Prep 3 Flashcards

1
Q

How does Necator americanus (hookworm) infect humans? Like how do you get it?

A

through the soil
so by being barefoot in endemic areas like really it’s all over the world actually

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2
Q

Name two hookworms

A

Necator amercanus
Ancylostoma duodenale

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3
Q

How do you diagnose hookworm?

A

will see the eggs on microscopy
of stool O+P

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4
Q

Blank infections (Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale) are transmitted through soil, often during barefoot outdoor activities in endemic regions.

A

hookworm

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5
Q

Symptoms of hookworm infection

A

either asymptomatic or

microcytic anemia

and also eosinophilia will be present on CBC

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6
Q

This infection presents with intense anal pruritis

A

PINworm

aka enterobius vermicularis

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7
Q

How is giardia transmitted

A

can be waterborne, foodborne or transmtted via fecal-oral route

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8
Q

Giardia exists in 2 forms, which are

A

cyst and trophozoites

it’s a protozoa

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9
Q

How to diagnose giardia

A

a few options:
-antigen assay
-nucleic acid amplification test
-or stool microscopy detecting cyst and trophozoites

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10
Q

Name two tapeworms. What are their symtoms?

A

Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm)
Taenia solium (pork tapeworm)

get infected when eat undercooked meat infected with the tapeworm

symptoms are N/V and epigastric pain

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11
Q

Stage 1 hypertension in adolescents definition

A

same as adults

130/80 is stage 1 htn

and 140/90 is stage 2 htn

120 SBP is still considered elevated BP

NORMAL is LESS THAN 120

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12
Q

When to start bp meds for adolescents with essential htn:

A

stage 2 htn (so bp of 140/90 or higher)
stage 1 not responsive to life style modifications
symptomatic
or any evidence of end organ damage (like LVH)

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13
Q

What is “little league shoulder?”

A

= when a baseball pitcher who is not skeletally mature throws so much that the proximal humeral physis widens and gets a stress fracture. It’s the weak link – where as in adults the weak link is the rotator cuff.

tx: don’t throw for 3 mo. rest

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14
Q

Infants with ischemic perinatal stroke should be evaluated for these two things

A

thrombotic disorders
congenital heart disease

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15
Q

Which blood vessel is most commonly affected in ischemic perinatal stroke?

A

left middle cerebral artery

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16
Q

Besides fluoxetine, what is the one other med that is FDA approved for the treatment of depression in adolescents?

A

Escitalopram (which is also an SSRI)

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17
Q

Decreases in these three hormones/neurotransmitters are associated with increased aggression

A

decreased serotonin, oxytocin and GABA

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18
Q

Increases in these three hormones/neurotransmitters are associated with increased aggression

A

vasopressin and dopamine

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19
Q

The most compelling and successful method of engaging clinicians in quality improvement endeavors is to…

A

regularly provide them with specific data and frequent reminders to promote process change.

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20
Q

Patients with psoriasis are at increased risk of developing this other medical conditoin

A

metabolic syndrome

huh, interesting

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21
Q

The most strongly associated comorbidity of psoriasis is

A

obesity

huh, interseting.

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22
Q

For neonates born to Hep C positive moms, what test should you get at 18 mo?

A

Hep C antibody test

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23
Q

Glycogen storage disease type 5 (V) is also known as

A

McArdle disease

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24
Q

Classic feature of McArdle disease

A

second wind phenomenon

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25
Q

Symptoms of McCardle disease, aka glycogen storage disease type 5

A

AR disease where adolescents present with exercise intolerance, fatigue/pain/cramps in muscles after exercise or during, second wind phenomenon, and can get recurrent episodes of myoglobinuria after exercise

when not exercising tho they are typically totally fine

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26
Q

Glycogen storage type 2 other name

A

Pompe disease

remember this because there are two types: infant onset nad late onset

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27
Q

How does glycogen storage disease type 1 present?

