Microbiology: Midterm Flashcards
1
Q
Process that destroys or eliminates all forms of microbial life including endospores
A
Sterilization
2
Q
The study of microorganisms
A
What is microbiology?
3
Q
________ is known as the “Father of immuniology”
a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis
A
a) Louis pasteur
4
Q
Discovered the need for prolonged heating to destroy bacteria
a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis
A
b) John Tyndal
5
Q
Discovered Penicillin
a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis
A
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
6
Q
Discovered the role of airborn microorganisms
a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis
A
c) Joseph Lister
7
Q
Recognized the importance of hand washing
a) Louis Pasteur
b) John Tyndal
c) Joseph Lister
d) Sir Alexandar Flemming
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis
A
e) Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis
8
Q
Portal of entry into the body
A
- Inhalation
- Ingestion
- Mucous Membranes
- Breaks in the skin
9
Q
CDC
A
Centre for disease control
10
Q
_______ collaborates to create the expertise, information, and tools that people and communities need to protect their health
A
CDC
11
Q
Primitive cells
NO internal membrane
NO NUCLEUS
a) Prokaryotes cells
b) Eukaryote cells
A
a) Prokaryotes cells
12
Q
Complex cells
With internal membranes.
HAVE A NUCLEUS
a) Prokaryotes cells
b) Eukaryote cells
A
b) Eukaryote cells
13
Q
T/F: Bacteria is a Eukaryote cell
A
False.
Bacteria is a Prokaryotes cell
14
Q
hair-like projections with fine short appendages that allow bacteria to adhere
A
Fimbriae
15
Q
3 shapes of bacteria
A
- Cocci - Spherical
- Spirilla - Spiral
- Bacilli - Rod
16
Q
Extreamly small; about one-tenth the size of bacteria
A
Obligate intracellular parasites
17
Q
Viruses may be grouped into families but are not classified. They are defined by 3 things:
A
- Their type of nucleic acid: DNA or RNA
- The symmetry of the virus
- If they have an envelope
18
Q
What is the sequence of Viral replication
A
- Attachment (Adsorbtion)
- Penetration
- Replication
- Assembly
- Release from host cell
19
Q
One of the resistant forms of life
against heat, drying, and chemicals
A
Spores
20
Q
Bacteria that develop a defense
mechanism against death
A
Spores
21
Q
_______ grow best at body temperature
(37 degree C)
(with a range from 22-45 degrees C)
a) Psychrophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Mesophiles
A
c) Mesophiles
22
Q
______ grow best at warmer temperature (56 degree C)
(With a range of 45 – 70 degrees C)
a) Psychrophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Mesophiles
A
b) Thermophiles
23
Q
______ have optimal growth at refrigerator temperature
(7 degrees C)
(With range from 1- 22 degrees C)
a) Psychrophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Mesophiles
A
a) Psychrophils
24
Q
__________ have a pH 5.5-8.0
a) Neutrophiles
b) Alkalophiles pH
c) Acidophiles pH
A
a) Neutrophils
25
_______ have a pH 8.5-11.5
a) Neutrophiles
b) Alkalophiles
c) Acidophiles
b) Alkaphiles
26
_______ have a pH 1.0-5.5
a) Neutrophiles
b) Alkalophiles
c) Acidophiles
c) Acidophiles
27
What type of cell is this
a) Eukaryotic cell
b) Prokaryotic cell
a) Eukaryotic cell
28
What type of cell is this
a) Eukaryotic cell
b) Prokaryotic cell
b) Prokaryotic cell
29
_______ require oxygen at 20%
concentration
1. Facultative anaerobes
2. Microaerophiles
3. Obligate Aerobes
4. Obligate anaerobes
3. Obligate Aerobes
30
tolerate low (4%) oxygen concentration
1. Facultative anaerobes
2. Microaerophiles
3. Obligate Aerobes
4. Obligate anaerobes
2. Microaerophiles
31
cannot tolerate oxygen
1. Facultative anaerobes
2. Microaerophiles
3. Obligate Aerobes
4. Obligate anaerobes
4. Obligate anaerobes
32
can grow with or without oxygen
1. Facultative anaerobes
2. Microaerophiles
3. Obligate Aerobes
4. Obligate anaerobes
1. Facultative anaerobes
33
bacteria that produce acids during growth
a) Aciduric
b) Acidogenic
b) Acidogenic
34
bacteria that survive and grow in an acidic environment
(usually below pH 5.5)
a) Aciduric
b) Acidogenic
a) Aciduric
35
kill bacteria (chemical or physical)
a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Antibiotics
a) Bactericidal agents
36
prevent growth without killing them
a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Antibiotics
a) Bacteriostatic agents
37
To treat bacterial diseases
a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Antibiotics
c) Antibiotics
38
______ is a heat process employed to reduce # of bacteria and destroy pathogens
a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Pateurization
d) Lyphoilization
c) Pasteurization
39
a process of preserving microbes from a substance by removing the water, rapidly freezing the sample, then drying it by using a vacuum pump, at very low temperature (freeze drying)
a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Pateurization
d) Lyphoilization
d) Lyphoilization
40
For long term preservation of blood, serum, bacterial cultures, to preserve vaccines.
