Mechanical ventilation Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

4 clinical conditions leading to mechanical ventilation?

A
  1. depressed resp drive
  2. excessive ventilator workload
  3. failure of ventilatory pump
  4. impending resp failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Type I resp failure = decreased ____

A

PaO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Type II resp failure = increase ____ and decreased _____

A

PaCO2; PaO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 types of mechanical ventilation?

A
  1. positive pressure

2. negative pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pt is ________ in negative pressure ventilation

A

immobilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In negative pressure ventilation, ________ _____ is applied to the outside of the chest wall

A

subatmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In negative pressure ventilation, chest wall _____ and air flows into lungs, closer to normal lung physiology

A

expands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In + pressure ventilation, pressurized air is _____ into the lungs

A

pushed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 methods of + pressure ventilation?

A
  1. IPPV

2. NIPPV/ NIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mechanical ventilation _____ and ______ effects require monitoring

A

pulmonary; hemodynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

5 pulmonary effects due to mechanical ventilation requiring monitoring?

A
  1. increased V/Q and dead space/ tidal volume ratio
  2. air trapping
  3. barotrauma
  4. pneumothorax / subcutaneous emphysema
  5. resp distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 hemodynamic effects due to mechanical ventilation requiring monitoring?

A
  1. decreased venous return
  2. decreased CO
  3. decreased BP
  4. decreased renal perfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does prophylactic chest physio decrease incidence of ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)?

A

NOPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

5 methods to reduce incidence of VAP?

A
  1. HOB elevation
  2. oral hygiene
  3. DVT and peptic ulcer prophylaxis
  4. daily sedation vacation
  5. reduced frequency of changing vent circuit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Less invasive method of ventilation is always preferred over more invasive (T/F)

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

6 CI’s and precautions to NIC?

A
  1. facial trauma
  2. obstruction to upper airway
  3. hemodynamic instability and multiple organ failure
  4. decreased LOC
  5. undrained pneumothorax
  6. high risk of aspiration and vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

4 non invasive patient interfaces?

A
  1. face mask
  2. nasal mask
  3. nasal cannula
  4. full face mask
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

3 invasive patient interfaces?

A
  1. oral endotracheal tube
  2. nasal endotracheal tube
  3. tracheostomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most patients start with ______ _____ if on NIV

A

oronasal mask`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is biggest factor in choosing type of NIV?

A

patient comfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In IPPV, most adults are intubated with a _____ ____ ______ tube

A

cuffed oral endotracheal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most frequent type of IPPV in infants ?

A

nasal endotracheal tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is pt able to speak with endotracheal tube?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

More sedation is required for tracheostomies than endotracheal tubes (T/F)

A

FALSE - opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Endotracheal tubes ____ dead space; tracheostomies _____ dead space
increase; decrease
26
6 control parameters in ventilation?
1. pressure 2. volume 3. RR 4. pressure support 5. PEEP 6. FiO2
27
You can only control pressure OR volume, not both (T/F)
TRUE
28
By controlling pressure and leaving volume variable, you risk ______ and ______
derecruitment; atelectasis
29
By controlling volume and leaving pressure variable, you risk ______
barotrauma
30
RR = ?
set rate + pt rate
31
Pressure support = pressure given to support _______ breaths
spontaneous
32
Physiological PEEP = __cmH2O
5
33
Therapeutic PEEP can be up to ___ - ___ cmH2O
15-20
34
Humidification is important for _______ clearance
mucociliary
35
Nasal passages act as ____ and ______ exchange
heat; moisture (HME)
36
_____ bypasses upper airway, whereas _____ delivers fast flowing dry gas which overwhelms normal HME mechanisms in upper airway
IPPV;NIV
37
______ = essentially only giving pt PEEP
CPAP
38
Strongest evidence to support CPAP use in which 2 conditions?
1. acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema | 2. COPD
39
CPAP improves FRC (T/F)
TRUE
40
In BiPAP =, _PAP and _PAP are set
I;E
41
BiPAP is more often used in settings that mimic _____ ______ ventilation
pressure support
42
_______ = high flow device that creates PEEP + has active humidification
optiflow
43
Big advantage of optiflow compared to other high flow O2 devices?
FiO2 and Flow are independent of each other
44
PEEP calculation = __cmH2O pressure for each __L/min flow increment
1; 10
45
_______ and ____ _____ ventilation = similar to BiPAP and CPAP with or without pressure support, is used for weaning
spontaneous & pressure support ventilation
46
_____ _____ trials = pt left on enough support to overcome resistance of the circuit and ETT
spontaneous breathing
47
Rapid shadow breathing index = ?
RR/Tv
48
Rapid shadow breathing index > ____ = indicative of weaning failure
105
49
_____ ______ ______ ventilation = periodic targeted breaths that occur at set intervals
synchronized intermittent mechanical (SIMV)
50
SIMV = ____ or ____ controlled
volume; pressure
51
With SIMV, pt can breathe spontaneously b/w mandatory breaths (T/F)
TRUE
52
______ ______ ______ = volume or pressure targeted and patient or time triggered
continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV)
53
Patient triggered CMV is also called _____ ____ and is most frequently used
assist control
54
Time triggered CMV is also called _____ ____ and is known as "full ventilation"
control mode
55
Neurally adjusted ventilatory assist (NAVA) = berths triggered by ____ of ______
EMG; diaphragm
56
In NAVA, the electrode is built into the ________ tube
nasogastric
57
High frequency oscillation = used in some centers for _____ pt's
ARDS
58
Proportional assist ventilation (PAV) = ventilator adjusts flow and volume based on a set _____ ______
minute volume
59
PAV shouldn't be used in difficult to wean pts (T/F)
FALSE
60
Protective lung ventilation is used for ___ tidal volumes and permissive ______
low; hypercapnia
61
Nitric oxide is a pulmonary ______
vasodilator
62
Nitric oxide is used in refractory ________ and pulmonary artery ______
hypoxemia; hypertension
63
_____ reduces resistance to airflow
helium
64
_____ improves ventilation in acute asthma
helium
65
Prolonged ventilation results in resp muscle ______
weakness
66
Important to work on resp muscle ____ and _____
strength; endurance
67
Resp muscle training = ______ training with sufficient _____ periods
submax; rest
68
Role of training with difficult to wean pts?
1. consider timing of rx, discuss with team | 2. specific IMT may be appropriate