Med Study 2 Flashcards

(204 cards)

1
Q

What is incontinentia pigmenti?

A

= an x-linked dominant disorder that causes skin lesions soon after birth

can mimic HSV
has 4 phases of skin lesions that take place over the first few years
also involves dental, hair and nail abnormalities
can be associated with mental disability

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2
Q

This congenital condition mimics HSV in the newborn

A

Incontinentia pigmenti

complicating this is both can cause seizures

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3
Q

Can males and females both present with incontinentia pigmenti?

A

No, only female infants will present with this x-linked dominant disorder, since it is lethal in hemizygous males

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4
Q

Describe the appearance of the first phase of skin lesions in incontinentia pigmenti

A

inflammatory vesicles and bullae all over the trunk and extremities

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5
Q

Supravalvular aortic stenosis, hypersensitivity to loud sounds, major interest and enthusiasm for music, difficulty with certain food textures/clothing textures, hypercalcemia, and mild to moderate intellectual disability =

A

Williams syndrome

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6
Q

Williams syndrome buzz words

A

outgoing social personality
mild intellectual disability
psych issues
aortic stenosis
liking music

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7
Q

“Cocktail party personality” think

A

Williams syndrome

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8
Q

Cause of Williams Syndrome

A

sporadic microdeletion on chromosome 7

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9
Q

Elfin like facies think

A

Williams Syndrome

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10
Q

Williams syndrome genetics

A

microdeletion on chromosome 7

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11
Q

A child has unusual facial features, short stature, pulmonic stenosis, bleeding problems and skeletal malformations but normal or only very mildly impaired intellectual ability. What syndrome does this child have?

A

Noonan Syndrome

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12
Q

Blank is a genetic disorder of connective tissue and is associated with aortic disection/weakness of the aorta, dislocation of the eye’s lens, being tall, and often have pectus deformities and scoliosis.

A

Marfan syndrome

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13
Q

Blank is a systemic vasculitis presenting with a purpuric rash and nephritis

A

IgA vasculitis

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14
Q

What are the PTT and PT in Hemophilia A?

A

PT/INR is normal
PTT is prolonged

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15
Q

In immune thrombocytopenia, what are the PT/INR and PTT?

A

Normal!

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16
Q

What are the PT/INR, PTT and platelets in DIC? (low/normal/high?)

A

PT/INR, PTT are prolonged
and plts are all low

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17
Q

In EBV mono, is it the anterior or posterior cervical lymph nodes that typically get swollen?

A

posterior

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18
Q

Conjunctivitis, exudative pharyngitis, and a morbilliform rash in the summer think

A

adenovirus

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19
Q

Who is most likely to get osteosarcomas?

A

adolescents during growth spurt

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20
Q

Most common presenting symptoms/findings for osteosarcoma

A

pain
swelling, that you can feel on exam

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21
Q

Does an osteoid osteoma usually cause persistent or intermittent pain?

A

Persistent

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22
Q

Stereotypical hand wringing is seen in this syndrome

A

Rett syndrome

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23
Q

Rett syndrome

A

= regression of motor and language milestones and acquired microcephaly starting around age 1, seen in girls

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24
Q

How to treat a digitalis/digoxin overdose:

