Micro/Para Flashcards
(227 cards)
1
Q
Bacterial classification except:
A
Bacterial Size
2
Q
Affects the effectiveness of microbial growth?
A
Species microbes
3
Q
Aerobes are agents that:
A
Thrive in an oxygenated environment
4
Q
Unique type of bacteria that lives within a living cell:
A
Chlamydia
5
Q
Mycobacterium identification except:
A
Gram stain
6
Q
Rod shaped bacteria
A
Bacilli
7
Q
Considerations on collecting type specimen for diagnostic purposes, except:
A. Suspected agent
B. Location of infection
C. Specificity of the test
D. None of the above
A
C. Specificity of the test
8
Q
Agents used in direct examination
A. NaCl solution
B. KOH stain
C. Both
D. None of the above
A
C. Both
A. NaCl solution
B. KOH stain
9
Q
It is not considered as MOA of antimicrobial agent
A. Destruction of cell wall
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
C. Damage of DNA
D. None of the above
A
D. None of the above
10
Q
It is a form of heat under pressure sterilization
A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclaving
C. Soaking
D. Boiling
A
B. Autoclaving
11
Q
Physical form of microbial control
A. Use of extreme temp
B. Use of glutareldehyde
C. Application of germicidal soap
D. Aota
A
D. Aota
12
Q
It is form of biguanide
A. Phenol
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Alcohol
D. Triclosan
A
B. Chlorhexidine
13
Q
It is an oxidizing halogen?
A. Iodine
B. Triclosan
C. Copper solution
D. Chlorine
A
D. Chlorine
14
Q
Removal of Microbes thru mechanical means?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Degerming
D. All of the above
A
C. Degerming
15
Q
Use of heat in reducing spoilage of food:
A
Pasteurization
16
Q
Chemical agent that has no activity against endospores:
A
Quats
17
Q
Factors affecting microbial resistance, except:
A. Indiscriminate use of antibiotic
B. Use in viral infections
C. Route of administration
D. All of the above
A
C. Route of administration
18
Q
It is an inhibitor of 30s protein synthesis
A. Lincomycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. All of the above
A
B. Tetracycline
19
Q
Factors to consider in the selection of antibiotic:
A. Length of infection
B. Nature infection
C. Cost of the anti-infective agent
D. All of the above
A
D. All of the above
20
Q
Leeuwenhoek’s microorganisms include the following except:
A. Protozoan
B. Algae
C. Arthropod
D. Virus
A
C. Arthropod
21
Q
Beneficial uses of microbes:
A. Food
B. Medicine
C. Beverage
D. Aota
A
D. Aota
22
Q
Smallest form of infectious agent
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Virus
D. Aota
A
C. Virus
23
Q
Affects pathogenecity of
A. Release of toxins by host
B. Production of antibodies
C. Damaging the host cells
D. Aota
A
C. Damaging the host cells
24
Q
Known as systemic constitutional signs/symptoms during viral infection except:
A. Fever
B. Knee Pain
C. Myalgia
D. NOTA
A
B. Knee Pain
25
Classification of viruses based on genetic components
Subcellular classification
26
Known as categorical classification of bacteria
A. Species
B. Family
C. Class
D. Genus
A. Species
27
It is the inhibition of microbial growth
A. Bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Sterilization
D. Aota
B. Bacteriostatic
28
Host that harbors the infection but does not show sign and symptoms:
Reservoir host
29
Type of symbiotic relationship of E. coli in the GIT:
Mutualism
30
```
Fungi
A. Food
B. Medicine
C. Beverage
D. Aota
```
D. Aota
31
Father of Taxonomy
A. Koch
B. Pasteur
C. Linnaeus
D. Red
C. Linnaeus
32
Field of Microbiology that deals on identification of disease using antibody testing
Serology
33
Lives on dead or decomposing matter:
A. Autotrophic
B. Heterotrophic
C. Serotrophic
D. Saprophytic
D. Saprophytic
34
Woese-Fox Classification except:
Protista
35
It is a study on the degree of relatedness between groups of living things:
Phylogeny
36
The ff. are present in prokaryotic cell
Nucleoid with genetic material
37
The least sensitive agent among the three
A. Staph
B. Escheriachia
C. Pseudomonas
D. None of the above
C. Pseudomonas
38
The least effective among the agents:
A. Quat
B. Chlorine
C. Phenylphenol
D. Hexacholrophene
D. Hexacholrophene
39
Which is the broad spectrum agent:
Chlorine
40
Which is the most diff to control among 3 agents based on above results:
Pseudomonas
41
Infectious agents can activate the complement system by triggering the cellular substance/s?