a) Bacteriostatic agents
b) Bactericidal agents
c) Pateurization
d) Lyphoilization
d) Lyphoilization
41
occurs when a microorganism in the body multiplies and causes damage to the tissue
a) Pathogen
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Opportunistic pathogens
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases
b) Infectious disease
42
the microorganisms that cause infectious diseases
a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases
Pathogens
43
the causative agents of infectious diseases caused by microorganisms normally present or on or in the body, that will not cause harm unless favourably conditions exists for them to express their disease-producing potential
a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases
c) Opportunistic disease
44
are causes by microorganisms in or on the body
a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases
d) Endogenous disease
45
are caused by microorganisms not normally present on or in the body; will contaminate the body from the outside
a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
46
_________ microorganisms causing disease without entering & multiplying in the body (food poisoning)
a) Pathogens
b) Infectious disease
c) Opportunistic pathogens
d) Endogenous diseases
e) Exogenous diseases
f) Toxigenic diseases
f) Exogenous diseases
47
Viruses that infect bacteria
Bacteriophage
48
infection agent composed entirely of protein, causing a rare degenerative brain disease in humans called Creutzfeldt- Jacob
Prion
49
A method that prevents contamination by unwanted microorganisms - the absense of microbes
Asepsis
50
to consider all clients as being infected with bloodborne pathogens and therefore applying infection control
procedures to the care of all clients.
a) Standard precautions
b) Universal precautions
b) Universal precautions
51
A process that allows the transfer of microorganisms between persons and/or environmental surfaces or to a
sterile object. E.g. touching a clients chart with dirty gloves.
Cross-contamination
52
Are a set of infection control practices used to prevent the transmission of diseases through the contact with all body fluids (excepts sweat) including blood, non-intact skin & mucous membranes
a) Standard precations
b) Universal precation
Standard precautions
53
5 Pathways of cross-contamination
1. Client to Dental Team
2. Dental Team to Client
3. Client to Client
4. Dental Office to Community
5. From Community to Client
54
Contact with microorganisms at the source as in the clients mouth. Touching soft tissue or teeth.
1. Indirect contact
2. Direct contact
3. Airborne
4. Droplet
2. Direct contact
55
Contact with items contaminated with a clients microorganisms
1. Indirect contact
2. Direct contact
3. Airborne
4. Droplet
3. Indirect contact
56
Contact with sprays, splashes, aerosols or splatter containing microorganisms.