A

in the first few months of life with FTT, severe hypoglycemic episodes, seizures and developmental delay

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28
Q

The 2 forms of Pompe disease (aka GSD type 2) are…

A

infantile onset: hypotonia, FTT and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy before age 1

late onset: proximal muscle weakness and respiratory insufficiency (no cardiac involvement)

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29
Q

Kids who get cochlear implants are at risk for what type of meningitis specifically

A

strep pneumo

so if over age 2, they should get the PPSV23 vaccines

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30
Q

Kids who get cochlear implants are at risk for what type of meningitis specifically

A

strep pneumo

so if over age 2, they should get the PPSV23 vaccines

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31
Q

The PPSV23 vaccine is also called….

A

the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine

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32
Q

What are the two types of pneumococcal vaccines and how are they different?

A

Standard one that all babies/toddlers should get 4 doses of is the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine. It’s also called PCV13 (stands for pneumococcal conjugate vaccine). It is made of polysaccharide antigen CONJUGATED to a protein carrier (which is actually Diptheria toxin) as a way to deliver the antigen to the body

The other type is the pneumococcal POLYSACCHARIDE vaccine. It is also called the PPSV23 and protects against 23 serotypes.

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33
Q

What causes herpangina and what are the symptoms?

A

Caused by coxsackie viruses.

= affects the oral mucosa and presents with painful vesicles in the mouth, fever, and sore throat

kids ages 3-10 most commonly get it

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34
Q

Coxsackie virus is a type of

A

enterovirus

(polio and echo virus are other types of enterovirus)

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35
Q

Vesicular rash on hands and feet + oral vesicles =

A

Hand foot and mouth disease
caused by coxsackie virus

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36
Q

If a preterm infant fails the car seat test, the next step should be

A

a car bed test

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37
Q

What is strabismus?

A

= eye misalignment

will cause a lazy eye on exam

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38
Q

What is pseudostrabismus?

A

= when the eyes are both properly aligned, but one of the properly aligned eyes APPEARS misaligned due to a wide nasal bridge, prominent epicanthal folds, etc.

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39
Q

Do children with pseudostrabismus need to be referred to ophtho?

A

No!

But children with strabismus do, so they can get treatment to optimize their visual outcome

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40
Q

What is the difference between latent and manifest strabismus?

A

latent means it’s only revealed when doing certain maneuvers like the cover/uncover test

manifest means it’s manifesting all the time, constantly present

latent–use the word phoria
manifest – use the word tropia

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41
Q

Esophoria vis esotropia

A

both mean medial misalignment of the eye

but esophoria means only sometimes present
and esotropia means ALWAYS present

(exo refers to lateral misaligment)

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42
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

= loss of visual acuity caused by a disruption of the cortical visual pathway that exists between the eye and brain in early childhood

has multiple causes, such as manifest strabismus, retinoblastoma, congenital cataracts, high refractive error, etc.

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43
Q

The danger of not treating manifest strabismus is that it can result in

A

amblyopia

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44
Q

Pathophys of why strabismus can cause permanent vision damage

A

When children have strabismus, eye misalignment causes incongruent visual input to the brain (ie, “double vision”); the brain learns to “ignore” input from the affected eye. If not corrected before age 7 ish, this will become permanent.

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45
Q

The serotype that babies usually get if they get neisseria meningitidis

A

serotype b

46
Q

If you suspect meningococcal infection, start one of these antibiotics ASAP

A

ceftriaxone or cefotaxime

47
Q

High risk contacts of someone with meningococcal disease should be prophylaxis with blank within 24 hours

A

children – with rifampin

adults – with ceftriaxone or ciprofloxacin

48
Q

Apt-Downey Test

A

= qualitative test used to detect whether or not fetal hemoglobin aka infant’s blood is present within in a sample

positive means yes, fetal Hb present

can use in neonates up to 8 weeks old to tell if hematemesis is infant or maternal blood

49
Q

What is palivizumab?