A

Digoxin-specific Fab antibodies

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25
What is a scotoma?
an aura or blindspot obstructing part of your vision
26
Electrolyte abnormality seen in digoxin toxicity
hyperkalemia
27
Symptoms of digoxin toxicity
nausea vomiting abdominal pain scotomos/alterations in color vision confusion, headache and weakness ARRHYTHMIAS*** hyperkalemia will occur about 6 hours post ingestion
28
Med used to treat acute dystonic reactions
benztropine (acute dystonic reaction = involuntary contractions of the muscles of the face and extremities that occurs after taking an antipsychotic)
29
Drug you should give a child who presents with a beta blocker or calcium blocker ingestion
glucagon will raise glucose and HR
30
What causes anovulatory cycles during the first two years following menarche?
An immature hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis There is an absence of a mid cycle surge of LH, and so ovulation does not occur
31
The normal mid-cycle surge of LH leads to ovulation and the development of
the corpus luteum
32
What is the job of the corpus luteum?
it's job is to make the uterus a healthy place for a fetus to grow so it releases progesterone after ovulation to support a new pregnancy if that occurs
33
What is the corpus luteum?
it is a temporary gland structure that forms from the empty follicle left behind after ovulation it produces progesterone
34
Low levels of DHEAS (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate) indicate
adrenal insufficiency (measuring DHEAS levels is a way of measuring steroid levels in the body)
35
Low levels of IGF-1 and IGF-binding protein 3 are associated with this deficiency
growth hormone deficiency
36
In the menstrual cycle, there is a mid-cycle surge of
LH
37
Threshold for when to start phototherapy for a high risk infant at 48 hours of life:
11 so anything over 11 start photo
38
At 24 hours of life, what is the threshold at which to start phototherapy for a low risk infant?
12 so bili > 12 at 24 hours of life, start photo
39
Threshold for starting phototherapy in a low risk infant at 48 hours of life
> 15
40
Threshold for starting phototherapy in a low risk infant at 72 hours of life:
bili > 18, start photo
41
Which infants are in the low risk category when using bili tool?
Infants born at 38 weeks, 0 days or greater, and without risk factors
42
Which infants are in the medium risk category when using bilitool?
Infants who are well, without risk factors born at 35 weeks zero days to 37 weeks 6 days gestation or Infants born at 38 weeks, zero days or greater but who do have risk factors
43
Which infants are in the high risk group when using bilitool?
Infants born at 35 weeks, zero days to 37 weeks, 6 days WITH risk factors
44
Average max bilirubin level reached by full term ifnants
5-9 mg/dL (lower than I thought), usually peaking at 72-96 hours (3-4 days) of life
45
To get secreted, bilirubin must be
conjugated (so that it is water soluble and is able to be excreted in the bile) (of note, bilirubin is NOT normally excreted in urine)
46
Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is always
pathologic
47
Acholic (pale, putty colored) stools means there is an absence of blank in the stool
absence of bile in the stool (this is due to biliary obstruction)
48
Two ways to define direct (conjugated) hyperbilirubinemia
20% or more of the total bili or direct bili > 2
49
What is "bronze baby" syndrome?
= refers to when neonates with a high DIRECT bili who are put under phototherapy get a dark, brownish-gray discoloration of the skin
50
A double volume exchange transfusion should be considered when a neonate has a hemolytic process and the cord bilirubin is greater than
5 mg/dL
51
Name some complications of exchange transfusions:
thrombocytopenia coagulopathy (bleeding) portal vein thrombosis NEC hypokalemia and hypocalcemia graft vs host reactions infection arrhythmias (not sure why for this one)
52
Healthy low risk infant exchange transfusion level at 24 hours of life
19
53
Exchange transfusion level for low risk infant at 48 hours of age
22
54
Exchange transfusion level for low risk infant at 72 hours of age
24
55
Exchange transfusion level for low risk infant at GREATER than 72 hours of age
25
56
For high risk infants, what is the exchange transfusion level at 24 hours of life?
15
57
For high risk infants, what is the exchange transfusion level at 48 hours of life?
17
58
For high risk infants, what is the exchange transfusion level at 72 hours of life?
18.5
59
For high risk infants, what is the phototherapy threshold at 24 hours of life?
8
60
For high risk infants, what is the phototherapy threshold at 48 hours of life?
11
61
For high risk infants, what is the phototherapy threshold at 72 hours of life?
13.5
62
For an infant born at 37 weeks, 2 days gestation with a positive DAT and ABO incompatibility, what should you do when their 48 hour bilirubin comes back at 12.5?
