midterm 1 Flashcards by vilde bratås

What is the mode of action of pleuromutilins ?

A: Time-dependant bacteriocidal
B: Concentration dependent bacteriocidal
C:None of these
D: Bacteriostatic

D: Bacteriostatic

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Which of the following antibiotics is effective in swine dysentery ?

A: None of them are effective
B: Tulathromycin
C: Tilmicosin
D: Both are effective

A: None of them are effective

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Which is characteristic of amoxicillin’s distribution

A: Moderate : due to its lipophilicity, it can barely cross special barriers, but it can enter the
cells

B: Moderate : due to its water solubility, it can barely cross special barriers and it can barely
enter the cell

C: Moderate : due to its water solubility, it can barely cross special barrier but it can enter the
cells

D: Good : due to its lipophilicity, it can cross special barriers and it can enter the cells

B: Moderate : due to its water solubility, it can barely cross special barriers and it can barely
enter the cell

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Which is NOT true for cefalexin ?

A: It is a first generation cefalosporin

B: It is concentration dependent bacteriocidal

C: It has postantibiotics effect

D: It is not inactivated by ß-lactamase producing Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

B: It is concentration dependent bacteriocidal

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Cefquinome belongs to the …¨

A: Generation cephalosporins
B: Generation cephalosporins
C: Generation cephalosporins D: Generation cephalosporins

D: Generation cephalosporins

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Cefuroxime belongs to the …

A: Generation cephalosporins B: Generation cephalosporins C: Generation cephalosporins D: Generation cephalosporins

B: Generation cephalosporins

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Which antibiotic is effective against methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus intermedius infections ?

A: Amoxicillin clavulonic acid
B: None of them
C: Flucloxacillin
D: Ticarcillin clavulonic acid

C: Flucloxacillin

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Which combination can lead to decreased efficacy ?

A: Phenoxymethylpenicillin + florfenicol

B:Doxycycline + tulathromycin

C: Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

D: Colistin + amoxicillin

A: Phenoxymethylpenicillin + florfenicol

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Risk of selecting resistant bacteria is highest at this antibiotic concentration :

A: MIC < concentration < MPC
B: concentration < MIC
C: concentration > MPC
D: None of them

A: MIC < concentration < MPC

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Which aminoglycoside is the most toxic among the followings ?

A: Spectinomycin
B: Streptomycin
C: Neomycin
D: Amikacin

C: Neomycin

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How can azithromycin be administrated ?

A:Orally
B: In IM injection
C: Both
D: None of them

A:Orally

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Which substance does NOT belong to the CIA Highest Priority antibiotics category ?

A: Amoxicillin
B: Cefquinom
C: Cefoperazone
C: Colistin

A: Amoxicillin

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Amoxicillin is active against

A: Mycoplasma spp
B: None of them
C: Pseudomonas spp
D: Chlamydophila spp

B: None of them

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Which statement is NOT true for chloramphenicol ?

A: It can cause dose-independent aplastic anemia

B: It belongs to the table 2 (37/2010 EC)

C: It can be used topically in ophthalmic products

D: It is effectively used in sheep foot rot

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What is characteristic to doxycyline’s absorption if given orally ?

A: Good, food has no effect on it

B: Good, but it gets worse without food

C: Bad, therefore they should be given with food

D: Good, but milk products decrease absorption

A: Good, food has no effect on it

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What is the mechanism of action of lincosamides ?

A: Inhibition of peptidoglycane suynthesis

B: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis

C: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 30S ribosome subunit

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

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Cefovecin is NOT effective against :

A: Mycoplasma spp
B: None of them
C: Pseudomonas spp
D: Mycobacterium spp

A: Mycoplasma spp

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Which antibiotic group does NOT belong to the CIA Highest Priority antibiotics category ?

