Microbiology Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

When should a sore throat be considered a medical emergency?

A

when combined with stridor or respiratory difficulty

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2
Q

What are the causes of inflammation by non-infectious means?

A

uncommon but include physical irritation eg from GORD; chronic irritation from cigarette smoke; alcohol or hayfever

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3
Q

Who do acute throat infections most common affect?

A

those aged 5-10 a nd 15-25`

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4
Q

What are the complications of a sore throat?

A

otitis media; peri-tonsillar abscess (quinsy); parapharyngeal abscess and mastoiditis

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5
Q

What should be suspected if sore throad and lethargy persist into the second week in 15-25 yos?

A

infectious mononucleosis

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6
Q

What are the causes for referral or admission with a sore throat?

A

if throat cancer is suspected; pain on swalling/dysphagia for more than 3 weeks; red or red and white patches or ulceration or swelling of the oral/pharyngeal mucosa persists for more than 3 weeks

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7
Q

What score should be used to assist decision on whether to give an antibiotic?

A

Centor clinical prediction score

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8
Q

What are the components of the Centor score?

A

tonsillar exudate; tender anterior cervical lymph nodes; hx of fever; absence of cough

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial sore throad?

A

step. pyogenes

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10
Q

what is the treatment for strep. pyogenes?

A

penicillin

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11
Q

What is seen on microbiology of strep. pyogenes?

A

gram positive cocci in chain; beta-haemolysis (complete)

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12
Q

What are the late complications of strep. sore throat?

A

rheumatic fever; glomerulonephritis

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13
Q

What are the signs of rheumatic fever?

A

fever; arthritis and pancarditis

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14
Q

What are the signs of glomerulonephritis?

A

haematuria; albuminuria and oedema

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15
Q

When does rheumatic fever arise after strep throat?

A

3 week post

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16
Q

When does glomerulonephritis arise after a strep throat?

A

1-3 weeks post

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17
Q

What are the features of Diphtheria?

A

severe sore throat with a grey white (pseudo) membrane across the pharynx

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18
Q

How does the organims cause illness?

A

a potent exotoxin

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19
Q

Why is diphtheria so serious?

A

the exotoxin is cardiotoxic and neurotoxic

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20
Q

What is the vaccine for diptheria made from?

A

toxoid

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21
Q

What is the treatment for diphtheria?

A

antitoxin and supportive and penicillin/erythromycin

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22
Q

What are the signs of candida/thrush?

A

white patches on red, raw mucous membranes in throat/mouth

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23
Q

What is the treatment for candida?

A

nystatin

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24
Q

What is acute otitis media?

