midterm 2 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following substances has a pronounced antibacterial effect against the Enterobacteriaceae family?

A: Enrofloxacin
B: Bacitracin
C: Metronidazole
D: Vancomycin

A

A: Enrofloxacin

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2
Q

Which diseases would you use pradofloxacin for in dogs?

A: Gingivitis
B: Perianal sacculitis
C: Prostatitis
D: For all three diseases

A

D: For all three diseases

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3
Q

Which bacterial species belong to the antibacterial spectrum of generation 2.2 quinolone carboxylic acids?

A: Mycoplasma spp.
B: Streptococcus spp.
C: Enterococcus spp.
D: Anaerobic bacteria

A

A: Mycoplasma spp.

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4
Q

In which animal species can retinopathy be a typical side effect of high doses of enrofloxacin?

A: Dog
B: Horse
C: Cat
D: Swine

A

C: Cat

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5
Q

In which disease would you use nitrofurantoin for?

A: None of these
B: Urinary tract infections caused by E. coli
C: UTI caused by Proteus spp. D: In both cases

A

B: Urinary tract infections caused by E. coli

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6
Q

Which bacteria belongs to the antibacterial spectrum of vancomycin?

A: Salmonella enterica
B: Pasteurella multicida
C: Staphylococcus aureus
D: All three

A

C: Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

Which of the following sulfonamides has a long-lasting effect?

A: Sulfadimidine
B: Sulfadimethoxine
C: Sulfadiazine
D: Sulfadoxine

A

B: Sulfadimethoxine

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8
Q

Which protozoan infection can be treated with sulfonamides?

A: Leishmaniasis
B: Babesiosis
C: Toxoplasmosis
D: Giardiosis

A

C: Toxoplasmosis

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9
Q

Which antibiotic can cause crystalluria in cats?

A: Sulfamethoxazole
B: Enrofloxacin
C: Metronidazole
D: Mupirocin

A

A: Sulfamethoxazole

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of colistin?

A: Inhibits the bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase enzyme

B: Cell wall synthesis inhibitor via inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis

C: Inhibition of bacteril DNA synthesis

D: They have a «detergent-like» effect on the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

A

D: They have a «detergent-like» effect on the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

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11
Q

Antinematode agents are active against…

A: Tapeworms
B: Roundworms
C: Flukes
D: Coccidia

A

B: roundworms

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12
Q
Which substance is a prodrug?
A: Fenbendazole
B: Flubendazole
C: Thiabendazole
D: Febantel
A

D: Febantel

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13
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzimidazoles?

A: Inhibition of tubulin polymerisation

B: Allosteric activation of chloride ion channels in sensitive nematodes

C: Stimulation of nicotinic cholinergic receptors in nematodes

D: Inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation, uncoupling effect

A

A: Inhibition of tubulin polymerisation

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14
Q
Which of the following anthelmintics are effective in infections caused by Echinococcus spp.?
A: Pyrantel 
B: Praziquantel
C: Milbemycin oxime
D: Levamisole
A

B: Praziquantel

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15
Q
Which group of anthelmintics is most effective against hypobiotic larvae at therapeutic doses? 
A: Benzimidazoles 
B: Macrocyclic lactones
C: Tetrahydropyrimidines 
D: They are equally effective
A

A: Benzimidazoles

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16
Q

This oral anti-trematode agent has a long-lasting effect in ruminants due to the rumen’s reservoir property, so one application is sufficient

A: Doramectin
B: Albendazole
C: Clorsulon
D: Monepantel

A

B: Albendazole

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17
Q

Which of the following anthelmintics is known to cause severe depression of the central nervous system in susceptible individuals of certain dog breeds?

A: Pyrantel embonate
B: Febantel
C: Ivermectin
D: Praziquantel

A

C: Ivermectin

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18
Q

Which of the following substances are cats, horses and «kuvasz» (hungarian dog breed) sensitive to?

A: Levamisole
B: Febantel
C: Pyrantel embonate
D: Praziquantel

A

A: Levamisole

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19
Q

For which ectoparasiticide agent is it true that humidity produces a secondary product that is much more toxic than the original molecule?