A: Pleuromutilines
B: Polymyxines
C: Fluroquinolones
D: IV. Generation cephalosporins

A: Pleuromutilines

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Amoxicillin clavulonic acid is NOT effective in …

A: Dermatitis in dogs

B: It’s effective in all of them

C: Echericha Coli urinary tract infection in dogs

D:Foot rot

B: It’s effective in all of them

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This cefalasporin is effective in methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus pseudintermedius infections :

A: Cefoperazon
B: Ceftiofur
C:None of them
D: Cefadroxil

C:None of them

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Which penicillin derivate has the longest half-life ?
A: Procaine benzylpenicillin
B: Benzathine benzylpenicillin
C: Benzylpenicillin sodium
D: Their half-life is similar

B: Benzathine benzylpenicillin

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What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides ?

A: Inhibition of peptidoglycane synthesis

B: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis

C: Inhibition of protein synthesis

D: None of them

C: Inhibition of protein synthesis

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Which is the most toxic macrolide antibiotic ?

A: Tilmicosin

B: Tildiprosin

C: Tilamulin

D: Tylvalosin

A: Tilmicosin

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Which of the following antibiotics is effective in swine dysentery ?

A: Tylvalosin
B: Tildipirosin
C: Both of them
D: None of them

A: Tylvalosin

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Clindamycin is eliminated in dogs ... A: Mostly with urine B: Mostly through the colon wall C: Mostly with saliva D: Mostly with bile

D: Mostly with bile

In which of the flowing cases can we expect antagonism generally ? A: When combining two 30S protein synthesis inhibitors B; When combining two antibiotics with different spectrum C: When combining a 30S and 50S synthesis inhibitor D: None of them

A: When combining two 30S protein synthesis inhibitors

In which case can Vancomycin be used ? A: Dogs with meningitis B: Life-threatening pneumonia in a calf C: Severe bacterial enteritis in a pig D: All of them

C: Severe bacterial enteritis in a pig

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides ? A: Inhibition of peptidoglycane synthesis B: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis C: Concentration-dependent bacteriocidal D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

Lincomycin can be used in ... A: Strangles in horses B: Both of them C: None of them D: Mycoplasmosis in poultry (if + spectinomycin)

C: None of them

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in swine proliferative enteropathy ? A: tylosin B: Tulathromycin C: Both of them D: None of them

A: tylosin

Which enzyme is inhibited by sulphonamides ? A: Dihydrofolate reductase B: Dihydropteroate synthetase C: Tetrahydrofolate reductase D:Tetrahydropteroate reductase

B: Dihydropteroate synthetase

What is the mode of action of bacitracin ? A: Bacteriostatic B: Inhibition of folic acid C: synthesis Inhibition of protein synthesis D: Bacteriocidal

D: Bacteriocidal

High calcium content in the feed inhibits the action of ... A: Colistin B: Oxytetracycline C: None of them D:Both of them

B: Oxytetracycline

In which of the following cases can we expect additive effect generally ? A: When combining two antibiotics with different spectrum B: When combining a 30S and a 50S protein synthesis inhibitor C: When combining two 30S protein synthesis inhibitors D: When combining a bacteriocidal and a bacteriostatic antibiotic

A: When combining two antibiotics with different spectrum

Which combination can lead to antagonisitic effect ? A: Tobramycin + metronidazole B: Gentamicin + oxytetracycline C: Sulfamethoxazole + trimethorpim D: All of them

B: Gentamicin + oxytetracycline

What does MIC stand for ? A: Minimum inhibitory concentration B: Maximum inhibitory concentration C: Mean inhibitory concentration D: Median inhibitory concentration

A: Minimum inhibitory | concentration

Which substance acts against a unique target ? A: Dicloaxacillin B: Levamisole C: Trimethoprime D: Diphenhydramine

A: Dicloaxacillin

Which combination can lead to additive effect ? A: Ceftiofur + tulathromycin B. Metronidazole + gentamicin C: Tylosin + tulamycin