A

a URTI involving the middle ear by extension of infection up the eustachian tube

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25
Who gets otitis media?
infants and children
26
What are infections ofr the middle ear often caused by?
viral with bacterial secondary infection
27
What are the most common bacteria causing infections of the middle ear?
haemophilus influenzae; strep. pneumoniae; strep. pyogenes
28
How can a sample be obtained for infections of the middle ear?
swab of pus if eardrum perforates, otherwise samples cant be obtained
29
What is the first line antibiotic for infections ofr the middle ear?
amoxicillin
30
What is second line antibiotic for middle ear infefctions?
erythromycin
31
What are the signs of acute sinusitis?
mild discomfort over frontal or maxillary sinuses due to congestion often seen with URTI
32
What would indicate a secondary bacterial infection with acute sinusitis?
severe pain and tenderness with purulent discharge
33
When should antibiotics be given with sinusitis?
for severe/deteriorating cases of more than 10 days
34
What is the first line antibiotic for sinusitis?
penicillin V
35
What is the second line antibiotic for sinusitis?
doxycycline
36
Who should doxycycline NOT be given to?
children
37
What is otitis externa?
inflammation fo the outer ear canal
38
What are the signs of otitis externa?
redness and swelling of the skin of the ear canal; itchiness; sore and painful; discharge or increased wav
39
What is malignant otitis?
an extension of otitis externa in to the bone surrounding the ear canal which is fatal without treatment
40
What bones does malignant otits affect?
mastoid and temporal bones
41
What are the symptoms and signs of malignant otits?
pain and hedache, more severe than clinical signs would suggest; granulation tissue at bone-cartilage junction of ear canal; exposed bone in the ear canal; facial nerve palsy
42
What is facial nerve palsy?
drooping face on the side of the lesion
43
What are the investigations for malignant otitis?
PV; CRP; imagin; biopsy and culture
44
What is the most common bacteria in malignant otitis?
pseudomonas
45
What are the risk factors for malignant otitis?
DM; PMH of radiotherapy
46
What are the bacterial causes of otitis externa?
staph. aureus; proteus; pseudomonas; aspergillus; candida
47
What is the treatment for otitis externa?
topical aural toilet
48
When should a swab and prescription be done for otitis externa?
unresponsive and severe cases
49
What might you prescribe for otitis externa depending on the culture results?
topical clotramizole or gentamicin drops
50
What is the classic triad seen in infectious mononucleosis?
fever; pharyngitis and lymphadenpathy
51
What are other signs of glandular fever?
jaundice/hepatitis; rash; leucocytosis; presence of stypical lymphocytes in blood film; splenomegaly; palatal petechiae
52
What antibiotic results in a rash with glandular fever?
ampicillin or amoxicillin
53
What do the atypical lymphocytes seen with glandular fever look like?
activated cytotoxic T lymphocytes- larger, irregular nucleus and high level of ribosomes
54
What are complications of glandular ever?
anaemia; thrombocytopania; splenic rupture; upper airway obstrucition; increased risk of lymphoma esp. in immunosuppressed
55
What should be avoided following glandular fever and why?
avoid sports for 6 weeks- splenic rupture
56
What virus causes glandular fever?
EBV
57
What are the 2 phases of primary infection with EBV?
early childhood- rarely results in glandular fever; in over 10s often causes
58
What is the therapy for glandular fever?
ebd rest; avoid sport; paracetamol
59
How is glandular fever comfrimed in the lab?
EBV IgM; monospot- heterophile antibody; blood count and film; LFTs
60
How can you differentiate between EBV and CMV which cause very similar disease??
no heterophile antibody and fewer atypical lymphocytes
61
When is type 1 HSV typically acquired?
childhood
62
What does type 1 HSV cause?
oral lesions
63
How is HSV transferred?
salivary contact
64
What disease can occur with primary infection of HSV type 1?
primary gingivostomatitis
65
What are the signs of primary gingivostomatitis?
systemic upset-fever, local lymphadenopathy; lips, buccal mucosa, hard palate affected with vesicles and ulcers
66
How is primary gingivostomatitis treated?
aciclovir
67
Where is herpes held latent?
inactive form of virus in sensory nerve cells of trigeminal ganglia (nerve that serves the area of the mouth)
68
Does aciclovir prevent latency?
no
69
What is the percentage of people that get clinical reoccurences with HSV1?
half
70
What would recurrent intra-oral lesions indicate?
Rarely cause by HSV so likely to be something else
71
What is herpetic whitlow?
HSV infected in fingers
72
How is HSV confirmed in the lab?
swab of lesion and viral DNA detected by PCR
73
What is a complication of HSV in the CNS?
herpes simplex encephalitis
74
What causes herpangina?
coxsackie virus-enterovirus
75
What are the signs of herpangina?
vesicles/ulcers on soft palate
76
What patient group gets herpangina?
children
77
What virus causes hand, foot and mouth disease?
coxsakcie virus
78
What are apthous ulcers?
recurring painful ulcers of the mouth that are round or ovoid and have inflammatory halos- each ulcer lasts less than 3 weeks; absence of systemic disease
79
What causes apthous ulcers?
non-viral, self limiting
80
What is the triad seen with Behcets disease?
recurrent oral ulcers; genital ulcers and uceitis
81
Where is Behcets most common?
middle east and asia
82
What is the triad foudn with Reiters ?
Noninfectious urethritis Arthritis Conjunctivitis
83
What are the cahracteritics of a chancre?
painless indurated ulcer at site of entry of Treponema pallidum
84
What is a chancre a sign of?
syphilis