The key is this infant is in the HIGH risk group of infants so photo needs to be started at any bili level > 11 at 48 hours so start phototherapy. oh, and ALWAYS check a direct bili "in any case of pathologic jaundice."
63
According to MEDSTUDY, the most common cause of bacterial diarrhea is
campylobacter jejuni
64
Long term complications of a campylobacter jejuni diarrheal illness include
reactive arthritis GBS (guillain-barre syndrome)
65
The most common cause of bacterial diarrhea in the United States is
Campylobacter jejuni
66
What shape is salmonella
rod shaped bacillus bacillus i think basically just means rod shaped......
67
Is salmonella gram pos or gram neg?
gram neg
68
Tx for campylobacter jejuni diarrhea
macrolides (like azithromycin)
69
A 7 year has bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain, as do his siblings, after consuming chicken at a barbecue. Stool culture shows spiral-shaped, gram negative bacilli. What bacteria is causing this illness?
Campylobacter jejuni
70
Blank is a spiral or helical shaped gram negative bacilli that causes food borne diarrheal illness
Campylobacter jejuni sounds kind of spirally
71
Sclerotic destruction in a sunburst pattern =
osteosarcoma
72
what does sclerosis mean
hardening
73
sunburst think
osteosarcoma
74
Blank is a benign bone lesion that usually presents with nocturnal pain
osteoid osteoma
75
An oval metaphyseal radiolucent lesion surrounding by sclerotic bone =
an osteoid osteoma smooth borders it's benign
76
An osteochondroma is a benign tumor that typically occurs where? What does it look like on x-ray?
distal femur proximal tibia (so the knee area) or the proximal humerus "multiple broad-based bony projections" on x-ray
77
Lytic, multilaminar periosteal elevation =
Ewing Sarcoma
78
Where does Ewing sarcoma usually occur?
long bones
79
What is Blount disease?
It's when there is a slowly progressive genu varum deformity of one leg. more common in black children. it's a disease that affects the growth plate around the knee, where one side (the medial side) of the growth plate just stops growing, but the outside continues to grow normally can be seen in babies, kids or adolescents it seems like
80
Knee pain + leg that gradually "keeps getting more bowed" =
Blount disease
81
Exam in Blount disease
genu varum deformity on affected side/knee tibial torsion below this deformity leg length discrepancy
82
How to remember genu valgum
valGUM gum makes your knees STICK TOGETHER knock kneed because of the gum that is sticking your knees together
83
bowed legs means your knees are close together or far apart
far apart
84
latin name for bow legs
genu varum
85
latin name for knock knees
genu valgum GUM makes your knees stick together
86
X-ray in Blount disease will show
a prominent medial metaphyseal angulation (beaking) of the tibia on the side that has the bow leg
87
Blount disease is also called
tibia vara Tibia vara: A condition that is characterized by disturbance of normal growth in the inner part of the upper tibia. Tibia vara causes a bowlegged gait and can impair the knees significantly. It is most common in children of African descent.
88
What is Tularemia?
"rabbit fever" caused by francisella tularensis, a gram neg bacillus found in tics, rabbits and other animals in Arkansas, MIssouri and Oaklahoma can cause a wide range of symptoms, including eschars
89
Treatment for tularemia
gent x 10 days or stretomycin but who the heck uses that alternatives would be cipro or doxy. just think gram neg, need something with gram neg coverage except FYI, carbopenams don't work here
90
Sudden onset fever/chills with an irregular ulcer in Arkansas, Missouri or Oklahoma in a boy who has a bunny think
Tularemia
91
Should healthy/immunocompetent children get the varicella vaccine if there is an immunocompromised relative at home?
yes
92
If a child who just got a varicella vaccine develops a varicella like rash, and has an immunocompromised relative at home, how should you advise them?
the immunocompromised relative needs to avoid direct contact with the varicella rash child until all lesions have crusted over
93
Most common side effect of the varicella vaccine
a varicella like rash
94
The most common cause of bacterial arthritis (aka septic joint) is
staph aureus
95
In a septic joint, the synovial fluid WBC count is usually over
50,000 WBCs
96
The most common type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is
21-hydroxylase deficiency
97
Elevation of blank will confirm a diagnosis of CAH
17-OHP (17-alpha-hydroxyprogesterone)
98
Peak incidence of ALL is at these ages
age 2-5
99
Almost all childhood ALL develops from what kind of cells
b-cell precursors aka immature b cells so it would be very rare for it to be from mature b cells (1%) about 14% are t-cell lineage instead
100