B. Metronidazole + gentamicin

Which statement is NOT true for tetracyclines ? A: They can cause ulcers in the oesophagus if given rapidely B: They can cause cardiovascular problems if given intravenously C: They can cause photosensitization D: They are highly nephrotoxic due to binding to the kidney cortex

D: They are highly nephrotoxic due to binding to the kidney cortex

Which substance does NOT act against a unique target ? A: Levamisole B: Flucloxacillin C:Phenoxymethylpenicillin D: Bacitracin

A: Levamisole

Bacitracin can be given ... A: Orally B: Topically C: None of them D: Both of them

D: Both of them

Bacitracin can be used against ... A: Urinary tract infection caused by Escherichia coli B: Kennel cough C: Proliferative enteropathy D: Necrotic enteritis

D: Necrotic enteritis

This/these substance(s) has poor oral bioavailability A: Bacitracin B: Colistin C: Both of them have good bioavailability D: Both of them have a poor bioavailability

D: Both of them have a poor bioavailability

Vancomycin is eliminated ... A: Mostly with the bile B: Mostly through the colon’s wall C: Mostly with urine D: Mostly with saliva

C: Mostly with urine

Which side effect can occur during sulphonamide treatment ? A: Type III allergic reaction in dogs B: Both of them C: Vitamin K deficiency in poultry D: None of them

B: Both of them

Which agent can be given IV ? A: Procaine benzylpenicillin B: Benzylpenicillin sodium C: Benzathine benzylpenicillin D: Amoxicillin trihydrate

B: Benzylpenicillin sodium

Risk of selecting resistant bacteria is lowest at this antibiotic concentration : A: concentration > MPC B: concentration < MIC C: MIC < concentration < MPC D: None of them

A: concentration > MPC

To which antiobiotic category do III and IV generation cephalosporins belong ? A: B (restrict) B: A (avoid) C: C (caution) D: D (prudence)

A: B (restrict)

Which is the aim when ceftiofur is used A: The drug concentration should be above MIC as long as possible B: The drug concentration should be above MIC as much as possible C:Both should be achieved D: None of them is true

A: The drug concentration should be above MIC as long as possible

What is the aim when we use concentration dependent antibiotics ? A: Giving high dose for a short time B: Giving high dose for a long time C: Giving low dose for a short time D: Giving low dose for a long time

A: Giving high dose for a short time

Which sulphonamide is called “intestinal disinfectant” A: Sulfasalazine B: Sulfaguanidine C: Sulfaquinoxaline D: Sulfadimethoxine

B: Sulfaguanidine

What is the mode of action of potentatied sulphonamides ? A: Concentration-dependent bactericidal B: Time-dependent bactericidial C: Bacteriostatic D: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

B: Time-dependent bactericidial

Which enzyme is inhibited by diaminopyrimidines ? A: Dihydropteroate synthetase B: Dihydrofolate reductase C: Tetrahydrofolate reductase D: Tetrahydropteroate reductase

B: Dihydrofolate reductase

Dysbiosis is most likely to occur in this species during sulphonamide treatment : A: Ruminants B. Poultry C: Cats D: Horses

D: Horses

Which side effect is characteristic of polymixins A: Severe liver damage B: Severe dysbiosis C: All of them D: Severe kidney damage

D: Severe kidney damage

Which substance has antiendotoxin effect ? A: Bacitracin B:Both of them C: None of them D: Polymyxin B

D: Polymyxin B

Tetracyclines can be effective in A: Lyme disease B: Foot rot C: Kennel cough D: All of them

D: All of them

Which of the following agents hast postantibiotic effect ? A: Phenoxymethylpenicillin B: All of them C: Cefalexin D: Piperacillin

B: All of them

Cefovecin belongs to the ... A: Generation cefalosporins B: Genetarion cefalosporins C: Generation cefalosporins D: Generation cefalosporins

