Q

What is appendix?

A

Is a finger line shaped small pouch attracted to the cecum of large intestine. Cecum is connected to ileum of small intestine.
The appendix is continuous with the colon so that bacteria can move between them

71
Q

Endosymbiotic theory suggests that outer and inner membrane of mitochondria comes from where?

A

It suggests that mitochondria are descendants of prokaryotes that were engulfed by endocytosis into a vesicles line with membrane derived from the cell membrane of eukaryotes host which is the outer membrane. The inner membrane is the plasma membrane of the prokaryotes.

72
Q

What sympathetic nervous system to do the digestive system

A

Directly inhibit peristalsis and secretion of digestive enzymes. It also causes dilation of blood vessels that supple the deep muscle and internal organs which aids nutrient delivery to those tissues. However it doesn’t directly affect activity of digestive enzymes

73
Q

How Blood flows from arteries and veins?

A

Blood flows from arteries to capillaries and then to veins. If blood clot forms in veins then hydrostatic pressure of capillaries will increase because blood will accumulate in the capillaries which can be fixed by increasing the net fluid flow into the interstitial space.

74
Q

What are the different stages of cell cycle?

A

Cell cycle is divided into 2 major parts:
1. Interphase
-Starts with G1- cellular contents, excluding the chromosomes, are duplicated.
G1 also functions as sort of check point for interphase. If the cell wants to continue grow then it proceeds to mitotic division and move pass the G1. If cell wants to remain dormant; it can be remain arrested in G1. Cells alpha can be arrested in different stage called G0. The difference between G1 and G0 is that G1 arrest is usually reversible and G0 usually not.
- S phase- each of the 46 chromosome is duplicated by the cell.
-G2- the cell double checks the duplicated chromosomes for error, making any needed repairs.
2. Mitosis

75
Q

How does parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system regulate pupil size?

A

Parasympathetic- use circular muscle of the Iris to constrict pupil. acetylcholine released at motor synapse in PS division.
Eg opiates increase impulse traffic along the nerves, acetylcholine is release causes pupils to constrict which can be diagnose sign of opiate intoxication.
Sympathetic - use radial muscles to dilate pupils. It releases norepinephrine which dilated the pupils.

76
Q

Parasympathetic system directly intervane the heart to cause cardiac slowing through?

A

Motor fibers of the vagus nerve. Sensory fibers carry information from the heart to the central nervous system.

77
Q

Which ANS division expected to produce more rapid systemic response (whole body)?

A

Sympathetic because it’s ganglia are interconnected. Parasympathetic ganglia are not interconnected

78
Q

Which organisms have cell wall? What does it do? What is it made out of in different species?

A

Cell wall is found in the plant cell, fungi, bacteria only. It protects the cell from the external shocks and also provide rigidity and shape to the cell. Cell wall is the outermost boundary of the cell, and plasma membrane is present in the inner lining of cell.
Plant cell wall made up of cellulose.
Fungal cell wall made up of chitin
Bacterial cell wall made up of peptidoglycan

79
Q

Blood pressure points in the body, from highest to lowest?

A

Blood pressure is highest when it leaves the heart through large arteries. Then small arteries and arterioles. Mid level pressure is going to be capillaries and the lowest would be venules, veins and vena cava.

80
Q

What is adaptive radiation?

A

Adaptive radiation involves the divergence of one species into multiple species over time, which can occur when subgroups of the original species are separated or isolated in different environments so that these subgroups evolve independently of one another.
The rapid evolution of diversely adapted species from a common ancestor when a change in environment:
1. Makes new resources available
2. Creates new challenges
3. Opens new environmental niche
May follow:
Mass extinctions
Evolution of novel characteristics
Colonization of new habitats

81
Q

Which species has the greatest attraction to electron in ETC?

A

Oxygen. It is final electron acceptor

82
Q

Decrease in progesterone level in uterine cycle will lead to?

