menti revision quiz (multiple choice)

Question 1

which of the following rodent behavior tests would be most appropriate to test the effectiveness of a potential memory enhancing drug
A) forced swim test
B) novel object recognition
C) tail suspension test
D) sucrose or chocolate preference test

Answer 1

The most appropriate test to evaluate the effectiveness of a potential memory enhancing drug in rodents would be the novel object recognition test (option B). This test assesses the rodent’s ability to recognize a previously encountered object as familiar and differentiate it from a novel object. A memory-enhancing drug should improve the rodent’s ability to recognize the familiar object and show increased preference for the novel object. The forced swim test (option A) and tail suspension test (option C) are commonly used to evaluate depressive-like behavior in rodents, while the sucrose or chocolate preference test (option D) is used to evaluate anhedonic behavior or preference for sweet foods, and therefore, are not relevant for evaluating memory enhancing effects

Question 2

which of the following is the most appropriate test of spatial working memory in rodents
A) von frey test
B) balance beam
C) radial arm maze
D) evaluated plus maze

Answer 2

The most appropriate test of spatial working memory in rodents would be C) radial arm maze. The radial arm maze is a widely used test of spatial working memory in rodents, where the animals learn to associate food rewards with specific arms of a maze and then have to use their spatial memory to remember which arms have already been visited to obtain the rewards efficiently. The von Frey test and balance beam test are used to assess sensory function and motor coordination, respectively. The elevated plus maze is used to assess anxiety-related behaviors in rodents.

Question 3

which one of these measures should be used to asses fear in rodents
A) freezing
B) grooming
C) rearing
D) locomotion

Answer 3

A) Freezing is the measure that should be used to assess fear in rodents.

Question 4

what clinical symptom does the tail suspension test attempt to model in rodents
A) anxiety
B) pain
C) impulsivity
D) depression

Answer 4

The clinical symptom that the tail suspension test attempts to model in rodents is depression.

For option A) Anxiety can be assessed using the elevated plus maze, open field test or the light-dark box test.
For option B) Pain can be assessed using the hot plate test or the formalin test.
For option C) Impulsivity can be assessed using the delayed reward task or the 5-choice serial reaction time task

Question 5

how would you test a novel drug to minimise pain sensitivity and improve locomotor activity in Parkinson’s disease mouse model
A) novel object recognition and rotarod
B) skilled reaching and balance beam
C)morris water maze and rotarod
D) activity box and von frey test

Answer 5

Answer: The best option to test the effects of a novel drug on pain sensitivity and locomotor activity in a Parkinson’s disease mouse model would be Option A, which involves using the novel object recognition and rotarod tests.

Explanation:

Novel object recognition test: This test is used to assess cognitive function and memory in rodents. In this test, the mouse is placed in an open arena with two objects, one familiar and one novel. The amount of time the mouse spends exploring each object is recorded. If the mouse has intact memory function, it will spend more time exploring the novel object. However, if the mouse has memory impairment due to Parkinson’s disease or the novel drug, it will not show a preference for the novel object. This test can be used to determine whether the drug has any effect on cognitive function.
Rotarod test: This test is used to assess motor coordination and balance in rodents. In this test, the mouse is placed on a rotating rod, and the time it takes for the mouse to fall off is recorded. If the mouse has intact motor coordination and balance, it will be able to stay on the rod for a longer period of time. However, if the mouse has motor impairment due to Parkinson’s disease or the novel drug, it will fall off the rod sooner. This test can be used to determine whether the drug has any effect on locomotor activity.
For the other options:

Option B: Skilled reaching and balance beam tests are more commonly used to assess motor function in stroke or traumatic brain injury models, and may not be the most appropriate for testing pain sensitivity and locomotor activity in a Parkinson’s disease model.
Option C: The Morris water maze and rotarod tests are commonly used to assess cognitive function and motor coordination in neurodegenerative disease models, but may not be the most appropriate for testing pain sensitivity in a Parkinson’s disease model.
Option D: The activity box and von Frey test are commonly used to assess anxiety and pain sensitivity in rodents, but may not be the most appropriate for testing locomotor activity in a Parkinson’s disease model.

Question 6

which of the following is not a common behavioral effect of benzodiazepines
A) sedation
B) anxiolysis
C) convulsions
D) muscle relaxation

Answer 6

The answer is C) convulsions. Benzodiazepines are commonly used as sedatives, anxiolytics, and muscle relaxants, but they are not typically associated with convulsions.

Question 7

which of the following statements best describes diazepine
A) a non-selective GABAA receptor NAM
B) a non-selective GABAA receptor PAM
C) a PAM selective for GABAA alpha6
D) a NAM selective for GABAA alpha1

Answer 7

The correct answer is B) a non-selective GABAA receptor PAM (positive allosteric modulator). Diazepam is a benzodiazepine drug that enhances the activity of GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) neurotransmitter by binding to specific sites on GABAA receptors, resulting in anxiolytic, sedative, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant effects. It is a non-selective PAM that can bind to different subtypes of GABAA receptors containing alpha1, alpha2, alpha3, or alpha5 subunits

Question 8

A PAM, that selectively exerts its actions upon GABAA receptors containing an alpha2 subunit should be used to treat
A) insomnia
B) anxiety
C) epilepsy
D) dementia

Answer 8

A) Insomnia: A PAM that selectively acts on GABAA receptors containing alpha1 subunits or alpha5 subunits can be used to treat insomnia.