1. Indirect contact
2. Direct contact
3. Airborne
4. Droplet
4. Droplet
57
smaller particles, can remain airborne for hours, can be inhaled
1. Indirect contact
2. Direct contact
3. Airborne
4. Droplet
3. Airborne
58
Tuberculosis, chickenpox, measles are examples of transmission by:
1. Indirect contact
2. Direct contact
3. Airborne
4. Droplet
3. Airborne
59
Influenza, mumps, rubella, herpes virus are examples of transmission by:
1. Indirect contact
2. Direct contact
3. Airborne
4. Droplet
4. Droplet
60
Hep B and C viruses are examples of transmission by:
1. Indirect contact
2. Direct contact
3. Airborne
4. Droplet
1. Indirect contact
61
Herpes infections of the fingers, STD’s, Skin diseases are examples of transmission by:
1. Indirect contact
2. Direct contact
3. Airborne
4. Droplet
2. Direct contact
62
A process intended to destroy/kill
all mo’s in a material or on an object
a) Sterilization
b) Disinfection
a) Sterilization
63
A process that destroys mo’s, NOT
spores & viruses OR
a) Sterilization
b) Disinfection
b) Disinfection
64
The three common types of sterilization used in dentistry are:
1. Heat
2. Gas
3. Liquid Chemical
65
A process that is intended to reduce and kill disease producing microorganisms but not bacterial endospores
Disinfection
66
6 types of disinfectants
1. Alcohols
2. Quaternary ammonium compounds
3. Glutaraldehyde
4. Iodophors
5. Chlorine Compounds
6. Phenols
67
sodium chloride loving bacteria
1. Halophilic Bacteria
2. Haloduric Bacteria
1. Halophilic
68
capable of existing(do not prefer) in a
medium containing a high concentration of salt
1. Halophilic Bacteria
2. Haloduric Bacteria
2. Haloduric
69
term used to designate all the categories of drugs used to treat
infections
Antibiotics
70
is meant to destroy or control a microbial infection to numbers that can
be eliminated by the immune system
Antibiotics
71
6 Antimicrobials
1. Chlorhexidine (Peridex)
2. Phenols (Listerine)
3. Quaternary Ammonium Compound (Cepacol)
4. Stannous Fluoride
5. Sanguinarine (Viadent)
6. Antibiotics
72
T/F: Antimicrobials are antibacterial
True
73
Antibiotics used in Dentistry
1. Penicillin and its derivatives
2. Tetracycline
3. Erythromycin
74
A prolonged use of antimicrobials, especially an antibiotic can lead to:
1. Toxicity
2. Increase in incidence of allergic reactions
3. Resistance to the antimicrobial
75
function as the powerhouse
Mitochondria
76
function to package protein; especially important for proteins destined for secretion
Golgi Apparatus
77
membranous sacs that contain digestive enzymes
Lysosomes
78
have cell walls composed of a thick layer
a) Gram positive
b) Gram negative
a) Gram positive
79
have cell walls with a thin layer
a) Gram positive
b) Gram negative
B) Gram negative
80
Bacteria cells divide by a process called
Binary Fission
81
Five major physical conditions influence growth of bacteria:
1.Temperature
2. Acidity
3. Nutrients
4. Oxygen metabolism
5. Water
82
enzymes released into the environment that break down proteins into amino acids that can enter the cell
Proteases
83
Common bacterial diseases
1. TB
2. Syphilis
3. Anthrax
4. Leprosy
5. Pneumonia
6. Dental Caries/Periodontal Disease
7. Strep Throat
8. Meningitis
84
Viral replication steps
1. Attachment or adsorption
2. Penetration
3. Uncoating
4. Replication or syntheses of virus
5. Assembly
6. Release from Host Cell
85
Ways of Transmission of Viruses
1. Droplets
2. Direct Transfer
3. Contaminated food or water
4. Insects
86
The following are examples of
1. HIV/AIDS
2. Hepatitis A, B, C
3. Herpes Simplex I & II
4. S.A.R.S., COVID-19
5. Measles
6. Influenza/Common Cold
7. West Nile
Common viral diseases
87
Common dental fungal infection (Thrush or denture stomatitis) caused by Candida albicans
Oral Candidasis
88
cell eating =
Phagocytes
89
Primative cells with no internal membrane and no nucleus
Prokaryotic Cell
90
Harmful infection of the LIVER
Hepatitis
91
Gum disease caused by bacteria
Gingivitis
92
Examples of Bloodborne pathogens
1. HIV
2. HEP B
3. HEP C
93
Steps of disease development
1. **Source** of microorganism
2. **Escape** of microorganism from the source
3. **Spread** of microorganism to a new person
4. **Entry** of microorganism into the person
5. **Infection** (survival and growth of
microorganism)
6. **Damage** to the body
94
4 Stages of an infectious disease
1. Incubation Stage
2. Prodromal Stage
3. Acute Stage
4. Convalescent Stage
95
from initial entrance of infectious agent to display of first symptoms.