A

= the monoclonal ab against RSV

aka Synagis

50
Q

To diagnose DI, serum osm must be > blank and urine osm must be < blank

A

> 300
<300

<300 means urine very dilute

51
Q

Urine osm can range from 50 - 1200. Is a urine osm of 80 seen in very dilute urine or very concentrated urine?

A

DILUTE

52
Q

Low urine spec grav means the urine is

A

dilute

53
Q

Tuberous sclerosis inheritance pattern

A

AD with phenotypic variablity

54
Q

cardiac rhabdomyoma on prenatal ultrasound raises concern that the fetus may have this diagnosis

A

Tuberous sclerosis

55
Q

Are hepatic tumors something that happens in Tuberous sclerosis?

A

No, they are actually not!

56
Q

Tx for cardiac rhabdomyoma in infant with Tuberous sclerosis

A

The natural course is that this tumor will involute over time, so you actually just do serial echos and watch it. Surgical intervention is needed though if it causes outflow tract obstruction.

57
Q

angiomyolipomas of the kidneys think

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

58
Q

Subependymal nodules think

A

Tuberous sclerosis

59
Q

What type of disease is Tuberous sclerosis?

A

= a hereditary tumor predisposition syndrome

60
Q

Is bactrim good at treating anerobes?

A

NOPE

so would not be good at treating a dental infection

61
Q

Treatment of choice for soft tissue dental infections

A

Augmentin

62
Q

Is prematurity a risk factor for dental carries?

A

yup

because of enamel defects

63
Q

What is tooth enamel?

A

= the hard, shiny, thin outer covering of the tooth

it’s the hardest substance in the human body apparently

associated with low bone mineral stores

64
Q

How to manage an asymptomatic neonate born to a mom with active HSV lesions:

A

send surface cultures and blood HSV PCR at 24 hours of life

if positive, obtain LP and start treating

65
Q

Which eating disorder is fluoxetine approved for as an effective treatment?

A

bulemia

NOT AN

66
Q

After an avulsed adult tooth is replaced, which prophylactic antibiotic should be given??

A

DOXY

or amox

for some reason, has to be strictly one of these two

67
Q

Tx for infant botulism

A

human derived botulism immune globulin

68
Q

A patient can jump, kick a ball, throw a ball overhand, and walk down stairs holding a rail. How old are they?

A

24 months

69
Q

A child can balance on 1 foot for 3 seconds, catch a ball with stiff arms, and walk up stairs with alternating feet. How old are they?

A

3 years old

70
Q

A child walks down the stairs holding the rail, putting both feet on each step (instead of alternating feet). How old is this child?

A

24 mo

71
Q

A child can balance on 1 foot for 3 seconds. How old are they?

A

3

72
Q

A child can catch a ball with stiff arms. How old are they?

A

3

73
Q

Should a 2 yo be able to walk down stairs while holding the railing?

A

yup

they won’t alternate feet tho

74
Q

Can a 2 yo child jump?

A

yes

75
Q

Can a 24 mo throw a ball overhand and kick a ball?

A

yup

but catching a ball with stiff arms, apparently that happens at age 3

76
Q

Why does ethanol cause an anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

because it leads to an increase in both lactic acid and ketoacid production

77
Q

How to calculate the anion gap

A

(Na + K) - (Cl + bicarb) = anion gap

78
Q

Ethylene glycol is found in

A

antifreeze

79
Q

Methanol is found in

A

windsheild wiper fluid

80
Q

Does ingestion of isopropyl alcohol (rubbing alcohol) cause an anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

Nope

so sounds like apparently not so bad if a kids eats this

81
Q

Name two hydrocarbons

A

kerosene and paint thinner

82
Q

State what MUDPILES stands for:

A

Methanol
Uremia
DKA
Paraldephyde
Iron/Isoniazid
Lactic acid
Ethanol/Ethylene glycol
Salicylates

83
Q

Symptoms of hydrocarbon ingestion

A

systemic toxicity–CNS depression, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmias

if aspirated, can cause bad pneumonitis and severe hypoxia

84
Q

Paint thinners and kerosene are what type of toxic material? Do they cause an AG metabolic acidosis?