B) Anxiety: A PAM that selectively acts on GABAA receptors containing alpha2 subunits can be used to treat anxiety.

C) Epilepsy: A PAM that selectively acts on GABAA receptors containing alpha1 subunits can be used to treat epilepsy.

D) Dementia: No specific subunit has been identified for the treatment of dementia.

Question 9

which behavioral characteristic is primarily associated with diazepam is primarily associated with diazepam acting at the alpha5betagamma2-GABAA receptor
A) sedation
B)impaired cognition
C) addiction
D) anxiolysis

Answer 9

Diazepam is a benzodiazepine drug that acts on GABAA receptors. Different subunits of GABAA receptors can have different effects when activated by diazepam.

In the case of alpha5betagamma2-GABAA receptors, activation by diazepam is primarily associated with impaired cognition. This means that diazepam acting at these receptors can cause difficulties with thinking, learning, and memory.

For the other options:

Sedation is primarily associated with activation of GABAA receptors containing alpha1 subunits.
Anxiolysis (reduction of anxiety) is primarily associated with activation of GABAA receptors containing alpha2, alpha3, or alpha5 subunits.
Addiction is not directly associated with any specific subunit of GABAA receptors, but chronic use of drugs that act on GABAA receptors (such as benzodiazepines) can lead to physical dependence and withdrawal symptoms when use is stopped

Question 10

which of these GABAA receptor subtypes do benzodiazepines act upon to produce analgesia in inflammatory and neuropathic pain
A) alpha2betagamma2
B)alpha1betagamma2
C)alphabetagamma2
D) alpha6betagamma2

Answer 10

Benzodiazepines act upon GABAA receptor subtypes that contain alpha2 subunit to produce analgesia in inflammatory and neuropathic pain

Question 11

which of the following best describes a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement
A) a reinforcer is delivered following an unpredictable time interval
B) a reinforcer is delivered following a fixed time interval
C) a reinforcer is delivered following a fixed number of responses
D) a reinforcer is delivered following a variable number of responses

Answer 11

C) a reinforcer is delivered following a fixed number of responses. In a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement, a specific number of responses must occur before a reinforcer is delivered. For example, a fixed ratio 5 (FR5) schedule would require 5 responses before a reinforcer is delivered. Once the reinforcer is delivered, the ratio starts over again. This schedule of reinforcement often results in high rates of responding because the animal or person knows that a certain number of responses will always lead to reinforcement

Question 12

which of the following best describes the term ‘break point’ in self administered studies
A) responding ceases, meain dependant variable
B) last dose of a drug that is delivered
C) cumulative dose following a self-administered session
D) responding reaches baseline, main dependant variable

Answer 12

A) Responding ceases, main dependent variable.

In self-administered studies, a “break point” refers to the point at which an animal stops responding for a particular reinforcer, such as a drug, and no longer self-administers the substance. This is typically used as the main dependent variable in such studies and is considered an indication of the reinforcing efficacy of the substance being tested.

Question 13

which of the following best describes response acquisition
A) a period of time responding is first stably maintained
B) a period where responding enters a predictable rate
C) a period where responding is first reinforced
D) a period where the reinforcer is withdrawn

Question 13

which of the following best describes response acquisition
A) a period of time responding is first stably maintained
B) a period where responding enters a predictable rate
C) a period where responding is first reinforced
D) a period where the reinforcer is withdrawn

Answer 13

C)
The best description of response acquisition is “a period where responding is first reinforced”. Response acquisition is the process by which an organism learns to make a particular response in order to obtain a reinforcer, which can be food, water, or any other positive stimulus. During the response acquisition phase, the organism initially engages in a variety of responses until it discovers the one that is most likely to produce the reinforcer. Once this response is identified, the organism continues to engage in it more frequently and efficiently over time, until it is stably maintained.

Question 14

which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of naltrexone
A) full agonist at mu, kappa, and delta opioid receptors
B reversible competitive antagonist at mu, kappa, and delta
C) irreversibly competitive antagonist at mu, kappa, and delta
D) Non- competitive antagonist at mu, kappa, and delta

Answer 14

The correct answer is B) reversible competitive antagonist at mu, kappa, and delta opioid receptors.