A

Menstruation. Progesterone is often called pregnancy hormone. It prepares the uterus for implantation and if pregnancy doesn’t occur, progesterone levels decreases and leads to menstruation

83
Q

What are the two hormones that involved in lactation?

A

Prolactin- stimulate milk production
Oxytocin- triggers cell the cells to squeeze the milk from breast.

84
Q

How increased testosterone level reduce spermatogenesis?

A

Excess testosterone acts as negative feedback loop that acts on the hypothalamus to prevent the release of GnRF, which would decrease FSH and LH. FSH decrease acts on Sertoli cells which provide nutrients and protects developing sperm.
Two hormones that directly stimulate Sertoli cells are FSH and testosterone

85
Q

What is analogous in males with ovum in females?

A

Spermatozoon. Ovum is female gamete that has completed meiosis and contains haploid number of maternally derived chromosomes.

86
Q

What are the stages of production of mature spermatozoa?

A

Spermatogonium—> (4mitotic division) -> primary spermatocytes—>(first meiotic division)—> secondary spermatocytes—>(second meiotic division)—>spermatids—> differentiation—> spermatozoa

87
Q

What is difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?

A

Exocrine glands secrete their products through ducts and endocrine glands release their products into the bloodstream

88
Q

What is glomerulus?

A

Is the site in the nephron where fluid and solutes are filtered out of the blood to form a glomerular filtrate. Network of capillaries. It is different from other capillaries because blood flows from its it afferent arteriole to the efferent arteriole. The blood will go through ultrafiltration barrier (like kitchen strainer). Only certain size will go through this. It is also charge selective because it has - charges. Eg uric acid filtered here.

89
Q

Where uric acid is goes through process of filtration?

A

In Glomerulus.

90
Q

How phagocytosis and microtubules related?

A

Phagocytosis requires that the cell change shape dramatically as it surrounds and engulfs large extracellular particles. Microtubules are one the cytoskeletal elements that help determine cell shape. This function relies on the ability of the microtubules to disassemble and reorganize

91
Q

How mutation and cancer are related?

A

Mutations are changes to the base sequence of DNA which are not intended. These mutations can lead to genetic variation. They can be inherited and have positive effect or they can disrupt regular gene activity and cause diseases like cancer.

92
Q

What could be the danger of anti inflammatory drugs?

A

The proliferation of inflammatory cells including T cells, B cells and other leukocytes, helps in fighting infections. Therefore anti inflammatory drugs has the potential of reducing their ability to fight an infection.

93
Q

Some differences between arteries, veins and capillaries

A

Only veins have valves
Only certain types of arteries dilate or constrict to regulate blood
Exchange of nutrients with the surrounding tissues occurs only in capillaries.

94
Q

What is pancreas produces?

A

Several Proteolytic enzymes which are released into the small intestine where the are converted to their active forms of trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase. Also contains enzymes such as amylase, lipase, ribonucleases.

95
Q

What is hydropathy index measure?

A

Presence of transmembrane segment in a protein can be confirmed by plotting the hydropathy index. It plots using linear segment of a protein. 20 amino acid window is used to plot the index.
Positive numbers mean hydrophobic
Negative numbers mean hydrophilic

96
Q

Which ones are independent variable and dependent variable on a graphs

A

Independent- x axis
Dependent - y axis

97
Q

G protein coupled receptors, its structure and function?

A

It is only in eukaryotes. Largest known membrane receptors. Can regulate the immune system, growth, sense of smell, taste, visual, behavioral and our mood. Including dopamine, serotonin.
Structure: receptors 7 transmembrane alpha helices.
G proteins are Heterotrimeric- has 3 different subunits.
1. Alpha subunit binds to GDP when it is inactive
2. Beta subunit
3. Gamma subunit
G proteins bind to GTP or GDP that is why it is called G protein.
Receptors bind to very specific one or few signaling molecules in lock and key method way. (GPCR Makes conformational change). This lead to alpha subunit to change GDP to GTP. Alpha subunit then dissociates from the other two subunits and regulates target protein. The target proteins then relay signal via 2nd messenger. GTP hydrolyzes to GDP.
Eg epinephrine and norepinephrine
After alpha changing GDP- GTP, adenylate cyclase protein is activated and binds to alpha subunit. This protein then takes ATP and produce cAMP which is the 2nd messenger. This messenger tell our body to do things like increase heart rate; dilate blood vessels, break down glycogen.