Ages that would be poor prognostic indicator in ALL
age less than 1 or age greater than 10
101
Multinucleated giant cells on Wright stain indicates
HSV
102
What illness does clostridium perfringens cause? What type of bacteria is it?
causes vomiting and diarrhea (food poisoning) it's a gram positive rod
103
clue cells and malodorous vaginal discharge =
BV
104
Tenosynovitis-dermatitis syndrome is caused by
Neisseria GONORRHOEAE not meninigitidiis Tenosynovitis-dermatitis syndrome is a form of disseminated gonococcal (GONOCOCCAL) disease
105
Is EBV (Epstein Barr virus) DNA present in the tumor cells of most Burkitt's NHL?
In Africa, YES (present in 95%) But in the US, the answer is actually no. Only present in 15-20% of cases.
106
Burkitt's lymphoma is what type of lymphoma?
NHL (non-hodgkins lymphoma)
107
Most cases of Burkitt's lymphoma present in what part of the body?
in Peyer patches within the GI tract, most commonly at the ileocecal junction
108
What are Peyer's patches?
Peyer's patches are groupings of lymphoid follicles in the mucus membrane that lines your small intestine.
109
In pediatrics specifically, are most cases of NHL (non-hodgkin lymphoma) low or high grade?
high grade with RAPID cell turnover for ex--Burkitt's lymphoma
110
How does Burkitt lymphoma in children usually present ?
abodominal mass (most commonly at the location of the ileocecal valve), and N/V
111
iron is mostly absorbed where
the duodenum and a little bit in the proximal jejunum
112
tx for giardia
metronidazole
113
Sweat chloride levels blank or higher are considered abnormal
> 60
114
B12 is absorbed where? what is its absorption dependent on?
ileum needs intrinsic factor to be absorbed
115
spiral fractures of the long bones think
NAT
116
posterior rib fracture think
NAT
117
Infantile Cortical Hyperostosis (aka Caffey disease)
= an AD disease with incomplete penetrance that causes changes to the bones between the ages of neonate and 24 months. causes fever, inflammation, pain and swelling of the bones, often involves the mandible, and inflammatory markers will be up. will see cortical thickening and subperiosteal new bone formation on xray. will resolve by age 2! and will start before age 6 mo.
118
How to differentiate between NAT and infantile cortical hyperostosis
infantile cortical hyperostosis (aka Caffey disease) will have mandible involvement almost always
119
Symptoms of infantile cortical hyperostosis (Caffey disease)
extreme irritability, fever, soft tissue swelling over different areas of bone usually involves the mandible
120
Do infantile cortical hyperostosis pts get recurrent fractures?
No.
121
What is Shwachman-Diamond syndrome?
= an AR disorder that causes exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and subsequent FTT, neutropenia (can also have other cytopenias) and subsequent recurrent infections, and often skeletal deformities
122
bifid thumbs, repeated bacterial and fungal infections, FTT and frequent foul-smelling, greasy stools with a normal sweat chloride level =
Shwachman-Diamond Syndrome
123
Sweat chloride level in Shwachman-Diamond syndrome is
normal
124
Normal sweat chloride level
<40 mmol/L
125
neutropenia + pancreatic exocrine insufficiency think
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
126
The second most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (after CF) in children is
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome (an AR disorder that causes neutropenia and bifid thumbs as well)
127
Why do Shwachman-Diamond syndrome patients get repeated bacterial and fungal infections?
due to severe neutropenia
128
Fat malabsorption, skeletal anomalies, and repeated infections due to neutropenia think
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
129
recurrent epistaxis + vascular malformations of the lung, CNS, liver and GI tract think
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (also called Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome)
130
What is Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia? (aka Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome)
= an AD disorder where you get bleeding problems and vascular malformations in the internal organs including the lungs, CNS, liver and GI tract. you get lots of telangiectasias, but they may not show up until adolescence
131
What are telangiectasias
= small, widended blood vessels on the skin usually harmless but can be associated with various diseases
132
The danger of hemorrhagic telangiectasia (aka Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome) is....
you can have an arteriovenous malformation that causes pulmonary hemorrhage, or in CNS or GI tract.
133
Testicular exam in teenage male with fragile X syndrome will show
macroorchidism
134
Fragile X syndrome is caused by what, genetically speaking
expansion of a trinucleotide repeat in the FMR1 gene on the X-chromosome
135