A. All of the above
B. Factor B
C. Factor D
D. Properdin
A. All of the above
42
The end result of all the complement pathways is the production of?
Membrane Attack Complex
43
Dominic, a 9 yo boy is playing with his new pet cat when he started having repeated bouts of sneezing and colds. He was brought to his pediatrician and was diagnosed to have an allergic reaction. What immune response is mediated by what type of immunoglobulin?
IgE
44
Microbial component which primarily prevents it from being phagocytized?
Capsule
45
Microbial component which primarily prevents it from being phagocytized?
Capsule
46
Staphylococcus epidermis found in skin scraping
They are commensals that are found naturally on human skin
47
Immunity that is present at birth
Innate immunity
48
Organism benefits from the other while one is unaffected
Commensalism
49
Theses cells ingest microbes
Macrophages
50
A congressman is undergoing a chemotherapy which downregulates his immune system. Which is true of his situation?
A. He is immunocompromised state and all his defenses don’t function fully
B. He should be vigilant of infection
C. Opportunistic infections could set in the
body
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
51
Sebastian was assigned by your professor to perform stool examination of a children in a community who have been reported to have multiple cases of malnutrition. You found out that majority of the children has intestinal worms causing malnutrition. What is true if the child?
The child is considered the host and is harmed by the intestinal worms
52
One organism benefits by deriving nutrients at the expense of others
Parasitism
53
You were assigned as a medicolegal officer investigating a crime scene you saw some blood stains on the floor and decided to take a sample to determine if it is a human blood you did an ouchterlogy assay after processing you saw definite white line between the human and the anti-sera and the sample this indicates that there is?
```
A. Human antibody antigen interaction
B. No interaction between human anti sera
and antigen
C. A need to repeat the test
D. Nota
```
A. Human antibody antigen interaction
54
Having E. coli in the gastrointestinal tract of humans under normal conditions is an example of which type of symbiotic relationship?
A. Commensalism
B. Parasitism
C. Normal flora
D. Mutualism
D. Mutualism
55
Every Wednesday, children flock with their mothers to their nearest health center to receive vaccination. Vaccines given at the health center are usually composed of weakened antigens of microorganisms designed to elicit an immune response from the patient producing antibodies which is a form of:
A. Live attenuated vaccine
B. Active immunization
C. Innate immunity
D. Passive immunization
B. Active immunization
56
You were instructed to perform a complement fixation test. You noted that there is sedimentation at the bottom of the test tube. This means that:
A. There should be precipitation instead of sedimentation
B. There are not enough unbound complement proteins to cause hemolysis
C. A white precipitation line will indicate antibody-antigen reaction
D. There are enough amounts of free complement proteins causing clumping of the sample cells at the bottom of the test tube
B. There are not enough unbound complement proteins to cause hemolysis
57
You were assigned by your professor to perform stool examination of children in a community who have been reported to have multiple causes of malnutrition. You found out that majority of the children have worms causing malnutrition. In this relationship, what is true of the intestinal worm?
A. The child is harmed by the relationship
B. The intestinal worm does not harm the child.
C. The intestinal worm draws its nutrition from the child and in turn causing...
D. The intestinal worm is in a mutualistic relationship with the child
C. The intestinal worm draws its nutrition from the child and in turn causing...
58
Rob, a medical clerk rotating at the emergency room, was called in to attend to a trauma case. Upon approaching the patient to assist, he accidentally pricked his finger with an unused needle. He was afterwards, given anti-tetanus immunoglobulin which is a form of:
Passive immunity
59
Globulins produced in response to antigens:
Immunoglobulins
60
The ability of an organism to vary expressions in their antigenic property.