A

hydrocarbons

NO! They do bad things but do not typically cause a metabolic acidosis actually

85
Q

What did paraldehyde used to be used for?

A

was an old sedative and antiepileptic

no longer available in the US

86
Q

Simple way to calculate anion gap

A

Na - Cl - bicarb

87
Q

Severe post-prandial epigastric pain + nausea think

A

peptic ulcer disease

88
Q

Granuloma annulare

A

= a skin lesion that can mimic tinea corporis or nummular eczema, but is neither of these

does not have scale, is round and will have elevated firm ish borders

nothing to do about it. will go away on its own in 2-4 years

89
Q

This type of skin lesion is totally benign and goes away on its own, and consists of papules that form a ring that may mimic tinea corporis

A

Granuloma annulare

90
Q

If valproate is taken during pregnancy it can cause

A

neural tube defects

91
Q

How to treat SJS

A

according to prep, we don’t have much to offer, it’s just supportive care

prep says no steroids (risk of sepsis and not shown to efficacious) and no IVIG (risk of renal complications and not shown to be efficacious)

okkkkkkk cool

92
Q

If a child presents with anal pruritis and is found to have reinfection of pinworm, what should you do?

A

treat them again
and treat the whole family
high rates of transmission

93
Q

What is distal patellar apophysitis, and what is its other name:

A

Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome (SLJS)

= an overuse injury from repeated high intensity extension of the knee (aka running or jumping) in a skeletally immature child, where patellar tendon pulls on the growth plate of the inferior patella, causing inflammation and irritation of the growth plate

= pain at the bottom on the knee cap

(NOT the tibial tuberosity. That would be well below the knee cap).

94
Q

What does the word apophysitis mean

A

= a stress injury to the growth plate

= inflammation of the growth plate from over use

95
Q

Blank presents as focal pain over the tibial tuberosity

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

96
Q

Pansystolic slash holosystolic murmur think

A

VSD

97
Q

Innocent murmurs generally have a blank or blank quality

A

vibratory or musical

98
Q

Innocent murmurs tend to be blank pitched

A

low

99
Q

High pitched murmurs are often

A

pathologic

100
Q

How to do post exposure prophylaxis against Hep A for a 5 month old and 13 month old patient

A

12 mo and up–just give the Hep A vaccine asap

under 12 mo– give hep A immune globulin

101
Q

Blank hemangiomas are fully formed at birth and do not continue to grow

A

congenital hemaiomas

102
Q

If an infant has more than 5 infantile hemangiomas present on skin exam, what should you do

A

order a liver ultrasound to look for associated hepatic involvement

103
Q

The gold standard finding used to diagnose a burn wound infection is

A

the presence of 105 bacteria per gram of tissue from a burn wound biopsy

(or a culture showing a fungus. culture showing a bacteria tho is not helpful AT ALL bcuz there are already bacteria just like everywhere on the skin and burn anyway, so does not tell you if there is an infection or not)

fevers are common in burn pts so that does not help determine if there is an infection either.

104
Q

Children under this age are at especially high risk of TB infection when exposed, and so should undergo prophylaxis if they have a close contact

A

5

105
Q

At 4 years of age, a child should be able to draw a blank part person

A

4

106
Q

Fine motor skills that a child should have at age 4

A

should be able to copy a square

should be able to CUT a circle

tie single knots

draw 4 part person

write part of name

107
Q

If a 4 yo can cut out a line but cannot cut a circle, is that normal

A

nope should be able to cut a circle

should be concerned for fine motor delay

108
Q

Downside of using steroids to treat pericarditis

A

steroids increase the risk of recurrance

109
Q

Main tx for pericarditis

A

NSAIDs

110
Q

What is papular urticaria

A

= a chronic skin eruption related to hypersensitivity to insect bites