C: Generation cefalosporins

Which combination can lead to additive effect ? A: Ceftiofur + tulathromycin B: Metronidazole + gentamicin C: Tylosin + tulathromycin D: All of them

B: Metronidazole + gentamicin

Which sulphonamide has relevant coccidiostatic activity ? A: Sulfadiazine B: Sulfaquinoxaline C: Sulfachlorpyridazine D: Sulfasalazine

B: Sulfaquinoxaline

Rifampicin can be used in the following case. A: Escherichia coli diarrhea in swine B: Kennel cough C: Rhodococcus equi infection in horses D: Isospora canis nfection in dogs

C: Rhodococcus equi infection in horses

This bacterium usually does not produce ß-lactamase enzymes. A: Staphylococcus pseudintermedius B: Clostridium perfringens C: Fusobacterium necrophorum D: Porphyromonas levii

A: Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

Against which type of target do the azoles act ? A: Unique target B: Similar target C: Common target D: None of them

A: Unique target

In which case can we used bacteriostatic agents ? A: Middle aged dog, good overall health B: Pregnant sow C: Cat infected with Feline Leukemia Virus D: Old horse

A: Middle aged dog, good overall health

Generally, therapeutic index of chemotherapeutics is highest if they act against ... A: Unique target B: Similar target C: Common target D: There’s no difference

A: Unique target

Which is characteristic to phenicol’s pharamcokinetics ? A: Bad, they are not absorbed orally B: Good, but they can’t cross the special barriers C: None of them D: Excellent, they can cross the special barriers and the cell membran

D: Excellent, they can cross the special barriers and the cell membran

Which agent can be used in Lawsonia intreacellularis infection ? A: Spectinomycin B: Both of them C: None of them D: Lincomycin

B: Both of them

What is the combination partner of lincomycin ? A: Spiramycin B: Streptomycin C: Sulbactam D: Spectinomycin

D: Spectinomycin

Inhibition of dihydropteroate-synthetase is a .............. in antimicrobial therapy A: unique target B: Similar target C: Common target D: None of them

A: unique target

Which combination can lead to additive effect ? A: Gentamicin + oxytetracycline B: Tobramycin + metronidazole C: Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim D: All of them

B: Tobramycin + metronidazole

Cefapirin belongs to the... A: 1. generation B: 2. generation C: 3. generation D: 4. Genereation

A: 1. generation

Lincomycin frequently show cross resistance with ... A: Spectinomycin B: Amoxicillin C: Sulfadiazine D: Tylosin

D: Tylosin

Dicloxacillin is effective in ... A: E. Coli urinary tract infection in dogs B: Streptococcus uberis mastitis in cattle C: Footrot D: All of them

B: Streptococcus uberis mastitis in cattle

What does MBC stand for ? A: Minimum bactericidal concentration B: Minimum bacteriostatic concentration C: Mean bactericidal concentration D: Mean bacteriostatic concentration

A: Minimum bactericidal concentration

Which antibiotic group belongs to the CIA Highest priority antibiotics category ? A: III generation cephalosporins B: I generation cephalosporins C: II generation cephalosporins D: Phenicols

A: III generation cephalosporins

Lincomycin can be used in ... A: Swine dysentery B: Proliferative enteropathy C: None of them D: Both of them

D: Both of them

Ceftriaxone belongs to the ... A: 1. generation B: 2. generation C: 3. generation D: 4. Generation

C: 3. generation

Ceftazidime belongs to the ... A: 1. generation B: 2. generation C: 3. generation D: 4. Generation

C: 3. generation

Amikcain is active against ... A: Methicillin resistant Staph aureus B: Pasteurella multocida C: Both of them D: None of them

C: Both of them

Amoxicillin clavulonic acid is effective in ... A: Dermatitis in dogs B: All of them C: Streptococcus uberis mastitis in cattle D:bite wounds in cats

B: All of them

Neomycin is active against ... A: Clostridium perfringens B: Fusobacterium necrophorum C: None of them D: Both of them