a) Incubation Stage
b) Prodromal Stage
c) Acute Stage
d) Convalescent Stage
a) Incubation stage
96
Early symptoms - microorganisms multiply to numbers to cause “malaise”
(don’t feel like yourself)
a) Incubation Stage
b) Prodromal Stage
c) Acute Stage
d) Convalescent Stage
b) Prodomal stage
97
Host displays maximal symptoms of the
disease - very ill
a) Incubation Stage
b) Prodromal Stage
c) Acute Stage
d) Convalescent Stage
c) Acute stage
98
Recovery phase - number of microorganisms declining or are being
destroyed rapidly as body defenses successfully combat disease
a) Incubation Stage
b) Prodromal Stage
c) Acute Stage
d) Convalescent Stage
d) Convalecent Stage
99
Types of physical barriers of INATE host defences
1. Unbroken skin
2. Mucous membranes
3. Respiratory
100
Types of chemical barriers of INATE host defences
1. Nose hair
2. Coughing
3. Sneezing
4. Washing of secretions and excretions
101
Types of antimicrobial chemical barriers of INNATE host defences
1. Hydrochloric acid (stomach)
2. Lysozyme
3. Interferon (resistant to virus replication cells)
102
Types of antimicrobial cellular barriers of INNATE host defences
WBC (neutrophils and macrophages->
phagocytes)
103
Defences we are born with
a) Innate defences
b) Aquired immunity
Innate defences
104
Defences we gain over time
a) Innate defences
b) Aquired immunity
b) Aquired immunity
105
Phagocytosis =
Cell eating
106
Pinocytosis =
Cell drinking
107
B Lymphocytes
Produce antibodies
108
T Lymphocytes
Helper cells & killer cells
109
Cause by MOs that have multiplied and caused damage to tissues
a) Infectious diseases
b) Communicable diseases
c) Contagious diseases
a) Infectious diseases
110
Infections that can be spread from one host to another
a) Infectious diseases
b) Communicable diseases
c) Contagious diseases
b) Communicable diseases
111
A disease that is highly communicable
a) Infectious diseases
b) Communicable diseases
c) Contagious diseases
c) Contagious diseases
112
A disease that is serious but relatively short or limited in duration
a) Acute
b) Chronic
a) Acute
113
A disease that is often milder in nature and less of an immediate threat but persists for months or even years
a) Acute
b) Chronic
b) Chronic
114
A disease that remains contained at a
specific site
a) Local disease
b) Disseminated Disease
a) Local disease
115
A disease that starts at a specific site but eventually spreads to another part of the body
a) Local disease
b) Disseminated Disease
b) Disseminated disease
116
The ability of a microorganism to cause disease.
a) Pathogenicity
b) Virulence
a) Pathogenicity
117
The degree of the pathogenicity (how much the microorganism will affect the disease)
a) Pathogenicity
b) Virulence
b) Virulence
118
The ability of microorganisms to gain entry and spread to a host.
1. Toxigenicity
2. Invasiveness
2. Invasiveness
119
The capacity of microbial products known as toxins to cause injury to the host
1. Toxigenicity
2. Invasiveness
1. Toxigenicity
120
What is Epidemiology
Study of the nature and circumstances of disease
(The how, when and where)
121
___________ can be defined as a
large number of cases of the disease
occurring in a community within a short
time
a) Epidemic Disease
b) Endemic Disease
c) Sporadic Disease
a) Epidemic
122
_________ is the presence of a limited number of cases of a disease at all times within a geographical area.
a) Epidemic Disease
b) Endemic Disease
c) Sporadic Disease
b) Endemic
123
a particular disease which occurs without regularity in a random community.
a) Epidemic Disease
b) Endemic Disease
c) Sporadic Disease
c) Sporatic
124
Six Reservoirs of Infection
1. Humans
2. Animals
3. Water
4. Soil
5. Insects
6. Arachnids
125
The initial disease caused by a microbial
invader.
a) Primary Disease
b) Secondary Disease
a) Primary Disease
126
Another disease that will occur in a person while having a primary disease.
a) Primary Disease
b) Secondary Disease
b) Secondary Disease
127
How to prevent employee exposure:
1. Hand washing
2. Handling sharps
3. Restricted activities in the Work Area
4. Minimize spatter
5. Specimen containers
6. PPE
128
New infectious diseases that have not been recognized before
Emerging diseases
129
does not colonize or remain on hands for long periods of time
a) Transient flora
b) Resident flora
a) Transient flora
130
microorganisms that colonize on skin and become permanent residents
a) Transient flora
b) Resident flora
b) Resident flora
131
always on skin and can never be removed totally, even with surgical scrub
a) Transient flora
b) Resident flora
b) Resident flora
132
can be removed or greatly reduced by routine hand washing
a) Transient flora
b) Resident flora
a) Transient flora
133
Common antimicrobial agents in hand hygiene products:
1. Alcohols
2. Chlorhexidine digluconate
3. Iodophor
4. Para-chlorometaxylenol
5. Triclosan
6. Quaternary ammonium compounds
134
Air/water syringe should be flushed for a minimum of _______ between clients.