Antigenic Variation
61
Phagocytosis is efficient in which complement protein?
C3b
62
The ability of an organism to cause disease by overcoming the defense of a host:
Pathogenicity
63
These toxins are liberated when the bacteria die and the cell walls break apart which can cause illness:
Endotoxins
64
A microorganism w/c does not ordinarily cause disease but become pathogenic under certain conditions:
Opportunistic
65
Sansa, a 13 yr old child was brought to the clinic due to 2 days of fever w/ associated maculopapular to petechial rashes on her skin. She was dx to have dengue w/c is spread by getting bitten by an infected Aedes aegypti mosquito. In this case, transmission of dengue via the mosquito is considered as:
Biological transmission
66
Disease that occurs primarily in wild and domestic animals and can be transmitted to humans.
Zoonoses
67
Passive transport of pathogens.
Mechanical transmission
68
You blew your nose on a piece of tissue and decided to place it to the desk beside you. The piece of used tissue can harbor infectious microorganisms and pass it on to your classmates via:
a. Indirect transmission
b. Direct transmission
c. Vehicular transmission
d. Airborne transmission
a. Indirect transmission
69
Location where adaptive response develops
A. Spleen
B. Thymus
C. Bone marrow
D. Aota
D. Aota
70
NK cells are prevented from attacking host cellsdue to the inhibition by:
MHC Class
71
Location where adaptive response develops
A. Spleen
B. Thymus
C. Bone marrow
D. Aota
D. Aota
72
The boy was playing with his new pet cat when he had repeated bouts of sneezing. He was diagnosed to have allergic reaction. What type of immune response:
IgE
73
A relationship between two organisms in which at least one is dependent on the other:
Symbiosis
74
This is system includes serum and membrane bound protein that both function in an innate and adaptive immune response.
Complement system
75
Immunoglobilin that crosses the placenta:
IgG
76
Response of complement:
chemotaxis, opsonization, anaphylactic, inflammation
77
Positive reaction of ouchterlony test
White precipitates of antibody- antigen complexes between positive samples.
78
A host who harbours the pathogen but does not exhibit signs and symptoms.
Reservoir.
79
Determine number of microorganism in serulotion test of 1/10. Culture on 5th sample has 30 bacteria colony.if test 1 is 1/10, # of microorgansim
150,1.5million, 1500,
3 million
80
True of blood typing test?
A. Agglutination of anti sera AB, patients blood type is O
B. Agglutination of anti sera A, patient blood type is A
C. Agglutination of anti sera A, patientd blood type is B
D. Lack of Agglutination of both anti sera A and anti sera b, patients blood type is AB
B. Agglutination of anti sera A, patient blood type is A
81
The vulnerability of an organism to disease caused by microbes or their products:
Susceptibility
82
Control of healthcare related infections is achieved through:
Educating staff members about basic infection control measures
83
Geneticmaterial
Conjugation
84
Answer
Cytoplasmic membrane
85
Substance found in bacterial cell wall that renders it resistant to chemicals and acid fastness
Mycolic acid
86
Threadlike appendages of bacteria used as organ of locomotion
Flagella
87
Which of the following match its function:
Topoisomerase-relaxes DNA
88
Which media allow certain types of organisms to grow and inhibit the growth of other organisms:
Selective
89
Bacterial cell wall owes its strength to the murein layer of:
Peptidoglycan
90
Biocides acts by:
All of the above (damage to DNA, protein denaturation, disruption of the cell membrane or wall)
91
Property of Biocide that kills bacteria:
Bactericidal
92
Center of protein synthesis in prokaryotic cells:
Ribosomes
93
Sterilization:
Process use to render a surface or product free from viable organisms, including bacterial spores
94
Characteristic of lag phase:
Immediately following inoculation there is no appreciable increase in number, though there may be increase in size
95
A single endospore can germinate into___ vegetative cells.
Two
96
The DNA of prokaryotes are found in:
Nucleoid
97
This media is particularly useful if mixed population of organism is present in a specimen.
