Microbio Exam 3 Flashcards

To pass this fucking class lol (115 cards)

1
Q

What are Gram Positive Cocci?

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

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2
Q

What are Gram negative Cocci?

A

Neisseria

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3
Q

Name two features of Staphylococcus

A

Grapelike clusters
Catalase Positive

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4
Q

Name Two Features of Streptococcus

A

Chains
Catalase Negative

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5
Q

What is the coagulase positive staphyloccous

A

S. aureus

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6
Q

What is the coagulase negative Staphylococcus

A

S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus

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7
Q

What can S. Aureus cause

A

Folliculitis
Furuncle
Carbuncle
Impegito

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8
Q

What else can Staphylococcus cause?

A

Toxigenic diseases such as food intoxication, staphylococcal scaled skin syndrome, and toxic shock syndrome

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9
Q

What toxin induces bright red flush, blisters, then slow decaudation of the epidermis

A

Exfoliation Toxin

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10
Q

Toxemia leading to shock and organ failure is called

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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11
Q

What is the almost always nosocomial normal flora that only causes diseases when it enters the bloodstream

A

S. epidermidis

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12
Q

What is the almost always community acquired UTI in young, sexually active women?

A

Staphylococcus/S. Saprophyticus

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13
Q

What are the classification systems based on the cell walls and the systems based on how it affects the blood

A

First system is called Lancefield classification, Second system is called hemolysis

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14
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

Hemolysis is a classification of how a gram-positive bacteria affects the bloodstream based on how well it eradicates/limits RBC function

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15
Q

What are the B bacteria hemolysis capable of?

A

Breaking down red blood cells, eliminating them entirely

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16
Q

What are A hemolysis bacteria capable of?

A

Partial and incomplete breakdown red blood cells, turning them green

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17
Q

S pyogenes is a

A

Group A-Beta

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18
Q

S. agalactiae is a

A

Group B-Beta

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19
Q

S. pneumoniae

A

N/A - Alpha

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20
Q

The important virulence factor in streptococcus pyogenes

A

M-Protein

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21
Q

What facilitates the spread of streptococcus through tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

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22
Q

What can stimulate fever, rash, and shock?

A

Pyrogenic toxins

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23
Q

What causes superficial lesions to break and form highly contagious crust; often in epidemics in school children

