Radio LE2 Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q
  1. hofman rigler sign to denote left ventricular enlargement is elicited in the

a. apicolordotic view
b. ap view
c. lateral view
d. PA view

A

c. lateral view

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2
Q
  1. this chamber is not border forming in the frontal chest radiograph

a. right atrium
b. right ventricle
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle

A

b. right ventricle

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3
Q
  1. retrosternal fullness in the lateral chest radiograph in enlargement of the heart means

a. enlarged LA
b. enlarged LV
c. enlarged RA
d. enlarged RV

A

d. enlarged RV

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4
Q
  1. double density appearance inferior to the bifurcation of the carina on chest pa xray is seen in

a. right atrial enlargement
b. rv enlargement
c. la enlargement
d. lv enlargement

A

c. la enlargement

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5
Q
  1. the normal carinal angle is

a. 30
b. 50
c. 70
d. 90

A

c. 70

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6
Q
  1. lateral displacement and bulging of right cardiac border seen on chest pa is seen in

a. right atrial enlargement
b. rv enlargement
c. la enlargement
d. lv enlargement

A

a. right atrial enlargement

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7
Q
  1. the normal caliber of the right descending pulmonary artery is

a. 1.5 cm
b. as wide as the tracheal column
c. both
d. none

A

c. both

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8
Q
  1. Upliftment and rounding of cardiac apex is seen in

a. right atrial enlargement
b. rv enlargement
c. la enlargement
d. lv enlargement

A

b. rv enlargement

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9
Q
  1. in left to right shunt cardiac anomalies, the pulmonary vascularity is usually

a. increased
b. decreased
c. not affected
d. not reliable sign

A

a. increased

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10
Q
  1. in right to left shunt cardiac anomalies, the pulmonary vascularity is usually

a. increased
b. decreased
c. not affected
d. not reliable sign

A

b. decreased

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11
Q
  1. a child who was born a blue baby presents with tet spells relieved by squatting position. What is expected chest xray finding in this patient

a. boot shaped
b. box shaped
c. egg on its side
d. 3 sign

A

a. boot shaped

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12
Q
  1. the chest xray of asymptomatic young adult showed inc pulmonary vascularity with dilated MPA. There was cardiomegaly with involvement of the right atrium and right ventricle. What is primary shunt anomaly considered?

a. Asd
b. mitral septal defect
c. pda
d. vsd

A

a. Asd

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13
Q
  1. a 30yo g1p0 on her 28th week AOGw2 suddenly became cyanotic and dyspneic. She was diagnosed to have vsd earlier in childhood that was not repaired surgically. Given the inc volume and hormonal changes brought about by pregnancy. What could explain her symptoms

a. ebsteins syndrome
b. eisenmengger syndrome
c. hyperviscosity syndrome
d. undiagnosed case of sle

A

b. eisenmengger syndrome

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14
Q
  1. a cyanotic newborns chest radiograph revealed hypovascularity with a box shaped heart. What is basis of imaging feature of this chd.

a. congential complete absence of right ventricular myocardium
b. inferiorly displaced and dysplastic tricuspid valve with atrialization of the rv
c. prolonged stenosis resulting in right bentricular hypertrophy assoc with vsd
d. reversal of left to right shunt secondary to increased pressure and volume overload

A

b. inferiorly displaced and dysplastic tricuspid valve with atrialization of the rv

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15
Q
  1. a cyanotic newborns chest radiograph showed an egg on its side cardiac configuration with hypervascularity. What is radiographic diagnosis

a. Tof
b. Tapvr
c. transposition of great vessels
d. tricuspid insufficiency

A

c. transposition of great vessels

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16
Q
  1. a non cyanotic neonate presents with murmurs. Chest radiograph showed increased pulmonary vascularity with carinal angle splaying double conttour, downward drooping of the cardiac apex on ap view and retrosternal fullness on lateral view. The aorta is small and diminutive. What is diagnosis

a. asd
b. pda
c. pah
d. vsd

A

d. vsd

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17
Q
  1. another non cyanotic newborn presents with the same findings above however aorta is significantly prominent. Diagnosis?

a. Asd
b. Pda
c. Pah
d. Vsd

A

b. Pda

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18
Q
  1. what cardiac anomaly distinguishes tof from pentalogy of fallot

a. asd
b. pda
c. pah
d. vsd

A

a. asd

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19
Q
  1. rib notching is seen in

a. aberrent left subclavian artery
b. coarctation of the aorta
c. double aortic arch
d. pulmonary sling

A

b. coarctation of the aorta

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20
Q
  1. tapvr results from an abnormal connection of pulmonary veins with right atrium or systemic circulation. Which type manifests with a snowman appearance on chest radiographs

a. cardiac
b. infracardiac
c. supracardiac
d. mixed

A

c. supracardiac

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21
Q
  1. right sided aorta is commonly associated with

a. aortic stenosis
b. pulmonary agenesis
c. tof
d. cardiomegaly

A

c. tof

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22
Q
  1. a 19yo student underwent chest radiograph for school requirement. She was recently diagnosed to have asd. What is expected radiographic findings

a. dec pulmonary vascularity
b. double density
c. prominent aorta
d. retrosternal fullness