98
Q

How cell death can happen?

A
  1. Necrosis -usually caused by injury. Eg cardiac cells during heart attack due to decreased blood flow and oxygen. Necrosis brings cell injury which leads to impaired metabolism, disrupted ion balance which leads to swelling of the cell. Lysosomal enzymes leak out of the cell into the cytoplasm. Which breaks down other cell organelles.
  2. Apoptosis - more tightly regulated and initiated by specific triggers. Programmed cell death. It can be initiated by 2 pathways.
  3. Intrinsic -regulated by proteins from the bcl family which contain pro apoptotic and anti apoptotic members. Body cells have chemical sensors that react to cell damage. Once activated there is shift in a balance between pro and anti proteins. Pro apoptotic will activate Bac and bak which form pores in the mitochondrial membrane leading to release of cytochrome C which activates caspases (a class of protein degrading enzymes mediates cell death.
  4. Extrinsic -initiated by receptors of cell surface. Eg FAs receptor. Things that can bind are CD8 T cells or TNF. After binding it initiates caspases activation.
    Apoptosis: cytoskeleton degradation, DNA cleave by endonucleases, digestion of organelles, cell starts to shrink and apoptotic bodies form.
    It doesn’t elicit inflammation.
99
Q

What specific enzyme activity do?

A

Important measure of enzyme purity and values for different batches of a pure enzyme should be same, within normal experimental error.
- is the number of enzyme units per ml divided by the concentration of protein in mg/ml. So values units/mg or nmol/min/mg

100
Q

What is difference between ethnicity and race?

A

Ethnicity classifies by culture whereas race classifies by physical characteristics.
Ethnicity- categorization of people based on culture and ancestry.
Race- categorization of people based on perceived physical characteristics

101
Q

What is social stigma?

A

An attribute that is devalued. It is derived from the symbolic interactionist perspective in sociology and calls attention to how certain individuals or groups face social disapproval. Often the social disapproval is associated with a behavior, identity or other attribute that is considered deviant by others.
Eg when aids first broke, it was highly stigmatized, so not hiring hiv positive people because they are seen as deviant

102
Q

What is anomie? Associated with which theoretical paradigm?

A

Associated with the functionalist theoretical paradigm in sociology. It describes the alienation that individuals feel when social norms and social bonds are weak. Without attachment to society, people will experience purposelessness and aimlessness. Periods of rapid social change are often associated with anomie

103
Q

What is looking glass self? And which paradigm it is belong to?

A

It is line with the symbolic interactionist paradigm. It suggest that the self concept is more than just the product of self reflection. Instead, the way in which people see themselves is based on how they believe others perceive them during social interactions.

104
Q

What is labeling theory?

A

A theory of social behavior which states that the behavior of human beings is influenced significantly by the way other members in society label them. Labeling theory calls attention to the power that stereotypes can have in determining how individuals are perceived.

105
Q

What is the pathway that the nerve impulse travel in knee jerk reflex?

A

Sensory- motor neuron. It is simple monosynaptic stretch reflex. Sensory neuron that directly synapses with a motor neuron in the spinal cord, causing the quadriceps to contract

106
Q

What is endocytosis and exocytosis?