C: None of them

Which agent can be used in Bachyspira hyodysenteriae infection ? A: Ceftiofur B: Both of them C: None og them D: Tylvalosin

D: Tylvalosin

This cephalosporin is effective in methicillin resistant Stpah pseudintermedius infections A: Cefquinome B: Ceftriaxone C: None of them D: Cefovecin

C: None of them

Procaine benzylpenicillin is given ... A: In IV injection B: In IM injection C: Orally D: All of them are correct

B: In IM injection

There’s NO glycoside bond in the structure of this antibiotic : A: Streptomycin B: Amikacin C: Spectinomycin D: All of them have glycoside bonds

C: Spectinomycin

Effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa A: Cefalexin B: Ceftazidime C: Ampicillin + sulbactam D: Oxytetracycline

B: Ceftazidime

The bacterium doesn’t belong to the fastidious Gram-negative organisms : A: Histophilus somni B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa C: Pasteurella multocida D: Mannheimia hemolytica

B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What is the mode of action of ß-lactame antibiotics ? A: Concentration-dependent bactericidal B: Time dependent bactericidal C: Bacteriostatic D: Depends on the drug’s concentration

B: Time dependent bactericidal

Which combination can lead to decreased efficacy ? A: Phenoxymethylpenicillin + florfenicol B: Doxycycline + tulathromycin C: Amoxicillin + clavulonic acid D: Colistin + Amoxicillin

B: Doxycycline + tulathromycin

Whcich combination can lead to additive effect ? A: Tylosin + Valnemulin B: Amikacin + Metronidazole C: Lincomycin + Spectinomycin D: All of them