a) 20 sec
b) 45 sec
c) 1 min
d) 10 sec
a) 20 sec
135
Which protective barrier is donned last before treating a client?
a) Mask
b) Gloves
c) Goggles
d) Gown
b) Gloves
136
Which protective barrier is donned first before treating a client?
a) Mask
b) Gloves
c) Goggles
d) Gown
d) Gown
137
items to be cleaned and sterilized by heat
a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical
critical & semi-critical
138
items to be cleaned and sterilized by heat or if heat sensitive must use a high-level disinfectant
a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical
semi-critical
139
treated with low-level disinfectant if no blood is visible
a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical
non-critical
140
Penetrates Soft tissue, bone, or enters bloodstream
a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical
critical
141
Contacts mucous membranes but wont penetrate soft tissue, contact bone, nor enter into/contact the bloodstream.
a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical
semi-critical
142
contacts intact skin
a) critical
b) semi-critical
c) non-critical
non-critical
143
If the chemical is not sporicidal but can kill other microorganisms, it is called a
Disinfectant
144
presence of microorganisms on a surface or item, prior to sterilization
(blood, saliva, tissue fluids, dental materials etc.)
Bioburden
145
Drain or discard the cleaning solution __________
Daily
146
Drain or discard the cleaning solution
Daily
147
uses live spores
a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors
Biological indicators
148
Keep going, you got this
Your going to do amazing !
Breathe.
149
uses heat sensitive chemicals
a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors
Mechanical indicators
150
How often should you spore test?
Daily
151
Indicators that change color after a certain temperature has been reached
a) Internal indicators
b) Extrenal indicators
External indicators
152
Integrated indicators that change color or form slowly, respond to a combination of time and temperature
a) Internal indicators
b) Extrenal indicators
Internal indicators
153
shows the package has been exposed to the sterilization process
a) Class I External
b) Class II
c) Class III Internal
d) Class IV multivariable internal
e) Class V Internal
Class I External
154
Autoclave tape
a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors
Chemical indicator
155
Strips
a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors
Chemical indicator
156
Involves observation of gauges and displays on sterilizer and recording of sterilizing temperature, pressure, and exposure time
a) Biological indicators
b) Mechanical indicators
c) Chemical indicatiors
Mecanical indicator
157
Causes of sterilization failure-
Improper:
Improper:
1. cleaning of instruments
2. packaging
3. loading of sterilizer
4. timing
5. temperature
6. method of sterilization
158
Store instruments for
1-6 months
159
What type of monitoring: class V indicators
Chemical monitoring
160
How to handle sharps
With Tongs or cotton forceps
161
T/F: Unpackaged instruments can be contaminated immediately by air, dust, moisture, and improper handling
True
162
__________ or _________ maintains sterility after sterilization.
Wrapping or bagging
163
_______ reduce direct handling of contaminated instruments and keep instruments together during cleaning, sterilizing, and presentation for the next client
Cassettes
164
___________ helps maintain sterility of instruments during storage and until they are used on a subsequent client
Proper handling of processed instruments
165
Proper handling of processed instruments includes:
1. Drying & cooling
2. Storage
3. Distribution
4. Opening of instrument packages
166
Instruments should be opened:
At chairside
167
Exposing wet packs after steam processing to external environment =
Wicking & contamination
Tearing
168
________ give an immediate indication of instrument safety
A) chemical
B) biological
A) chemical
169
_________ show main guarantee of instrument safety
A) chemical
B) biological
B) biological
170
2 types of waste
1. Regulated waste
2. Non-regulated waste
171
These are examples of what waste
1. Liquid or semi liquid
2. Contaminated items that would release blood & OPIM
3. Items caked with dried blood or OPIM
4. Contaminated sharps
5. Pathological or microbial waste containing blood or OPIM
Regulated waste
172
materials generated during patient diagnosis, treatment, or
immunization in medical, dental, or other health care facilities
a) Infectious waste
b) Medical waste
Medical waste
173
medical waste that has shown a capability of transmitting an infectious disease
a) Infectious waste
b) Medical waste
Infectious waste
174
infectious medical waste that requires special handling, neutralization and
disposal
Regulated medical waste
175
Waste that has a poisonous effect
Toxic waste
176
Teeth and other tissues are what kind of waste?