A

d. retrosternal fullness

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23
Q
  1. a 10yo boy diagnosed with vsd. What is expected finding

a. bulging of right cardiac margin
b. splaying of carinal angle
c. right sided aorta
d. neg hofman rigler sign

A

b. splaying of carinal angle

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24
Q
  1. a 28yo model had silicone injections in both breasts 10 years ago. Pt now complains of palpable nodules. What is best imaging modality to assess patient

a. mammo
b. mri
c. utz
d. histopath

A

b. mri

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25
25. a mammographic finding of an extremely dense breast tissue was given a score of bi rads 0. What is the next best step a. additional mammogram utilizing different views b. biopsy c. mri d. utz
d. utz
26
26. linguine sign is seen in a. collagen b. fibroadenoma c. implant rupture d. invasive ductal carcinoma
c. implant rupture
27
27. classified as bi rads 5 a. angulated mass with areas of necrosis b. lobulared nodule with microcal c. spiculated mass with macrocal d. spiculated mass with microcal
d. spiculated mass with microcal
28
28. most common site where cancers and fibrocystic changes arise a. acini or ductules b. coopers ligament c. extralobular terminal duct d. terminal ductal lobular unit
d. terminal ductal lobular unit
29
29. a patients mammogram showed birads 4b. What is next best step a. biopsy b. mri c. utz d. aota
a. biopsy
30
30. 23 yo with a finding of nodular density in mammogram wc proved to be a simple cyst in biopsy is classified as a. birads 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
c. 2
31
what is coroncary calcium score that indicates an extensive plaque burden a. 300-400 b. >400 c. 101-400 d. <400
b. >400
32
32. which of the following is not a complication of mi? a. dresslers b. lutembacher c. ventricular aneurysm d. myocardial rupture (17:31)
b. lutembacher
33
33. it accounts for 90% of all cardiomyopathies a. dilated b. restricted c. hypertrophic d. ihss
a. dilated
34
34. cor pulmonale is defined as a. right ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary parenchymal or pulmonary arterial disease b. left ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary parenchymal or pulmonary arterial disease c. left atrial failure secondary to pulmonary parenchymal or pulmonary arterial disease d. right atrial failure secondary to pulmonary parenchymal or pulmonary arterial disease
a. right ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary parenchymal or pulmonary arterial disease
35
arythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia a. Lutembacher b. loffler endocardial fibrosis c. barlows syndrome d. uhl anomaly
c. barlows syndrome
36
36. most common causes of dilated cardiomegaly a. muscular dystrophy b. toxin c. ischemic cardiomyopathy d. long term myocarditis
c. ischemic cardiomyopathy
37
37. features of mitral valve prolapse except a. autosommal dominant b. honking type of murmur c. reiters syndrome d. barlow syndrome
c. reiters syndrome
38
38. type of fixed subarotic stenossi that has funnel like restriction of the left ventricle outflow tract a. type i b. type iii c. type ii d. type iv
d. type iv
39
39. an acquired valvular heart disease that is a combination seen in marfan syndrome and Williams syndrome a. supravalvular aortic stenosis b. pulmonary stenosis c. subvalvular stenosis d. infundibular pulmonary stenosis
a. supravalvular aortic stenosis
40
40. features of cardiomyopathy except a. failure to maintain architecture b. failure to maintain normal electricl activity c. failure to maintain cardiac output d. failure to maintain vascularity
d. failure to maintain vascularity
41
41. which of the ff is not a risk factor for cad a. obesity b. chronic inflammation c. male gender d. decreased c-reactive protein
d. decreased c-reactive protein
42
42. which is not an indication for coronary angiography a. unstable angina b. high risk occupation (pilots) c. hypertensive patient d. abnormal ecg
c. hypertensive patient
43
43. a complication of mi that has an abrupt onset of mitral regurgitation and pulmonary edema a. papillary muscle rupture b. myocardial rupture c. ventricular aneurysm d. cardiogenic shock
a. papillary muscle rupture
44
44. what syndrome is associated with MI a. barlow b. dressler c. noonan d. lutembacher
b. dressler
45
45. mitral stenosis with pre existing asd a. barlow b. dressler c. marfan d. lutembacher
d. lutembacher
46
46. Type of subaortic stensosis that has thin membrane with <2cm below the valve a. Type I b. Type III c. II d. IV
a. Type I
47