Enrichment Media
98
Which if the ff. Is true of induction:
(nakalimutan yung choices sorry)
99
Characterized by the presence of pathogenic microbes in living tissues or associated fluids
Septic
100
A chemical or physical agent, usually broad spectrum, that inactivates microorganisms
Biocide
101
Steps in DNA Replication
Initiation, elongation, termination
102
Increases antigenicity and endotoxicity of the bacteria:
Lipopolysaccharide
103
Increases antigenicity and endotoxicity of the bacteria:
Lipopolysaccharide
104
Gram negative cell wall component consisting og antigen specific glycolipid and polysaccharide:
Lipopolysaccharide
105
Eukaryotic DNA bind to this basic protein that interact with DNA through ionic bond:
Histone
106
Complex and precisely regulated inducible defense mechanism that allows the specific discrimination between self and non-self.
Immune Response
107
True of innate and adaptive immunity:
They interact and augment the effect each other.
108
Which is involved in humoral immunity?
Natural killer cells
109
Toxin induced reaction?
Humoral immunity
110
Whar type of lymphocytes are involved in cell mediated immunity?
CD4 and CD8
111
The prevention of immune response to an antigen
Immune tolerance
112
AIDS suppresses immune responses producing overwhelming infections.
Cell mediated immune response
113
Immune responses induced as a result of treatment with large doses of antigen.
Immune paralysis
114
Fever, cachexia, anti-tumor and cell activation:
TNF Alpha
115
Not an antibody mediated immunity:
Contact Hypersensitivity
116
Which interleukin has antiviral property?
Interferon alpha
117
Which hypersensitivity reaction involves the antihistamine prostaglandin and thromboxane?
Type1
118
Atopy is an example of?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
A. Type I
119
Type of hypersensitivity that involves transfusion or RH reactions, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, rheumatic fever, penicillin- induced hemolysis and Graves disease.
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
B. Type II
120
Glomerulonephritis
Type 3-Hypersensitivity
121
Infection of group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
Type 1-Hypersensitivity
122
Factors of immunologic failure except:
A. Unknown
B. Malnutrition
C. Interference
D. Allergic reactions
D. Allergic reactions
123
Antigen bindings to antibody causing cell mediated lysis
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
B. Type 2
124
Which is not a complication of vaccine?
Malnutrition
125
What vaccine should be given at birth?
HepB
126
Most commons serious primary immune deficiency in adults:
Common variable immune
127
Most common Immunodeficiency:
AIDS
128
Screening test for HIV:
ELISA
129
Most common immuno deficiency in adults:
Selective IgA Def.
130
Example of live vaccine except
A. Hep A
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. Mumps
A. Hep A
131
True of live vaccines except
A. Protection often not optimal, vaccination has to be repeated several times
B. Living pathogens with reduced virulence
C. The microorganisms reproduce in the vaccinated person, providing very good
stimulation of the immune system
D. Do not use in immunocompromised persons because it can cause significant
pathology, and during pregnancy
A. Protection often not optimal, vaccination has to be repeated several times
132
Example of killed viral vaccine except:
Varicella zoster
133
Example of natural passive immunity:
Placental igG, colostrum
134
Rapid analysis of cell types present in blood sample:
Flow cytometry
135
Confirmatory of HIV
Western blot
136
Screening for HI
ELISA
137
Immunological test that detects the hemolytic antibodies and Rh incompatibility
Coombs test
138
The most common serious primary immunodeficiency in adults.
Common Variable Immunodeficiency
139
The most common primary
| immunodeficiency in adults:
Selective IgA deficiency
140
The most common immunodeficiency worldwide:
AIDS
141
Two non motile member of Enterobacteriaceae..?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Shigella
D. B and C
D. B and C
142
Important cause of diarrhea with infant and nursery; identified as H and O antigen?