A: Diazinon
B: Amitraz
C: Propoxur
D: Deltamethrin

A

A: Diazinon

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20
Q

What is the ectoparasitic spectrum of the carbamate: propoxur?

A: Fleas, ticks
B: Fleas, ticks, Demodex spp.
C: Only Demodex spp.
D: Ticks, mosquitoes

A

A: Fleas, ticks

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21
Q

In which line are only pyrethroids listed?

A: Tetramethrin, amitraz, diazinon, ivermectin

B: Tetramethrin, deltamethrin, pyripole, indoxacarb

C: Tetramethrin, permethrin, deltamethrin, flumethrin

D: Dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen, fluralaner, flumethrin

A

C: Tetramethrin, permethrin, deltamethrin, flumethrin

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22
Q

In which toxicosis caused by the listed ectoparasiticide agents can be used atipamezole as an antidote for the poisoning?

A: Amitraz
B: Flumethrin
C: Diazinon
D: Fluralaner

A

A: Amitraz

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23
Q

Which of the following ectoparasiticide agents affect onlylarval forms?

A: Methoprene
B: Sarolaner
C: Permethrin
D: Imidacloprid

A

A: Methoprene

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24
Q

Which of the following ectoparasiticide agents has a clinical indication limited to flea control?

A: Flumethrin
B: Moxidectin
C: Imidacloprid
D: Permethrin

A

C: Imidacloprid

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25
Which of the following avermectins can be used against fleas? A: Ivermectin B: Doramectin C: Eprinomectin D: Selamectin
D: Selamectin
26
Which of the following anticoccidials can also be used for therapy, not only for prevention? A: Narazin B: Toltrazuril C: Diclazuril D: Nicarbazin
B: Toltrazuril
27
Which of the following ionophore antibiotics are used to prevent ketosis in dairy cattle? A: Lasalocid B: Salinomycin C: Monensin D: Semduramycin
C: Monensin
28
Which of the following anticoccidials can cause coagulopathy in poultry? A: Toltrazuril B: Halofuginone C: Semduramycin D: Sulfaquinoxaline
D: Sulfaquinoxaline
29
Which of the following substances can be used to treat babesiosis? A: Sulfaquinoxaline B: Toltrazuril C: Monensin D: Imidocarb
D: Imidocarb
30
Which of the following substances are used to treat histomonosis in ornamental birds? A: Furazolidone B: Halofuginone C: Nicarbazin D: Monensin
B: Halofuginone
31
Which of the following substances has a pronounced activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A: Nalidixic acid B: Ciprofloxacin C: Vancomycin D: Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
B: Ciprofloxacin
32
Marbofloxacin is effective against... A: Fusobacterium necrophorum B: Streptococcus suis C: Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae D: It is effective against all three
C: Mycoplasma | hyopneumoniae
33
Which bacterial species belong to the antibacterial spectrum of generation 2.2 quinolone carboxylic acids? A: Enterococcus spp. B: Pasteurella spp. C: Anaerobic bacteria D: All three
B: Pasteurella spp.
34
In which animal species is the epiphysal cartilage damage of the weight-bearing joints more frequently occuring side effect in young individuals due to treatment with fluoroquinolones? A: Swine B: Guinea pig C: Rabbit D: Dog
D: Dog
35
Metronidazole is effective against... A: Pseudomonas spp. B: Streptococcus spp. C: Staphylococcus spp. D: Clostridium spp.
D: Clostridium spp.
36
Which antibiotic can be used in combination with rifampicin to treat Rhodococcus equi infection in foals? A: Clarithromycin B: Sulfamethoxazole C: Trimethoprim D: Bacitracin
A: Clarithromycin
37
Which of the following diaminopyrimidines has a long-lasting effect? A: Trimethoprim B: Both of them C: Baquiloprim D: None of them
C: Baquiloprim
38
In which infections do potentiated sulfonamides provide effective treatment? A: Purulent pruritis caused by Nocardia asteroides in dogs B: Distorting rhinitis caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica in swine C: Both of them D: None of them
C: Both of them
39