Testicular exam in teenage male with Klinefelter syndrome will show
small testes
136
Why do teenage boys with Klinefelter syndrome have gynecomastia and small testes?
Becuase of decreased testosterone production
137
Is Klinefelter syndrome associated with cognitive delays?
No! intelligence and cognition are totally normal
138
A port wine stain is seen in this syndrome
Sturge-Weber syndrome
139
Almost all children with neurofibromatosis type 1 will have this skin finding
cafe au lait spots
140
3 major features of Sturge-Weber syndrome
port-wine stain leptomeningeal angiomas glaucoma all due to blood vessel abnormalities
141
Hyperphagia think
Prader-Willi syndrome
142
How do neonates with Prader-Willi syndrome initially present?
With significant neonatal hypotonia and difficulty feeding
143
Chorioretinitis in the neonate suggests either of these two congenital infections
CMV toxo
144
MED study says to give benzos before phenorbarb for neonatal seizures
WTF
145
Normal RDW =
12-15% (RDW = red cell distribution width)
146
RDW in iron deficiency anemia vs thalassemia
Elevated RDW in iron deficiency anemia normal RDW in thalasemia
147
Nontyphoidal salmonella mainly causes
gastroenteritis
148
Typhoidal Salmonella mainly causes
systemic illness with little to no diarrhea
149
Fever with relative bradycardia think
Salmonella typhi
150
How to remember DTap before Tdap
D before T DTaP up until age 7, then at age 7 or older switch to Tdap
151
When to give tetanus immunoglobulin in addition to the tetanus vaccine
when the wound is dirty and a child has had LESS than 3 tetanus vaccines in their lifetime (or vaccine history is unknown)
152
What is triple A syndrome?
Achalasia Alacrima (reduced or absent tears when crying) adrenal insufficiency
153
Etox lesions usually occur when
2nd or 3rd day of life
154
At 2-3 days of life a well appearing infant has a rash with diffuse, yellow papules and pustules surrounded by large, erythematous rings on the trunk, face and extremities. The rash is most likely
Etox
155
Miliaria crystallina
= a superficial blockage of the eccrine (sweat) glands in a baby that resutls in diffuse very shallow "vesicles" that desquamate with light pressure cooling the baby down helps it will also self resolve
156
Transient neonatal pustular melanosis
= a benign rash that is present at birth. = pustules on a NON erythematous base that transform into scaly, hyperpigmented macules
157
"Snuffles" + maculopapular rash (especially on palms and soles) in a neonate think
congenital syphilis the snuffles are nasal secretions actually filled with the spirochete bacteria
158
Late signs (show up after age 2) of congenital syphilis
frontal bossing (really big prominent forehad) saddle nose short maxilla also can have Hutchinson teeth (triangular, peg like permanant teeth ) and saber shins (anterior bowing of the tibia) and deafness
159
Giant platelets and thrombocytopenia
= Bernard-Soulier syndrome AR the platelets don't work properly--the cannot aggregate correctly because of a deficiency of glycoprotein 1b in their membrane presents with severe mucocutaneous bleeding starting in infancy
160
A 6 month old with B-thal has a fever and her blood culture is positive for a GNR. Which organism is most likely causing her illness?
Yersinia enterocolitica this is because it's more common in babies and children with iron overload / those who are transfusion dependent
161
Blank disease is caused by impaired uptake of copper
Menkes disease also called kinky hair disease
162
What is Menkes disease? Who gets it?
= a rare x-linked recessive disease caused by a mutation in the Menkes gene, leading to impaired uptake of copper only boys get it
163
Menkes disease prognosis
Unfortunately very poor progressive neurologic decline and seizures by 2-3 months of age most patients will die around age 2 can cause subdural and retinal hemorrhages as well
164
Syndrome characterized by multiple hamartomas of the skin, mucous membraines, breast and thyroid
Cowden syndrome mutation in the PTEN tumor suppressor gene
165
severe congenital neutropenia think
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
166
What is Hyper-IgE, aka Job syndrome?
= a mutation in a transcription activator that leads to multisystem involvement patients get: -recurrent staph infections -chronic dermatitis -skeletal abnormalities -pneumatoceles after any pulmonary infection -retained primary teeth (as in like, two rows of teeth) -IgE levels are also super elevated early in life
167
Recurrent "cold abscesses" (abscesses without pus) caused by staph aureus and strep pneumo think
Job syndrome (aka hyper IgE syndrome)
168
Recurrent abscesses without redness or pain think
Job syndrome (Hyper IgE syndrome) these are "cold abscesses"
169
A 10 yo has an asymmetric face, broad nose, prominent forehead, triangular jaw, two rows of teeth (because their adult teeth came in but their baby ones haven't been lost yet), hyperextensible joints, scoliosis, and recurrent skin infections. The diagnosis is
