Microbio Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Specific Staphylococci species to know for this block

A
  1. S. aureus

2. S. Epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Specific Streptococci species to know for this block

A

S. pyogenes
S. agalactiae
S. pneumoniae
S. viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Specific Enterococci species to know for this block

A
  1. E faecalis

2. E. faecium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(Staphylococcus/Streptococcus) produce catalase

A

Staphylococcus (degrade hydrogen peroxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gram-positive bacteria; high virulence; can affect normal valves; causes abscesses, fever and ACUTE toxic shock syndrome; most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia and infections

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is distinguishable from other staphs by…

A
coagulase production (promotes clot formation)
Ferments mannitol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Some S. aureus (MRSA) are resistant to penicillins due to what mechanisms

A

B-lactamase

changes in penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The main site of colonization for S. aureus is the…

A

nose, skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The main site of colonization for S. epidermidis and pyogenes is the…

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

B-hemolytic streptococcus & a-hemolytic streptococcus

A

B: Group A: S. pyogenes; Group B: S. agalactiae

a: S. pneumoniae; Viridans strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

common streptococcus found in the oral cavity; includes over 20 species

A

viridans streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Morphology of S. pneumoniae

A

lancet shaped (often in pairs) with polysaccharide capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Group A streptococcus; leading cause of pharyngitis (strep throat), cellulitis, impetigo and toxic shock syndrome; can result in glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever and endocarditis

A

S. pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the condition/disease that occurs 2-3 weeks after untreated or inadequately treated strep throat?

A

Acute rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

rheumatic fever commonly affects what valves

A

mitral and aortic valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What antibody titer is used to diagnose rheumatic fever?

A

Anti-streptolysin O antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Virulence factors for S. pyogenes

A
Destructive enzymes
Exotoxins (streptolysins O & S)
Hyaluronic acid (anti-phagocytic)
M Protein (anti-phagocytic: binds Ab and complement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Rheumatic fever is thought to be due to molecular mimicry of what Streptococcal protein?

A

M-protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sequence of events for infective endocarditis

A

Strep infection –> Rheumatic fever –> Damage (due to inflammation) –> Endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pathogenesis of infective endocarditis

A
  1. Colonization (skin, oral cavity, GI tract)
  2. Bacteremia (enter the bloodstream)
  3. Adhesion (uses fibrin, collagen, elastin of cell wall)
  4. Immune avoidance (resist complement/Ab opsonization, express exotoxins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gram positive cocci bacteria; alpha-hemolytic; low virulence; require previously damaged heart valves; causes subacute bacterial endocarditis with slow progression

A

Strep. viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(Gram positive or negative) Two membranes, with thin peptidoglycan with NAG and NAM in-between; has outer LPS

A

Gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(Gram positive or negative) One membrane with thick cell wall made of peptidoglycan and teichoic acid

A

Gram positive

24
Q

organelles of adherence, located on outer surface; contain polymers of pilin with specialized adhesins at the tip; expressed by both gram-negative and positive pathogens; examples are E. coli, N. gonorrhoeae and GAS

A

Pili or fimbriae

25
Q

“Wreck and Check” studies

A

help confirm the importance of microbial virulence factors; generate mutants in lab that lack certain structures, and if they die compared to wild-types, it was an important structure

26
Q

Protein on staphylococci; allows pathogens to avoid antibody-mediated opsonophagocytosis

A

Protein A (bind Fc region so that it stays hidden from immune cells)

27
Q

stimulates massive polyclonal expansion of T-cells, resulting in cytokine storm leading to toxic shock

A

Superantigen

28
Q

Scarlet fever can be seen in superantigen response in what pathogen?

A

S. pyogenes

29
Q

Pathogen intrinsically resistant to various antibacterials; its PBPs have low affinity for b-lactams (penicillin); resistant to cephalosporins and clindamycin; can absorb folate from host, so resistant to Tmp-Smx

A

Enterococci

30
Q

What is VRE?

A

Vancomycin Resistant E. faecium)

31
Q

Why might vancomycin resistance, given horizontally to S. aureus, not be too worrisome?

A

Seems like there is a fitness cost for Vancomycin-resistant S. aureus

32
Q

Blood cultures are typically collected in two sets (each set from a different site) why?

A

Allow for determination of any possible contamination from the blood draw

33
Q

Most bacteria causing infective endocarditis are ____________ _________

A

Facultative anaerobes (Staph, Strep, Entero, HACEK)

34
Q

“to decay or putrefy”; non-specific and easy to cure early on, but more obvious and harder to cure when more advanced

A

Sepsis

35
Q

Disease continuum of sepsis

A

Infection–> SIRS–> Sepsis–> Septic Shock–> Multiorgan failure

36
Q

SIRS

A

Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

37
Q

Defined by 2 or more of the following: Fever, high/low WBC, elevated HR and/or elevated RR

A

SIRS

38
Q

SIRS + Infection= ???; life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection

A

Sepsis

39
Q

subset of sepsis in which profound circulatory, cellular and metabolic abnormalities are associated with a greater risk of mortality than with sepsis alone

A

Septic shock

40
Q

Severe sepsis vs. septic shock

A

Severe sepsis: SIRS and hypotension corrected by fluids)

Septic shock: SIRS and persistent hypotension (need drugs)

41
Q

Consequences of multiorgan dysfunction syndrome

A

Clotting disorders
Renal, hepatic or cardiac failure
Cognitive impairment
Accumulation of metabolic products

42
Q

Sepsis rates increase with age (True or False)

A

True

43
Q

Microbial triggers of SIRS

A

Lipid A component of LPS (Gram negative)
Lipoteichoic acid (Gram positive)
Peptidoglycan
Bacterial toxins

44
Q

Immune cell that is most likely the mediator of SIRS in sepsis

A

Neutrophil

45
Q

Vascular effects of sepsis

A

Vascular leak
Chemotaxis of PMNs
Vasodilation
Intravascular coagulation

46
Q

Pose little risk to healthy individuals, but there are outbreaks in healthcare settings with very ill patients

A

Opportunistic infections (Gram negative rods)

47
Q

Gram negative rod; found in soil and water; produce blue-green colonies and a fruity odor; chronic in cystic fibrosis; LPS defects render sensitive to complement; can form biofilms, so highly resistant to antibiotics

A

P. aeruginosa

48
Q

Gram negative; found in soil and water; coccobacilli or cocci; extensive multi-drug resistance (some resistant to all known antibiotics)

A

Acinetobacter baumannii

49
Q

Gram negative rod; member of enterobacteria; “collector” of drug-resistance plasmids; large polysaccharide capsule

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

50
Q

SIRS vs. Sepsis vs. Severe Sepsis vs Septic shock vs. MODS

A

SIRS: inflammatory response
Sepsis: SIRS with infection
Severe Sepsis: SIRS and hypotension corrected w/ fluids
Septic shock: SIRS and hypotension corrected by drugs only
MODS: organ damage

51
Q

What gram + cocci are most found in native valve IE (community acquired)?

A
  1. S. aureus

2. Viridans

52
Q

What gram + cocci are most found in prothetic valve IE?

A
  1. CNS (coag-neg staph)

2. S. aureus

53
Q

What gram + cocci are most found in native valve IE (nosocomial) acquired)?

A

S. aureus

54
Q

What gram + cocci are most found in native valve IE (IV drug users)?

A

S. aureus

55
Q

What gram + cocci are most found in native valve IE (with diabetes)?

A

S. aureus