A

Endocytosis is the process by which cells engulf extracellular material. It involves cells taking in substances from outside the cell by engulfing them in a vesicle derived from the cell membrane. These can include taking things like nutrients to support cell or pathogens that immune cells engulf and destroy or disposing of old or damaged cells. Eg white blood cells engulfing a virus and eliminating it.
Two types: phagocytosis and pinocytosis
Exocytosis is the process by which cells move materials from within cell into the extracellular fluid. It occurs when a vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane allowing its contents to be released outside the cells.
Functions:
1. It removes toxins or waste profits form the cell’s interior.
2. Facilitating cellular communication
3. Facilitating cellular membrane growth, repair, signaling and migration
Types: regulated and constitutive.
Eg releasing a neurotransmitter for cellular communication

107
Q

What is actor observer bias?

A

It refers to the actor’s tendency to explain his/her own behavior by situational factors whereas the observer tends to explain the actor’s behavior by internal stable traits.

108
Q

What is the highest response rate schedule?

A
  1. Variable ratio schedule.
    Then
  2. fixed ratio - relatively high response rate with predictable pauses after reinforcement.
  3. Variable interval - fluctuating response with a predictable increase in responding right after reinforcement
  4. Fixed interval - relatively low response rate with a predictable increase in responding right before reinforcement
109
Q

What is diathesis-stress model?

A

Also known as the vulnerability stress model, is theory that explain a disorder or trajectory as the result of an interaction between a predispositional vulnerability, the diathesis, and stress caused by life experiences.

110
Q

What is beck’s cognitive model?

A

Hypothesis that people’s emotions and behaviors are influenced by their perceptions of events.

111
Q

What happens to the body during each stage of sleep?

A

B- beta, awake (you beta stay awake)
A- alpha, getting drowsy
T- theta, N1 can experience hypnagogic hallucinations, hypnic jerk.
N2-theta, k complexes and sleep spindle
D- delta waves N3/N4, deep sleep. Sleep walk, bed wetting can occur. Regular breathing, regular heart rate; slow brain waves
B- beta, REM, although your brain is awake, your movement is paralyzed.

112
Q

What is self concept and incongruence?

A

It belongs humanistic theory. Incongruence is the difference between the ideal self and actual experiences. Congruence is when our thoughts about our real self and ideal self are very similar. High congruence leads to a greater sense of self worth and a healthy, productive life.

113
Q

What is the equation for equivalence point?

A

NV=NV
N-normality =Mnumber of ions
Eg. 2M Ba(OH)2 - 2M
2ions of OH

114
Q

Faraday is equal to how many moles of electric charge?

A

1faraday is equal to 1mole of electric charge.

115
Q

What is habituation?

A

Refers to loss of response to a repeating stimulus.

116
Q

What is equation for difference in pressure in terms of 2 floors that has different height?

A

P=density* g*h
If it is within the small atmospheric height difference.

117
Q

Nearsighted individual can focus on? And can’t focus on? What lens it require?

A

They can focus on nearby objects but can’t clearly see objects far away. The nearsighted eye has focal length that is shorter than it should so the rays from a distant object form a sharper image in front of the retina. It requires diverging lens

118
Q

What electromotive force? How to related to terminal voltage?

A

It is the potential difference of a source when no current is flowing. Terminal voltage is the voltage output of device is measured across its terminals. Electric potential differences creates an electric field that exerts force on charges, causing current.
V=E-IR
E- electromotive force
V- terminal voltage
E is being reduced by the voltage required to overcome the internal resistance

119
Q

How light can be traveled through transparent material with minimum loss of amplitude

A

Light can be carried along a distance within a transparent material by means of total internal reflection.

120
Q

What is refraction ? How it bends depending on the medium density?

A

The bending of light rays when it travels from one medium to another.
When light travels from less dense to more dense medium, the rays refracted close to the normal.
When light travels from dense to less dense medium, the rays will refract away from the normal.

121
Q

What is critical angle? And what is total reflected internally?