Job syndrome (aka hyper IgE syndrome)
170
The main organism responsible for the skin infections in Job syndrome is
Staph aureus
171
Lab abnormalities in Job syndrome (aka hyper IgE syndrome)
IgE level elevated early in life (can be normal later on actually) eosinophilia
172
Is a high level of IgE needed to make the diagnosis of Hyper IgE syndrome (aka Job syndrome)?
No it's actually not since IgE levels can be normal especially as kids get towards adulthood
173
Besides Job syndrome, what else could cause a high level of IgE?
parasitic infections atopic dermatitis
174
Persistent posterior fontanelle, umbilical hernia and prolonged jaundice think
hypothyroidism
175
The posterior fontanelle normally closes by
4 mo of age
176
Name 2 causes of a large posterior fontanelle
hypothyroidism or increased ICP
177
What is caput succendaneum?
= edema/soft tissue swelling of the scalp two words so can be in two areas aka crosses suture lines
178
Does a cephalohematoma cross suture lines?
NO since blood is located beneath the periosteum (outer surface of the skull)
179
When are cephalohematomas the biggest?
They usually enlarged over the first 2-3 days of life and can take weeks (or even months) to resolve
180
In Myasthenia Gravis, autoantibodies are attacking what exactly?
the acetylcholine receptor
181
Antibodies attacking the acetylcholine receptor think
myasthenia gravis
182
Name an oral anticholinesterase medication that is used to treat myasthenia gravis
pyridostigmine it increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the acetylcholine receptor, by blocking acetylcholinesterase so it's an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
183
Medstudy does not want solid foods introduced before age
6 months
184
A newborn girl presents with virilization, no salt wasting, and hypertension. What is the diagnosis?
CAH Specifically, 11-B-hydroxylase deficiency
185
CAH with virilization and hypertension =
11-B-hydroxylase deficiency
186
You find a hydrocele in a 2 month old. When should the child undergo repair if it persists?
age 1 year (if it's a noncommunicating hydrocele, it would usually resolve before age 1)
187
When should an inguinal hernia be repaired?
as soon as it's diagnosed
188
Do noncommunicating hydroceles in newborn male infants usually resolve on their own?
yup any hydrocele that is still present at 1 year of age should be surgically repaired
189
Clue cells think
BV
190
Epithelial cells that appear granular and stippled with ragged borders on saline wet-prep microscopy =
= clue cells ... = BV
191
Blank is a clinical syndrome where normal vaginal flora (Lactobacillus) gets replaced with anaerobes, Gardnerella vaginalis and mycoplasma hominis
=BV
192
homogenous, thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge, vaginal pH > 4.5, and a fishy odor that is present with a drop of 10% KOH is added to a sample of the discharge =
BV
193
A 1 month old infant presents with erythema of the scalp with a greasy scale. The most likely diagnosis is
Seborrhea
194
What causes seborrheic dermatitis? What is the informal name for it?
Also called cradle cap Usually happens in infants in the first two months of life. It's caused by lingering effects of maternal hormones on sebaceous glands. Improves on its own.
195
How to treat cradle cap (aka sebhorrhea):
usually asymptomatic and will resolve on its own, but, can treat with gentle shampooing with selenium sulfide or ketoconazole shampoo, or can use an emollient (moisterizer basically) to help remove the scales can also show up on face and body, not just scalp
196
Is seborrheic dermatitis in infants usually asymptomatic?
yup
197
In the case of a fungal line infection, can you "treat through" and clear the line with antifungals or do you have to remove the line?
MUST remove the line
198
What cardiac condition is associated with Williams syndrome?
supravalvular aortic stenosis
199
How to treat chlamydia trachomatis urethritis
doxy 100 mg BID x 7 days or, azithro 1 g single dose (but higher rate of tx failure with this, atleast in men)
200
What is renal tubular acidosis?
= a metabolic acidosis caused by a defect (often genetic) in renal tubule function, where the kidney is not able to hang onto enough bicarb there are multiple types of RTA, but all will involve a normal anion gap (as in, non gap metabolic acidosis) and all will involve hypercholoremia
201
RTA is either due to a problem where the kidneys can't hang on to enough bicarcb, or, where the kidneys hang on to too much
H+
202
Name the 3 types of RTA
Type 1 Type 2 Type 4 Type 3 is NOT a thing and does NOT EXIST so never pick that as an answer
203
Metabolic disorder that causes clots and strokes
homocystinuria
204
Why does homocystinuria cause clots and stroke?
high levels of homocysteine cause damage to blood vessels