C: Lincomycin + Spectinomycin

``` Against which type of target do the ß-lactam antibiotics act ? A: Unique B:Similar C: Common D: None ```

A: Unique

What is the mode of action of sulphonamides ? A: Concentration-dependant bactericidal B: Bacteriostatic C: Time-dependent bactericidal (if + DAPs) D: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

B: Bacteriostatic C: Time-dependent bactericidal (if + DAPs)

What is the mode of action of vancomycin generally ? A: Bacteriostatic B: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis C: Bacteriocidal D:Inhibition of protein synthesis

C: Bacteriocidal

What is the mode of action of tetracyclines ? A: Time-dependent bactericidal B: Concentration-dependent bactericidal C: Bacteriostatic D: Agent-dependent bactericidal

C: Bacteriostatic

Clindamycin can be used in ... A: Urinary tract infection B: Both of them C: None of them D: Oral cavity infection

D: Oral cavity infection

What is the mode of action of phenicols A: Time-dependent bactericidal B: Concentration-dependent bactericidal C: Agent-dependent bactericidal D: Bacteriostatic

D: Bacteriostatic

Florfenicol’s 1⁄2 life is the shortest in this species : A: Cat B: Dog C: Swine D: Cattle

B: Dog

Which mechanism of resistance is characteristics against sulphonamides A: Efflux pump B: Decreased penetration C: Both of them D: None of them

B: Decreased penetration

This can be an indication of potentiated sulphonamides A: Pseudomonas otitis B: Babesiosis C: Nocardiosis D: Heart worm disease

C: Nocardiosis

Vancomycin can be effective in this condition. A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections B: Proliferative enteropathy C: Methicillin-resistant Staph aureus infection D: Lyme disease

C: Methicillin-resistant Staph aureus infection

Most nephrotoxic agent among the listed antibiotics : A: Ampicillin B: Cefalexin C: Amikacin D: Ceftiofur

C: Amikacin

Which aminoglycoside is the safest among the followings ? A: Tobramycin B: Neomycin C: Spectinomycin D: Streptomycin

C: Spectinomycin

Which bacterium is ab ovo resistant to ß lactame antibiotics . A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa B: Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae C: Staph aureus D: E. coli

A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa B: Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

Which antibiotic is effective against methicillin resistant Staph pseudintermedius infection ? A: Piperacillin B: None of them C: Cefalexin D: Imipenem

D: Imipenem

What is the mode of action of lincosamides ? A: Time dependent bactericidal B: Concentration dependent bactericidal C: None of these D: Bacteriostatic

D: Bacteriostatic

Amikacin is active against ... A: Methicillin resistant Staph aureus B: Pasteurella C: Both of them D: None of them

C: Both of them

It has the shortest half-life from the listed agents : A: Ceftiofur crystalline free acid B: Ceftiofur sodium C: Cefovecin D: Ceftiofur hydrochloride

B: Ceftiofur sodium

Mucipirocin can be given ... A: In IV injection B: Both of them C: None of them D: Topically, in ointment

D: Topically, in ointment

Which side effect is characteristic of tilmicosin ? A: Both of them B: Tissue irritation C: Cardiotoxicity D: None of them

A: Both of them

Phenicols can be used in ... A: Bovine respiratory disease complex B: Aeromonas Salmonidae infection C: None of them D: Both of them

D: Both of them

Most effective meningitis from the listed agents : A: Amox + calvulonic acid B: Ceftriaxone C: Cefovecin D: Pivampicicillin

B: Ceftriaxone

Which of the following antibiotics is effectine in swine proliferative enteropathy ? A: Both of them B: Tylosin C: Lincomycin D: None of them

A: Both of them

What is the mechanism of action of phenicols ? A: Inhibition of peptidoglycane synthesis B: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis C: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 30S ribosome subunit D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis on the 50S ribosome subunit

Which combination can lead to decreased efficacy ? A: Amox + tetracycline B: Spectinomycin + lincomycin C: Ampicillin + sulbactam D: Streptomycin + benzylpenicillin procaine

A: Amox + tetracycline

Acetyl-sulpha cyrstals are dissoved in this pH. A: Acidic B: Alkalic C: They can be dissolved on every pH level D:Neutral

B: Alkalic

Which agent belongs to glycopeptide antibiotics ? A: Valnemulin B: Colistin C: Vancomycin D: Mupirocin

C: Vancomycin

Which combination can lead to antagonistic effect? A: Amikacin + metronidazole B: Tylosin + valnemulin C: Lincomycin + spectinomycin D: All of them

B: Tylosin + valnemulin

Which combination can lead to decreased efficacy ? A: Tiamulin + lincomycin B: Tobramycin + cefadroxil C: Metronidazole + gentamicin D: Ceftriaxone + amikacin

A: Tiamulin + lincomycin

Which statement is true ? A: MBC > MIC B: MBC < MPC C: MIC > MPC D: None of them are correct

D: None of them are correct

This side effect is NOT characteristic to phenicols A: Dose-dependent anemia B: Immunosupression C: Tissue irritation D: Kidney damage