A. Enteropathogenic E. coli
B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
C. Shiga toxin producing E. coli D. Enteroinvasive E. coli
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli
A. Enteropathogenic E. coli
143
14 days Travelers diarrhae:
Enteroaggregative
144
Like shigallosis:
Enteroinvasive
145
Pinkish spots on abdomen and chest. Positive in typhidot IgM?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Proteus
D. E. Coli
B. Salmonella
146
True of causative organism (salmonella)
A. Ferment glucose and mannose without
B. Do not ferment lactose or sucrose
C. Both are correct
D. None are correct
C. Both are correct
147
NT, a 47 year old woman who was diagnosed with nephrolithiasis had UTI. Culture was done and revealed urease positive organism. Colonies exhibited swarming motility.
Proteus
148
Clinical findings include straining and tenesmus. Stool is positive for blood and mucus.
Shigella
149
O157:H7 is the most common serotype; it is also negative for Sorbitol and MUG test (beta-glucuronide)
Shiga Toxin Producing E. Coli (STEC)
150
Flagellar Antigen:
H
151
Lipopolysaccharide antigen:
O
152
Capsular Antigen :
C
153
True regarding prevention and control of salmonella:
Aota
154
Rapid lactose fermenters:
Escherichia, Enterobacter, Klebsiella
155
Streak
Simmon citrate agar
156
Stab
Sulfide indole motility
157
Stab streak:
TSI
158
Greenish metallic sheen:
ENB
159
Mucoid esp. on MacConkey:
Klebsiella
160
Not so mucoid:
Enterobacter
161
Red with black halo
Salmonella
162
Green fruity scent
Pseudomonas
163
Swarming motility, urease (+)
Proteus
164
Nonmotile, colorless on SSA
Shigella
165
Drug of choice of Streptococcus pyogenes
Penicillin G
166
Dose of erythro and penicillin tissue effect dose
A. 8 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days
B. 10 days
167
Ultimate source of S. pyogenes:
Subclinical infected people
168
Nonlipophilic bacteria:
Ulcerans
169
Group D non gonococcal
S. bovis
170
Vogues Proskauer
S. anginosus
171
Upper respiratory tract and normal in mucus
S. milleri
172
Dextrans levans
S. mutans
173
Requires pyridoxal and cysteine for growth in blood agar
Nutritional deficient strep
174
Forms dome-shaped colonies later forming a central plateau with an elevated rim
Streptococcus pneumoniae
175
Capsule swelling with polyvalent antiserum
Quellung reaction
176
DOC for S. pneumoniae
Penicillin
177
Virulence of C. diphtheria is mainly due to
Absorption of toxin produced
178
Diagnostic laboratory test for
C. Diphtheriae
A. Dacron swab
B. Blood agar
C. Thayer martin
A. Dacron swab
179
Effect of diphtheria toxin:
A. Fatty infiltrates
B. Parenchyma degeneration C. Nerve damage
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
180
This process involves the use of a filter paper disk containing antitoxin and inoculum 7 to 9mm away from the disk
Modified Elek Method
181
Anaerobic corynebacteria normally residing in skin causes infections of prosthetic heart valve and CSF shunts.
Propionobacterium acnes
182
Treatment for S. Pneumoniae:
Penicillin G
183
Basis of lancefield classification:
Carbohydrate group specific substance
184
Antigenic structure of streptococcus:
M protein
T substance
Nucleic proteins
AOTA
AOTA
M protein
T substance
Nucleic proteins
185
Responsible for differences of certain strep types by agglutination with anti-serum
T substance
186
Characteristics of matte colony form of S. pyogenes
More virulent
187
Major virulence factor with hair-like projections
M Protein
188
Enzyme associated with streptokinase used in enzymatic debridement and liquefy exudates-
Streptodornase
189
They act are considered superantigens thay stimulates production of T cells and release of cytokines that mediates shock and injury
A. Erythogenic
B. Pyrogenic
C. A and B
D. None of the above
C. A and B
190
This disease usually preceeds an acute infection after a skin infection:
Glomeronephritis
191
Lethal dose of diphtheria toxin
0.1ug/kg
192
Arrest protein synthesis producing the necritizing and neurotoxic effects
Fragment a
193
Drug of choice for C. Diptheria
Penicillin
194
Lipophilic Corynebacteria that can be isolated from acutely ill or immunocompromised patients
Jeikeium
195
Gram positive rod that forms branches with abscess and endocarditis:
Rothia dentacariosa
196
(Non-verbatim): Px consults the clinic and presented with dysuria with episode of painful urination confessed of having unprotected sex
G(-)cocci in pair
197
How would you collect this organism for culture
A. Pus smear from penis directly to slide
B. Use dacron swab
C. Have the pt collect pus and place on sterile container
D. Collect stool on pt
B. Use dacron swab
198
Inoculated media of this organism requires the presence of?