Which of the followings is a typical side effect of sulfonamides? A: Sulfmethemoglobinaemia B: Retinopathy C: Nephro- and ototoxicity D: Carcinogenicity
A: Sulfmethemoglobinaemia
40
Colistin can be used for the treatment of... A: Oral treatment of diarrhoea caused by E. coli in weaning piglets B: Oral treatment of pneumonia in growing pigs caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae C: Parenterally, for the treatment of anaerobic foot-rot disease in cattle D: Parenterally, for the treatment of infection of foals with Lawsonia intracellularis
A: Oral treatment of diarrhoea caused by E. coli in weaning piglets
41
11. Anticestodal effect means activity against... A: Roundworms B: Tapeworms C: Flukes D: Coccidia
B: Tapeworms
42
Which substance is a prodrug? A: Albendazole B: Flubendazole C: Ricobendazole D: Febantel
D: Febantel
43
Which benzimidazole has an antitrematodal effect at therapeutic doses? A: Flubendazole B: Fenbendazole C: Albendazole D: Febantel
C: Albendazole
44
Which group of anthelmintics is most likely to have an ovicidal effect at therapeutic doses? A: None of them B: Macrocyclic lactones C: Imidazothiazoles D: Tetrahydropyrimidines
C: Imidazothiazoles
45
Which of the following anthelmintics is most effective on hypobiotic larvae? A: Moxidectin B: Albendazole C: Pyrantel embonate D: Levamisole
B: Albendazole
46
Which of the following anthelmintics should be used orally for 3-5 consecutive days in dogs and cats? A: Fenbendazole B: Milbemycin oxime C: Praziquantel D: Pyrantel embonate
A: Fenbendazole
47
Which of the following anthelmintic agents show teratogenicity in early pregnancy in ewes? A: Ivermectin B: Albendazole C: Morantel D: Closantel
B: Albendazole
48
Which of the following anthelmintics is the most effective against cestodes? A: Triclabendazole B: Selamectin C: Levamisole D: Praziquantel
D: Praziquantel
49
19. The decomposition product of diazinon is diazoxon. Under what environmental conditions can this decomposition be accelerated and what will be the consequences? A: High carbon-dioxide concentration and the product becomes less toxic. B: The high ammonia content of the air in the stall makes the product less toxic C: When humidity is present, and the resulting decomposition products are much more toxic D: Due to high organic matter content of the bathing-water and the product becomes much more toxic
C: When humidity is present, and the resulting decomposition products are much more toxic
50
Amitraz is effective against... A: Mosquitos, butterfly mosquitos B: Fleas C: Ticks D: Stable flies
C: Ticks
51
Which ectoparasiticide agent is recommended for cats in the form of a collar? A: Flumethrin B: Amitraz C: Diazinon D: Pyriprole
A: Flumethrin
52
Which ectoparasiticide agents are horses, chihuahuas and cats sensitive to? A: Ivermectin B: Indoxacarb C: Methoprene D: Amitraz
D: Amitraz
53
Enterohepatic circulation is the most chracteristic for this isoxazoline A: Sarolaner B: Afoxolaner C: Fluralaner D: All three
C: Fluralaner
54
Which of the following ectoparasiticide agents affect only fleas? A: Indoxacarb B: Fluralaner C: Permethrin D: Moxidectin
A: Indoxacarb
55
Which of the following substances belong to the group of avermectins? A: Moxidectin B: Milbemycin oxime C: Selamectin D: Afoxolaner
C: Selamectin
56
Which of the following anticoccidials is an ionophore antibiotic? A: Lasalocid B: Diclazuril C: Sulfaquinoxaline D: Nicarbazin
A: Lasalocid
57
# Choose one of the following antibiotics that is expected to interact with ionophore antibiotics! A: Amoxicillin B: Gentamicin C: Tiamulin D: Oxytetracycline
C: Tiamulin
58
Which of the following animal species is most sensitive to ionophore antibiotics? A: Cattle B: Horse C: Turkey D: Domestic chickens
B: Horse
59
Which of the following substances is used to treat babesiosis in dogs? A: Toltrazuril B: Imidocarb C: Sulfaquinoxaline D: Monensin
B: Imidocarb
60
30. Which of the following substances is used to treat giardiosis in dogs? A: Metronidazole B: Toltrazuril C: Imidocarb D: Monensin
A: Metronidazole