Pathogenic waste
177
Drop syringes _________ into containers
Horizontally
178
________ waste should be recycled as much as possible and put in a separate covered plastic labeled container
Amalgam
179
Lead is considered a ______ waste
hazardous waste
180
Waste containers or bags should be:
Color coded, labeled clearly and leak-proof
181
Sharps containers should be:
Closable, leak-proof and preferably with a lid.
puncture resistant and labeled with
biohazard symbol.
182
No more than _____colony-forming units/ ml (CFU/ml)
500
183
T/F: Water that enters the dental unit is not sterile and does have a low number of waterborne microbes present
True
184
_____ exist in soil and natural waters, can even be found in distilled water
a) Pseudomonas
b) Legionella
c) Nontuberculous Mycobacterium
a) Pseudomonas
185
naturally occur in water; somewhat resistant to chlorine; gram negative
a) Pseudomonas
b) Legionella
c) Nontuberculous Mycobacterium
b) Legionella
186
somewhat resistant to chemical killing
a) Pseudomonas
b) Legionella
c) Nontuberculous Mycobacterium
c) Nontuberculous Mycobacterium
187
All waterlines must be purged at the beginning of each workday by flushing them thoroughly with water for a minimum of _____ minutes
2 minutes
188
Handpieces, air/water syringe tips and ultrasonic tips must be removed prior to _______
Purging waterlines
189
______ is defined as a mass of
microorganisms attached to a
surface exposed to moisture
Biofilm
190
___________ level disinfectants - Tuberculocidal; to clean clinical surfaces that were not covered by barriers.
Intermediate level disinfectants
191
__________ level disinfectants (housekeeping) clean walls, sinks & floors
Low level disinfectants
192
________ is used for semi-critical instruments that are heat sensitive. As per manufacturers instructions.
High level disinfectants
193
Hands become dry, reddened, itchy, or even cracked
1. Irritant contact dermatitis
2. Allergic contact dermatitis
3. Latex allergy
1. Irritant contact dermatitis
194
Non-immunological irritation of skin from non latex chemicals in
gloves
1. Irritant contact dermatitis
2. Allergic contact dermatitis
3. Latex allergy
1. Irritant contact dermatitis
195
What initiates this dermatitis
1. Hand washing with irritating cleaners or antiseptics
2. Failure to rinse or dry completely
3. Excessive perspiration on the hands
4. Irritations from cornstarch powder
196
Characterized by: redness, itching & vesicles within 24-48 hours followed by dry skin, fissures & sores
1. Irritant contact dermatitis
2. Allergic contact dermatitis
3. Latex allergy
2. Allergic contact dermatitis
197
Type IV ‘delayed hypersensitivity’, within 24-48 hours
1. Irritant contact dermatitis
2. Allergic contact dermatitis
3. Latex allergy
2. Allergic contact dermatitis
198
Symptoms usually occur within 20 minutes after contact
1. Irritant contact dermatitis
2. Allergic contact dermatitis
3. Latex allergy
3. Latex allergy
199
Characterized by:
* hives, redness, burning & itching
* Respiratory symptoms, asthma -> anaphylactic
3. Latex allergy
200
Plasmids
Bacteria with extrachromosomal DNA
201
Inward folding of the cytoplasmic membrane.
Mesosomes
202
______ break down macromolecules
Mesmosomes
203
Membranous structure of bacterial cells that contain extracellular enzymes used in nutrition
Mesmosomes
204
Enzyme present in saliva, tears, nasal secretions, and other body secretions and present in WBC that destroy bacteria
Lysozyme
205
Long threadlike appendages
Flagella
206
Harlike protein appendages projecting from the cytoplasmic membrane into the external environment
Frimbriae
207
Bacteria that produce acids during growth are called
Acidogenic
208
Bacteria that survive and grow in an acid environment are called
Aciduric
209
Enzymes release into the environment that break down proteins into amino acids
Protease
210
The major sources of disease agents in the dental office are:
The mouths of patients
211
Types of gloves
Examination
Utility
Heat-resistant
212
Planktonic
Free floating microorganisms that are present in dental water lines
213
There are five elements included in routine practices
1. Point-of-care risk assessment (PCRA)
2. Hand hygiene
3. Environmental controls
4. Administrative controls
5. Use of personal protective equipment