D: Kidney damage

Clindamycin can be used in ... A: Bite wounds B; Toxoplasmosis C: None of them D: Both of them

A: Bite wounds

Which agent can be used in Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infection ? A: Ceftiofur B: Both C: None D: Tylvalosin

D: Tylvalosin

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in Campylobacter infection in dogs? A: Both of them B: Clindamycin C: Erythromycin D: None of them

C: Erythromycin

Phenoxymethylpenicillin in NOT effective in ... A: Tetanus B: Dermatitis in dogs C: Botulism D: Necrotic enteritis in poultry

B: Dermatitis in dogs

This can be an indication of potentiated sulphonamides : A: Keratoconjunctivits sicca B: Toxoplasmosis C: Tuberculosis D: Botulism

B: Toxoplasmosis

Crystalluria is most likely to occur in this species during sulphonamide treatment : A: Dogs B: Cats C: Horses D: Sulphonamides can’t cause crystalluria

B: Cats

Aminoglycosides are eliminated ... A: In inactive form, via kidney B: In active form, via bile C: In active form, via kidney D: None of them

C: In active form, via kidney

How can Tylosin be administrated ? A: Both of them B: None C: Orally D: In injection

C: Orally

What is the mode of action of rifamycins A: Inhibition of protein synthesis B: Bacteriostatic C: Bactericidal D: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

C: Bactericidal

Which side effect can occur during sulphonamide treatment ? A:Severe dysbiosis in horses B: Irreversible keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs C: Both D: None

C: Both

What is the mechanism of action ß-lactame antibiotics ? A: Inhibition of protein synthesis B: Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis C: Inhibition of deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis D: None of them are correct

B: Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis

Phenicols can be used in ... A: Urinary tract infection B: Both C: None D: Swine respiratory disease complex

D: Swine respiratory disease complex

Cefacetril belongs to the ... A: 3. generation B: 2. generation C: 1. generation D:4. Generation

C: 1. generation

Which statement is true for phenicols ? A: They can’t be given to food producing animals because they belong to Table 2 B: They have narrow spectrum, they are not effective against Pseudomonas C: They are eliminated with urine in active form, so they are effective in UTI D: Their half-life is different in different species

D: Their half-life is different in different species

What does MPC stand for ? A:Mutant prevention concentration B: Minimum preventive concentration C: Minimum postantibiotic concentration D: Maximum postantibiotic concentration

A:Mutant prevention concentration

Aminoglycosides are ... A: Nephro- and hepatotoxic, and they can cause convulsion B: Nephro- and ototoxic, and they can increase the risk of convulsion C: Oto- and nephrotoxic, and they can cause paralysis D: Oto- and neurotoxic, and they can severely damage the kidneys if administered orally

C: Oto- and nephrotoxic, and they can cause paralysis

Which agent would you use in a E. coli UTI ? A: Phenocymethylpenicillin B: Amox C: Oxacillin D: None of them

B: Amox

What is the mechanism of action of lincosamides ? A: Time-dependent bactericidal B: Inhibition of folic acid synthesis C: Cell wall synthesis inhibition D: Inhibition of protein synthesis

D: Inhibition of protein synthesis

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in Rhodococcus equi infection ? A: Erythromycin B: Tylosin C: Lincomycin D: Gentamicin

A: Erythromycin

Amoxicillin’s oral distribution is the worst in this species: A:Dog B: Pig C: Chicken D: Cat

B: Pig

Which statement is false : A: MPC > MBC B: MBC > MIC C: MPC > MIC D: MBC > MPC

D: MBC > MPC

Which substance does NOT belong to the CIA highest priority antibiotics category A: Amox B: Cequinome C: Cefoperazon D: Colistin

A: Amox

Rifampicin can be used in the following case A: Atrophic rhinitis in Su B: Lyme disease C: Mycobacteriosis D: Swine dysentery

C: Mycobacteriosis

``` Florenfenicol half-life is longuest in this species : A: Dog B: Cattle C: Swine D: Cat ```

B: Cattle

Which side effect is not likely to occur during sulfonamide treatment ? A: Bone marrow damage B: Dysbacteriosis C: Allergic reaction D: Kidney damage

A: Bone marrow damage

Which sulfonamide can be given topically ? A: Sulfachlorpyrazine B: Sulfadiazine C: Sulfasalazine D: All of them can be used topically

D: All of them can be used topically

What is true about resistance to sulphonamides ? A: Resistance is frequent, but it’s only chromosomal B: Both chromosomal and plasmid encoded resistance are frequent C: Resistance is frequent, but only in plasmid and integron mediated form D: Resistance is very rare due to special mechanism of action

B: Both chromosomal and plasmid encoded resistance are frequent

``` This cefalosporin has the best distribution among the listed substances A: Cefuroxime B: Cefalexin C: Ceftriaxone D: Cefapirin ```

C: Ceftriaxone

midterm 1 Flashcards

(149 cards)