A

When light travels from dense medium to less dense medium, certain incident ray will cause 90degree refracted angle. This angle is called critical angle.
In order to cause critical angle:
1. Incident angle in more denser medium.
2. Refraction angle is 90 degrees.
When rays of incident angle is more than the critical angle, total internal reflection happens. Totally reflected in same medium. And no refraction.
In order for total internal reflection;
1. Light travels dense medium to less dense medium
2. Incident angle>critical angle

122
Q

What is attachment theory? What are the four stages of attachment? And what are the primary four types of attachment?

A

Describes the dynamics of long term relationship between humans. Attachment in infants it primarily a process of proximity-seeking to an identified attachment figure in situations of perceived distress or alarm for survival.
John bowlby conceived four stages of attachment.
1. Preattachment (birth till 6 weeks)
2. Attachment in the making (6weeks to 8months)
3. Clear cut attachment (8months to 18months)
4. Formation of reciprocal attachment (18months-2 years)
Mary Ainsworth identified four primary types of attachment.
1. Secure - infant parent bond that is characterized by some separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to seek contact with the parent after separation.
2. Avoidant -an insecure infant parent bond that is characterized by little separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to resist contact with the parent.
3. Resistant/ambivalent - infant parent bond that is characterized by strong separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to resist contact with the parent after separation.
4. Disorganized attachment - a confused infant parent bond that is characterized by mixed separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to resist and have a dazed behavior.

123
Q

What is ID, Ego and superego?

A

Id- only one that present from birth, entirely unconscious and includes instinctive and primitive behaviors. (Deep inside the iceberg). It is driven by pleasurable principle which strives for immediate gratification of all desires, wants and needs. Going infants ruled by entirely by the id. Although people eventually learn to controls the id, this part of personality remains the same infantile, primal force throughout life. It is the development of the ego and the superego that allows people to control the id’s basic instincts and act in ways that are both realistic and socially acceptable.
Ego- develops from the id and ensures that the impulses of the id can be expressed in a manner acceptable in the real world. It functions in conscious, pre conscious and unconscious mind. It deals with reality, operates based on reality principle which strives to satisfy the id’s desires in realistic and socially appropriate ways. Having a strong ego means having strong sense of self awareness. Id is like horse and ego is horse rider. Eg when you are hungry in a meeting, id wants to get up and eat something. Ego will guides to sit quietly and wait for the meeting to finish. Instead you can imagine yourself eating something yummy and once meeting finish you go and eat.
Superego- begins to emerge at around age 5. Holds internalized moral standard and ideals that we acquire from our parents and society. (Sense of right and wrong).
It has 2 parts:
1. The conscience - includes information about things that are viewed as bad by parents and society.
2. Ego ideal - includes rules and standards for behaviors that ego aspires to. It tries to perfect and civilize our behavior. It suppresses all id’s unacceptable urges and struggles to make the ego act upon idealistic standards rather than on realistic principles. It is present in the conscious, preconscious, and unconscious. Eg if you give in to the urges of the id, the superego is what will cause you to feel a sense of guilt or even shame your actions. It demand that one perform to their highest possible standard.

124
Q

Avoiding social gatherings because a person is feeling inferiority is what kind of operant condition?

A

Positive punishment. It decreased the social gathering by introducing an aversive stimulus.
Negative punishment would be decreasing behavior by removing an appetitive stimulus.

125
Q

What is max Weber’s ideal bureaucracy?what are the examples of such organizations? And it’s weakness?

A
  1. Fixed division of labor among participants
  2. Hierarchy of offices
  3. Set of general rules that govern performance
  4. Rigid separation of personal life from work life
  5. Selection of personnel on the basis technical qualifications and equal treatment of all employees.
  6. Participants view employment as a career, tenure protects against unfair arbitrary dismissal.
    Eg government agencies, military, schools, factories,
    Weakness: red tape- overemphasis on structure, policies, and procedures slows or prevents needed action.
    Iron cage- people were trapped in calculated systems that pursue efficiency and control that threatened individuals freedom.
126
Q

What are the stages of Erik Erickson’s stages of psychosocial development?