A. Water
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Sulfuric acid
C. Carbon dioxide
199
This agar contains vancomycin, colistin, nystatin and trimethoprim:
A. MTM
B. Potato blood agar
C. Chocolate agar
D. Mueller-Hinton agar
A. MTM
200
Colonies of the organism growing on the previous number:
A. Are golden yellow and opaque
B. Fresh green colonies with gray halo
C. Large and slightly tinged with blue
D. Translucent and beige gray
70.
71.
72. Chronic gonorrhea in female can lead to
(Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) PID
73. Antibiotic resistant strain in N. gonorrhea produce:
Penicillinase
74. True of family niceriae:
gram negative, occurs in pairs 75. Causes genital infections:
N. gonnorhea
76. Typical of Neisseriae?
When in pairs, concave sides are adjacent
77. Preferred culture media for Neisseriae EXCEPT?
A. Mueller-Hinton
B. Modified Thayer Martin C. Martin Lewis
D. Blood agar
D. Translucent and beige gray
201
Waterhouse friderichsen syndrome causing hemorrhagic destruction of what organ:
Adrenal Glands
202
Colonies of the organism growing on the previous number:
A. Are golden yellow and opaque
B. Fresh green colonies with gray halo
C. Large and slightly tinged with blue
D. Translucent and beige gray
D. Translucent and beige gray
203
Waterhouse friderichsen syndrome causing hemorrhagic destruction of what organ:
Adrenal Glands
204
Chronic gonorrhea in female can lead to
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) PID
205
Antibiotic resistant strain in N. gonorrhea produce:
Penicillinase
206
True of family niceriae:
gram negative, occurs in pairs
207
Causes genital infections:
N. gonnorhea
208
Typical of Neisseriae?
When in pairs, concave sides are adjacent
209
Preferred culture media for Neisseriae EXCEPT?
A. Mueller-Hinton
B. Modified Thayer Martin C. Martin Lewis
D. Blood agar
D. Blood agar
210
Meninggococi and gonococci grows best:
Rich in organic complex substance
211
Rapid killing of neiserriae:
Salt
212
Endotoxic effects and main cause of toxicity in neisseriae-
LOS
213
Protein that extend to cell membrane-
POR
214
Flagellated structure
Pilli
215
Function in the adhesion of gonococci within colonies and host.
Opa
216
Makes the gonococci resistant to human antibody-complement system
Sialylation
217
Responsible for many meningococci
A. LPS
B. Opa
C. Pili
D. Por
A. LPS
218
Portal entry point of meningococci
Nasopharynx
219
Specimen useful in diagnosing meningococcemia except
A. Blood
B. Spinal Fluid
C. Sputum
D. Puncture material from petichiae
C. Sputum
220
Presumptive colony of neisseria on solid media can be identified by
A. Catalase
B. Coagulase
C. Acid
D. Oxidase
D. Oxidase
221
N. meningitidis: eradicate carrier state and act as chemoprophylaxis
A. Penicillin G
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Rifampin
D. 3rd Gen Cephalosporin
C. Rifampin
222
Associated with implanted appliances and devices:
A. S. aureus
B. S. epidermidis
C. S. saprophyticus
D. S. haemolyticus
B. S. epidermidis
223
Coagulase negative-
| Characteristic of antimicrobial activity
S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus
224
Usually forms gray to white colonies in primary isolation
S. epidermidis
225
Lactamase in staph is regulated by
Plasmid
226
Lactamase in staph is regulated by
Plasmid
227
Staphylococcus forms pigment best at temperature.
A. 20-23C
B. 23-25C
C. 20-25C
D. 23-27C
C. 20-25C