47. Acquired valvular disease that has honking type of murmur with mild systolic flick a. Aortic stenosis b. mitral regurgitation c. aortic insufficiency d. mitral valve prolapsed
d. mitral valve prolapsed
48
48. form of cardiomyopathy associated with neurofibromatosis and noonan syndrome a. dilated cardiomyopathy b. right ventricular cardiomyopathy c. restrictive cardiomyopathy d. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
d. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
49
49. 50% coronary calcification is seen in symptomatic patient with a. single vessel disease b. two vessel c. three vessel d. 4-vessel
a. single vessel disease
50
50. Coronary calcium score with less than 5% chance of CAD a. 0 b. 1-10 c. 11-100 d. 101-400
c. 11-100
51
1. Clinical presentations of coronary artery dse a. Stable angina b. Myocardial infarction c. Congestive heart failure d. Aota
d. Aota
52
2. Risk factors for CAD
a. Tobacco smoking
53
3. Indications for coronary angiography:
a. High risk occupations (pilots)
54
4. Complications of myocardial infarc: a. Cardiogenic shock b. Atrioventricular block c. RVI d. All
d. All
55
5. Causes of CHF:
a. Cardiomyopathy
56
6. MC Cardiomyopathy
a. Dilated
57
7. MC cause of 6:
a. Ischemic cardiomyopathy | * check table
58
8. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
a. Normal ventricular wall
59
9. Dilated Cardiomyopathy
a. Thick left ventricular wall
60
10. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
a. Thin left ventricular wall
61
11. Causes of Pulmonary Venous HTN a. Mitral Stenosis b. Aortic Regurgitation c. LVF d. All
d. All
62
12. Flappy? Mitral Valve
a. Mitral Valve Prolapse
63
13. Chest Radiograph of Aortic stenosis
a. Left Ventricular Prominence
64
14. MC Primary Benign Tumor
a. Atrial Myxoma
65
15. Causes of Pericardial Effusion a. Infectious b. Drug-induced c. CHF d. All
d. All
66
16. Myxomas occur:
a. Left Atrium
67
17. True of cardiac masses a. Ang b. Haba c. Pero d. aota
d. aota
68
18. Detecting intra-cardiac tumors
a. MRI
69
19. Detecting loculated pericardial effusion
a. CT Scan
70
20. Chest x-ray of mitral regurg a. LA Enlargement b. LV Prominence c. Carinal Swaying d. All
d. All
71
LV enlagement in frontal
a. Lateral and downward displacement of apex
72
22. Hoffman rigler sign
a. Lateral view
73
23. Chamber not in frontal
a. RV
74
24. Retrosternal fullness in lateral
a. Enlarged RV
75
25. Double density appearance
a. LA enlargement
76
26. Retrosternal Fullness
a. Enlarged RV
77
27. Normal carinal angle
a. 70
78
28. CT Ratio:
a. Cardiac Diameter / Widest horizontal thoracic diameter
79
29. Normal CT Ratio in upright, full respi effort:
a. 0.5
80
30. Upliftment and rounding
a. RV Enlargement
81
31. Frontal chest x-ray – aortic knob:
a. Superior of pulmonary (something) segment
82
32. LA enlargement – front
a. > 70 carinal angle (spaying??)
83
33. LR Shunt:
a. Pulmonary Vascularty inc
84
34. Blue baby
a. Boot-shaped heart
85
35. Chest x-ray of young adult, inc pulmo vasc, dilated pulmo artery, primary shunt anomaly?
a. ASD (adult, VSD – Bata)
86
37. Cyanotic newborn, boot-shaped heart:
a. Infirior displaced and dysplastic tricuspid with arterialization of RV
87
44. Non-invasive modality
a. CT Coronary angiography
88
45. R-Sided Aorta
a. ToF
89
46. Waterbottle
a. Pericardial effusion
90
47. Complete vascular ring – compressing aorta and esophagus
a. Double aorta
91
48. Most specific finding of aortic dissection
a. Intimal flap
92
49. Dissecting aneurism – descending aorta only
a. Type 2
93
Most common cause of mortality in the US
coronary artery disease
94
Coronary Artery Disease Imaging Work up
- CRX - Nuclear medicine myocardial perfusion scan - coronary angiography
95
Coronary Calcium Scoring ``` 0 1-10 11-100 101-400 >400 ```
* 0–no identifiable atherosclerotic plaque; less than 5% chance of CAD * 1-10–minimal plaque burden; unlikely CAD * 11-100–mild plaque burden; minimal coronary stenosis * 101-400–moderate plaque burden; moderate non-obstructive CAD * >400 –extensive plaque burden; high likelihood of at least one coronary stenosis (>50% diameter)
96
mc of all cardiomyopathies
DILATED CARDIOMYOPATHY
97
Lutembacher syndrome =
Mitral stenosis with preexisting ASD -> right sided enlargement
98
AP Right Border / Curvatures
o Superior vena cava o Right atrium o Inferior vena cava
99
AP Left Border / Curvatures
o Aortic knob o Main pulmonary trunk o Left ventricle
100
not normally seen in lateral view
right atrium
101
MC ventricle enlargement
left ventricle - caused by hypertension
102
hoffman-rigler sign
left ventricle enlargement
103
chamber last to enlarge
right atrium