A

Personality develops in a series of stages and is impacted by social experiences across a lifespan.
1. Infancy - birth to 18 months - trust and mistrust
2. Early childhood- 2-3 years, autonomy vs shame and doubt.
3. Preschool 3-5, initiative vs guilt,
4. School age 6-11, industry vs inferiority
5. Adolescence 12-18, identity vs role confusion,
6. Young adulthood- 19-40- intimacy vs isolation
7. Middle adulthood- 40-65, generativity vs stagnation
8. Maturity -65-death, ego integrity or despair.

127
Q

What is social transmission?

A

Refers to the transmission of values and practices from one generation to another.

128
Q

What is cultural diffusion?

A

Indicates the mutual exchange of cultural values and practices among cultural groups in a society or among societies

129
Q

What is elaboration likelihood model?

A

It focuses on the roles of central and peripheral characteristics of communication in changing individuals attitudes.
Central processing- occurs when the central characteristics of a message, such as its information content and the quality of its arguments are used to form an attitude.
Peripheral characteristics- refers to the message characteristics that are not central information and arguments presented in the message. Like emotional appeals made to the audience or characteristics of individual presenting the message. It occurs when peripheral characteristics drive an individuals processing and attitude formation in a given social setting.

130
Q

What is absolute threshold?

A

Refers to the smallest amount of physical stimulation required to detect a sensory input half the time it is present

131
Q

What is vertical and horizontal social mobility?

A

Vertical mobility- which is the movement of individuals or groups up or down from one socioeconomic levels to another, often changing jobs or through marriage. Eg person losing her job, selling her home and move into apartment
Horizontal mobility- which is the movement from one position to another within the same social level, as when someone changes between two equally prestigious occupations. Eg a person who moves from a managerial position in one company to a similar position in another.

132
Q

What is differential association theory?

A

Focuses on how an individual might learn behaviors, that are considered as deviant in larger society, from their close social surroundings.

133
Q

What is social strain theory?

A

Describes how people react to social constraints to achieving goals. Social inequality can create situations where people experience tension (or strain) between the goal’s society says they should be working toward (like financial success) and the legitimate means they have available to meet those goals.

134
Q

What is operational definition or opertionapization?

A

Is the process of turning abstract concepts or ideas into observable and measurement phenomena. This process is often used in the social sciences to quantify vague or intangible concepts and study them more effectively

135
Q

What is demand characteristics?

A

Are cues that might indicate the aim of a study to participants. These cues can lead to participants changing their behaviors or responses based on what they think the research is about.

136
Q

What is antagonism?

A

(Like low on agreeableness) involves callous or antisocial traits as well as grandiosity and attention seeking. They speak out against other because, according to them, they know more than anyone else. Agreeableness are empathetic and helpful.

137
Q

What is the big 5 personality traits?

A

Openness- creativity and intrigue, openness to experience, eager to learn new things and enjoy new experiences.
Conscientiousness- thoughtfulness, good impulse control and goal directed behaviors. Pays attention to details, finishes important task right away, enjoys having set of schedule. Plans ahead
Extroversion- sociability, enjoys being center of attention, likes to start conversations, enjoys meeting new people, find easy to make new friends, say things before thinking about them.
Agreeableness -kindness, affectionate, has great deal of interest in people, feels empathy and concern for others, assists others in need.
Neuroticism - sadness or emotional stability, experience mood swings, anxiety, irritability and sadness. Experiences lot of stress, worries about many things, gets upset easily, struggles to bounce back after stressful events

138
Q

What is neural plasticity?

A

Refers to the ability of the nervous system to modify itself, functionally and structurally, in response to experience or injury.

139
Q

What is xenophobia?

A

Refers to the fear and suspicion towards culture perceived to be foreign.

140
Q

What is scapegoating?