A

Impetigo

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24
Q

What is Streptococcal pharyngitis

A

Strep Throat

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25
What are other diseases caused by S. pyogenes (there are four)
Scarlet Fever, Septicemia Pneumonia, Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
26
What follows overt or subclinical pharyngitis in children, causing extensive valve damage in the heart?
Rheumatic fever
27
What is the long term complication of Group A infections that can cause kidney damage and could become chronic?
Acute glomerulonephritis
28
What is the exotoxin that is a superantigen that causes dissolving skin tissue?
Necrotizing fasciits
29
What is the only group B disease that regularly resides in human vagina and is only serious in pregnant women?
Streptococcus agalactiae
30
What is the most serious infection of alpha-hemolysis streptococci that affects the heart
Subacute endocarditis
31
What causes plaque on teeth
Streptococcus mutans
32
What causes 60-70% of all bacterial pneumonias as well as meningitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
33
What are the two gram negative cocci human pathogens
Neisseria gonorrhoeae Neisseria meningitidis
34
What are the virulence factors of gonorrhea (two)
Fimbriae and an IgA protease
34
What causes gonorrhea
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
35
What causes yellowish discharge, scarring and infertility in men affected by gonorrhea
Urethritis
36
What are the virulence factors for Neisseria meningitis
capsules, adhesive fimbriae, IgA protease, endotoxins
37
What are the medically important gram positive bacilli? (four)
Bacillus Crostridium Corynebacterium Listeria
38
What are the endospore forming bacilli (Two)
Bacillus Clostridium
39
What is the dense survival unit that develops in a vegetative cell in response to nutrient depravation or other unfavorable conditions?
endospore
40
What are some general characteristics of Bacillus
Gram Positive Endospore Forming Rods Mostly Saprobic Aerobic, facultative anaerobes Primary habitat is soil
41
What are the two species of medical importance in Bacillus and what is the motility of them?
Anthracis - nonmotile Cereus - Motile
42
What are the four types of Anthrax?
Cutaneous Gastrointestinal Pulmonary Injectional
43
What is Bacillus cereus most commonly associated with
foods, mainly rice that is undercooked
44
What are some general characteristics of clostridium
Gram Positive Forms endospores Anaerobic (dies in presence of oxygen) Synthesize organic acids, alcohols, exotoxins
45
What is the most frequent clostridium involved in soft tissue and would infections
Clostridium perfringens
46
What is the localized death of muscle cell fibers caused by clostridium perfringens
Myonecrosis
47
What is the removal of diseased tissue / myonecrosis
Debridement
48
What causes tetanus or lockjaw
Clostridium tetani
49
What causes c-dif, a disease that produces the exotoxin that damages intestines
Clostridium difficile
50
What is the intoxication associated with inadequate food preservation?
Botulism
51
What is the spore-forming anaerobe, commonly inhabiting soil and water
Clostridium Botulinum
52
What happens when spores enter wound and cause food poisoning symptoms
Wound botulism
53
What are non-spore forming gram-positive bacteria that are resistant to cold, heat, salt, ph extremes, and biles
Listeria monocytogenes
54
What is caused by association with dairy products, poultry, and meat
Listeriosis
55
What causes Diphtheroid, a very serious respiratory condition
Corynebacterium Diphtheriae
56
What are the two stages of Diphtheria
1. Local infection in the upper respiratory tract infection (primary infection) 2. Diphtherotoxin production and toxemia, Targeting heart and nerves
57
What are the general characteristics of Mycobacterium
Gram-positive acid-fast Irregular bacteria Strict Aerobes Produce Catalase (reduces hydrogen peroxide)
58
Mycobacterium is a _______
Acid-Fast Bacilli
59
What are the clinical methods of detecting TB (tuberculosis)
1. Tuberculin sensitivity (Mantoux test) In vireo TB test Chest x-ray Acid-fast Staining Cultural isolation and biochemical testing
60
What causes leprosy/Hansen's diseases
Mycobacterium leprae
61
What is the cause of dissimilated mycobacterial infection in aids
Mycobacterium avium complex bacilli
62
What are the two forms of leprosis?
Tuberculoid Lepromatous
63
What causes Bacilli ulcers
Mycobacterium ulcerans
64
What causes turberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
65
pseudomonas is a _______ pathogen
opportunistic
66
Brucella and Francisella are _____ pathogens
zoonotic
67
Bordetella and Legionella are ______ pathogens
(mainly) human
68
What are some characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Common cause of nosocomial (hospital-borne) infections in hosts with burns, neoplastic disease, cystic fibrosis that causes complications such as pneumonia, UTI, abscesses, otitis, and corneal disease. Multidrug resistant and grapelike odor.
69
What causes tularemia, a zoonotic disease of mammals endemic to rabbits and primary vector is ticks?
Francisella tularensis
70
What causes pertussis or whooping cough, and what is the reservoir and transmission?
Bordetella pertussis reservoir - humans Transmission - Direct contact or inhalation of aerosols
71
What are the virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis
-Receptors that recognize and bind to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells Toxins that destroy and dislodge ciliated cells lead to buildup of mucus and blockage of airways
72
What are the three stages of Bordetella pertussis
1. Catarrhal stage (common cold) 2. Paroxysmal stage - Violent coughing sieges 3. Convalescence stage
73
What is the disease widely distributed in water, in close association with amoebas that has men at +50 at high risk (especially those in the HVAC industry)
Legionella pneumophila
74
What are coliforms?
lactose fermenters
75
The meaning of H is
flagellar antigen
76
The meaning of K is
Capsule and/or fimbrial antigen
77
The meaning of O is
The somatic or cell wall antigen
78
Not all species carry ______ or _____ antigens but all have ____
Not - H or K All - O
79
E-Coli causes
70%~ of traveler's diarrhea 50-60% of UTIs
80
What inhabit of respiration tract that has a large capsule, cause of nosocomial pneumonia, meningitis, bacteremia, wound infection, UTI and is opportunistic as well as drug-resistant
Klebsiella pneumoniae
81
What are the two true enteric pathogens
Salmonellooses and Shigelloses
82
Typhoid fever is caused by _____ with ____ reservoir and _____ transmission
Salmonella typhi, human, fecal-oral
83
Salmonellosis other than typhoid fever are called
Enteric fever
84
Salmonella enteritis is all _______ in origin but ____ can become carriers
Zoonotic in nature but humans can become carriers
85
What is the common incapacitating dysentery
Shigellosis
86
What caused the plague
Yersinia pestis
87
What is humans developing plague through contact with wild animals
Sylvatic plague
88
Urban plague is
Developing the plague through contact (human contact?)
89
hemophiles is ______ loving
blood
90
What causes acute bacterial meningitis
H. influenzae
91
What is the chancroid, soft chance STI that requires factor X
H. ducreyi
92
What are the features of spirochetes
Gram-negative human pathogens Free living saprobes, commensal of animals Not primary pathogens
93
What are three of the spirochete genus (that we cover)
treponema Leptospira Borrelia
94
What is the cause of Syphilis, and what is the reservoir
Treponema pallidum human reservoir
95
What are some features of leptospirosis
Tiny, regular individual coils will bend or hook at one or both ends
96
What are leptosomatic, a zoonosis disease
Leptospira interorgan
97
What causes lyme disease
B. burgdorferi
98
How is B. burgdorferi/Lyme disease transmitted?
through ticks
99
What are the comma-shaped rods with single polar flagellum
Vibrio
100
What is the spirochete with tight spirals and several polar flagella
Helicobacter
101
what is the gastroenteritis from raw seafood
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
102
What is the gastroenteritis from raw oysters
Vibrio vulnificus
103
What is the gastric pathogen that produces urease which coverts urea into ammonium and bicarbonate
Helicobacter pylori
104
The intracellular pathogen that rely on arthropod vector are called
Rickettsia
105
The intracellular pathogens that alternate between elementary and reticulate bodies is called
Chlamydia
106
what lacks a cell wall and are highly pleomorphic
Mycoplasma
107
What is the cause and vector epidemic typhus
R. prowazekii Vector - Lice
108
What is the cause and vector of endemic typhus
R. typhi Vector - Flea
109
What causes rocky mountain settled fever and what is the vector
R. rickettsii Vector - Ticks
110
What is the agent of cat-scratch disease
Bartonella_henselae
111
What is the Lancefield classification based on?
Cell wall
112
What is the severe case of Tetanus caused primarily in people with a large amount of muscle mass?
Opisthotonos
113
The release of toxins during __________ may cause hemorrhage, coagulation, and vascular damage, leading to necrosis of tissue especially in the extremities
meningococcemia
114
Woolsorter's disease is
Bacillus anthracist / anthrax