Question 15

which of the following is an example of a second order schedule reinforcement
A) responding for cocaine infusions delivered on a FR2 schedule
B) maintaining baseline responding followed by extinction
C) every FRS produces a stimulus, first after 60 minutes produces morphine
D) every FR(10) by a rat produces infusion of cocaine

Answer 15

The answer is C
Explanation: A second order schedule of reinforcement involves a schedule where the primary reinforcer is a conditioned stimulus (CS) that has been paired with a primary reinforcer. In this case, the first order schedule would involve a response that produces a stimulus, and the second order schedule involves the delivery of the primary reinforcer after a specific number of responses on the first order schedule have been completed. Therefore, option C is the correct answer since it involves producing a stimulus followed by a response on an FRS schedule, which then produces morphine. Option A is an example of a first order schedule of reinforcement, and option D is an example of an FR schedule. Option B describes a baseline period followed by extinction and is not an example of any type of schedule of reinforcement.

Question 16

which of the following enzymes converts Glutamate to GABA
A) GABA transaminase
B) glutamate synthetase
C) glutaminase
D) glutamate decarboxylase

Answer 16

The correct answer is D)
glutamate decarboxylase. This is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of glutamate to GABA by removing the carboxyl group from glutamate. GABA transaminase (A) is responsible for the breakdown of GABA, while glutamate synthetase (B) catalyzes the synthesis of glutamate from glutamine and glutamate. Glutaminase (C) converts glutamine to glutamate.

Question 17

which of the following is an antiepileptic agent that increases Na+ channel inactivation
A) diazepam
B)ethosuxamide
C) carbomezapine
D) vigabatrin

Answer 17

ChatGPT
The answer is C) carbamazepine.

Ethosuxamide (B) is an antiepileptic agent that reduces T-type Ca2+ channel activity. Diazepam (A) is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effects of GABA at GABA-A receptors. Vigabatrin (D) is an antiepileptic agent that irreversibly inhibits the enzyme GABA transaminase, which increases GABA levels in the brain.

Carbamazepine works by binding to the inactivated state of sodium channels, which prolongs the inactive state and reduces the likelihood of repetitive firing of neurons, thus reducing seizure activity. It is commonly used in the treatment of partial seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

Ethosuxamide (B) is primarily used in the treatment of absence seizures, by reducing the activity of T-type calcium channels which are involved in the generation of these seizures.

Diazepam (A) is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effects of GABA at GABA-A receptors, which results in increased chloride ion conductance and hyperpolarization of neurons, leading to anxiolysis, sedation, and muscle relaxation. It is used as an adjunctive therapy for some types of seizures, particularly in cases of status epilepticus

Question 18

by which mechanism does the drug tiagabine enhance the GABA activity
A)blocks GABA into pre synaptic neurons
B) inhibits GABA transaminase (GABA-T) resulting into more GABA
C) binds to the auxillary subunit voltage gated calcium channels
D) increases the affinity of GABA for GABA-R by binding to the BZD site

Answer 18

The correct answer is B, which is that tiagabine inhibits the GABA reuptake transporter (GAT-1) which leads to an increase in extracellular GABA levels and enhances GABAergic neurotransmission.

Regarding the other options:
A) Blocking GABA into presynaptic neurons is not a known mechanism of any antiepileptic drug.
C) Binding to the auxiliary subunit voltage-gated calcium channels is a mechanism of action for drugs such as gabapentin and pregabalin.
D) Increasing the affinity of GABA for GABA-R by binding to the benzodiazepine site is a mechanism of action for benzodiazepines such as diazepam, but not for tiagabine

Question 19

by which mechanism does the drug tiagabine enhance the GABA activity
A)blocks GABA into pre synaptic neurons
B) inhibits GABA transaminase (GABA-T) resulting into more GABA
C) binds to the auxillary subunit voltage gated calcium channels
D) increases the affinity of GABA for GABA-R by binding to the BZD site

Answer 19

The correct answer is B, which is that tiagabine inhibits the GABA reuptake transporter (GAT-1) which leads to an increase in extracellular GABA levels and enhances GABAergic neurotransmission.

Regarding the other options:
A) Blocking GABA into presynaptic neurons is not a known mechanism of any antiepileptic drug.
C) Binding to the auxiliary subunit voltage-gated calcium channels is a mechanism of action for drugs such as gabapentin and pregabalin.
D) Increasing the affinity of GABA for GABA-R by binding to the benzodiazepine site is a mechanism of action for benzodiazepines such as diazepam, but not for tiagabine

Question 20

which of the following is an example of primary (or idiopathic) form of epilepsy
A) west syndrome
B) benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes
C) mesial temporal lobe epilepsy syndrome
D) lennox-gastaut syndrome

Answer 20

B

Primary (or idiopathic) epilepsy refers to cases where there is no underlying neurological or structural cause of seizures.

B) Benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes is a type of epilepsy that usually begins in childhood and is characterized by seizures that occur during sleep. It is often associated with mild cognitive and behavioral problems, but typically resolves on its own during adolescence.

C) Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy syndrome is a type of epilepsy that is often associated with structural abnormalities in the brain, such as hippocampal sclerosis. It is characterized by seizures that originate in the temporal lobe and can cause a range of symptoms, including memory impairment and behavioral changes.

D) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is a severe and rare type of epilepsy that typically begins in childhood and is characterized by multiple types of seizures, as well as developmental and cognitive impairments. It is often associated with structural abnormalities in the brain