A

Is the practice of singling out a person or group for unmerited blame and consequent negative treatment. Eg a women has just had a fight with her boyfriend may kick her dog for minor misbehavior. The dog becomes the scapegoat and pays the price for the fight she had.

141
Q

What is the difference between partial reinforcement vs continues reinforcement?

A

Continues reinforcement refers to reinforcing every response emitted by an individual. Partial reinforcement occurs when only some of the responses emitted by an individual are reinforced. Continues reinforcement is associated with faster acquisition but quicker extinction. Partial reinforcement is associated with slower acquisition and slower extinction

142
Q

What is stimulus discrimination

A

Refers to a stimulus-controlled behavior occurring in response specifically to the original controlling stimulus without being elicited by stimuli that resemble the original stimulus. Eg dog is responding to only CS of bell ringing, not to similar sounds. It is opposite of stimulus generalization.

143
Q

What are short chain fatty acid? Where they are produced?Examples?

A

Are fatty acid with fewer than 6 carbon atoms. They are produced when the friendly gut bacteria ferment fiber in your colon and are the main source of energy for the cells lining your colon. Most common types are butyrate, propionate, and acetate.

144
Q

What is beta-branched amino acid? What are they?

A

Alpha carbon is the chiral carbon of amino acid, beta carbon is the carbon next to the alpha carbon. Beta-branched side chain would have branch coming out from the beta carbon. There are three beta branched amino acids: valine, isoleucine, threonine.

145
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

Also known as cotransport, coupled transport. Energy is used to transport molecules across membrane, however unlike primary active transport, no direct coupling of ATP. Instead relies on electrochemical potential difference created by pumping ions in/out of the cell.
2kinds
Antiporter- exchanger, eg Na+ H+ exchanger, Na+ Ca2+ exchanger, 3Na+ in to cell to transport 1Ca out
Symporter- cotransporter, Na+ and Cl- cotransporter. Na+glucose transporter- glucose is transported into the cell with 2Na+ each time.

146
Q

What is enterocytes?

A

Ate intestinal cells that produce enzymes that digest disaccharide in duodenal villi.

147
Q

Which reaction breaks down glycosidic bond?

A

Glycosidic linkages in disaccharide are cleaved via a hydrolysis reaction. Eg lactase

148
Q

What does highly conserved means?

A

From an evolutionary point of view, DNA sequences that are vital to an organism’s life are conserved among species. A highly conserved sequence is one that has remained relatively unchanged far back up the phylogenetic tree.

149
Q

What is transformation, transduction, and conjugation?

A

Transformation- is the process that transfers genetic material from the environment into bacteria.
Transduction- is the process by which nucleic acids are transferred from viruses to cells.
Conjugation- is the exchange of nucleic acids between bacteria.

150
Q

What is ionospheres?

A

Are class of compounds that form complexes with specific ions and facilitate their transport across cell membranes. They typically has a hydrophilic pocket that forms a binding site specific for a particular ion.

151
Q

What is isoelectric pointV

A

Is the pH at which a particular molecule carries no net electrical charge. The ratio of the cationic to anionic functional groups in a protein is always equal to 1

152
Q

What is the equation for Area of triangle?

A

A=1/2bh

153
Q

What is equation for charge and capacitor?

A

Q=VC
Q-charge stored
V- voltage
C-capacitor

154
Q

What is the equation for capacitance?

A

C=EoA/d
C-capacitance
Eo- permittivity of dielectric
A- area of plate
d- distance between plates

155
Q

Which amino acid has imidazole and indole?

A

Histidine- imidazole (his emezendelt)
Tryptophan- indole (tin doll)

156
Q

What is the continuity equation?

A

Av=Av
A- area, circular area=pi*r^2
Radius=diameter/2

157
Q

Enantiomers have same?

A

Same physical and chemical properties including BP, MW, IR spectra. They can differ in smell

158
Q

What is the formula for hydrostatic pressure of liquid?

A

P=densitygh