Mix Nav Revision

Question 1

Q91.
An aircraft flies from a cold air mass into a warm air mass at a constant FL and RAS. The Mach number will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant

Answer 1

Correct Answer:
[x) c) Remain constant]

Question 2

Q80
The principal advantage of a gyro magnetic compass (slaved gyro compass) is:
Options:
a) It does not have to be aligned with the north
b) It does not precess
c) It combines the north-seeking ability of the magnetic compass with the stability of the direction indicator

⸻

Answer 2

Correct Answer:
[x) c) It combines the north-seeking ability of the magnetic compass with the stability of the direction indicator]

Question 3

Q81
A remote indicating compass has usually less deviation error than a panel mounted compass because:
Options:
a) It is carrying a well-damped floating magnet
b) It is normally mounted in a part of the airplane where magnetic interference is minimal
c) It receives a higher flux-density from the Earth’s magnetic field

Answer 3

Correct Answer:
[x) b) It is normally mounted in a part of the airplane where magnetic interference is minimal]

Question 4

Q82
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation:
Options:
a) the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board
b) both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echos
c) the replies from the transponders of other aircraft

⸻

Answer 4

Correct Answer:
[x) c) the replies from the transponders of other aircraft]

Question 5

Q83
AWR works in SHF band because:
Options:
a) Large water drops, and storms give good reflection at 3 cm. wavelength and small drops like fog / mist / stratus clouds do not give reflections.
b) Enable the equipment to be powerful to be installed in nose.
c) To receive reflection from large water droplets and dust storm.

Answer 5

Correct Answer:
[x) a) Large water drops, and storms give good reflection at 3 cm. wavelength and small drops like fog / mist / stratus clouds do not give reflections.]

Question 6

Q86
The transponder IDENT button is used:
Options:
a) On initial contact with ATC
b) When requested by ATC
c) When changing codes

Answer 6

Correct Answer:
[x) b) When requested by ATC]

Question 7

Q35.
Inputs to TCAS II include:
a) Mode S transponder to coordinate avoidance maneuvers
b) Mode A transponder providing TA & RA data
c) Mode C transponder coordinating avoidance maneuvering

⸻

Answer 7

Correct Answer:
[x) a) Mode S transponder to coordinate avoidance maneuvers]

Question 8

Q36.
After applying GPS differential correction to a raw position, the refined position will be:
a) Absolutely accurate
b) Accurate to 1 meter
c) Accurate to 1 to 3 meters

⸻

Answer 8

Correct Answer:
[x) c) Accurate to 1 to 3 meters]

Question 9

Q37.
In EFIS the triangle symbol represents:
a) A selected course pointer and is available on the ADI when VOR or ILS is selected. It is coloured magenta
b) An active waypoint and is available on the HSI when MAP, PLAN or VOR is selected, it is coloured green
c) The aeroplane indicates its position at the apex of the triangle; it is available on the HSI when MAP, VOR or ILS is selected and is coloured white

⸻

Answer 9

Correct Answer:
[x) c) The aeroplane indicates its position at the apex of the triangle; it is available on the HSI when MAP, VOR or ILS is selected and is coloured white

Question 10

Q38.
To increase the maximum theoretical range of pulse radar system:
a) Reduce the PRF and increase the power
b) Increase the PRF and reduce the power
c) Increase the PRF and increase the power

⸻

Answer 10

Correct Answer:
[x) a) Reduce the PRF and increase the power]

Question 11

Q39.
A magnetic compass must be swung after:
a) A short term change in latitude
b) Long term change in latitude
c) Short term change in longitude

⸻

Answer 11

Correct Answer:
[x) b) Long term change in latitude]

Question 12

Q40.
When a mode ‘C’ interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is coded and transmitted. This vertical position is referred to:
a) The subscale of the altimeter
b) Area QNH
c) 1013.2 hPa

Answer 12

Correct Answer:
[x) c) 1013.2 hPa]

Question 13

Q42.
GRID MORA value clear all terrain and man-made structures by:
a) 2000 ft
b) 2000 ft in mountainous area and 1000 ft in non-mountainous area
c) 1000 ft when highest elevation are 5000’ MSL or lower and 2000 ft where highest elevations are 5000’ MSL or higher

⸻

Answer 13

Correct Answer:
[x) a) 2000 ft]

Question 14

Q43.
You are flying magnetic heading 300, with the Omni-bearing Indicator to 300, the CDI needle showing 3 dots left and the TO flag showing. If the airplane is now turned to the reciprocal heading of magnetic heading 120. Assuming the selection remains unaltered, what would be the indications on VOR display?
a) CDI needle will shift 3 dots to the right
b) TO flag will change to FROM
c) There will not be any changes in the VOR indication

Answer 14

Correct Answer:
[x) c) There will not be any changes in the VOR indication

Question 15

Q44.
In a Doppler VOR (DVOR), the reference signal is ______, the bearing signal is ______, and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______:
a) AM, FM, anti-clockwise
b) AM, FM, clockwise
c) FM, AM, anti-clockwise

Answer 15

Correct Answer:
[x) a) AM, FM, anti-clockwise]

Question 16

Q34
Question: GPWS may give warning of:
Options:
A. excessive sink rate
B. excessive closure with terrain
C. excessive proximity with ground when not in landing configuration
D. excessive AOB
Options:
a) A, B & C
b) B, C & D
c) A, C & D

Answer 16

Correct Answer:
[x) a) A, B & C]

Question 17

Q63
Question: If Pitot source gets blocked during descent ASI will _____, VSI will _____ & Altimeter will _____?
Options:
a) Under Read, Over Read, Over Read Respectively
b) Over Read, No effect, No effect Respectively
c) Under Read No effect, No effect Respectively

⸻

Answer 17

Correct Answer:
[x) c) Under Read No effect, No effect Respectively]

Question 18

Q64
Question: Forward CG will cause?
Options:
a) Higher Stalling speed
b) Lower stalling speed
c) No effect on the stalling speed

⸻

Answer 18

Correct Answer:
[x) a) Higher Stalling speed]

Question 19

Q67
Question: Turning Error is maximum in NHS when?
Options:
a) Aircraft is turning through North South directions at least latitudes
b) Aircraft is turning through North South at High latitudes
c) Turning through East/West Directions

⸻

Answer 19

Correct Answer:
[x) b) Aircraft is turning through North South at High latitudes]

Question 20

Q69
Question: Airspeed Entered in Col.15 of the flight plan is always?
Options:
a) TAS
b) IAS
c) G/S

⸻

Answer 20

Correct Answer:
[x) a) TAS]

Question 21

Q70
Question: Rhumb Lines on a polar stereographic projection:
Options:
a) Curve concave to nearer pole
b) Straight lines
c) Curve convex to nearer pole

⸻

Answer 21

Correct Answer:
[x) a) Curve concave to nearer pole]

Question 22

Q72
Question: Which of the following is a horizontal axis Tied gyro?
Options:
a) artificial horizontal
b) turn and slip indicator
c) DGI

⸻

Answer 22

Correct Answer:
[x) b) turn and slip indicator]

Question 23

Q73
Question: In what way does IRS differ from INS?
Options:
a) has shorter spin up time and suffers from laser lock
b) has longer spin up time but does not suffer from laser lock
c) is difficult to maintain due to many more moving parts

Answer 23

Correct Answer:
[x) c) is difficult to maintain due to many more moving parts]

Question 24

Q46
Question: The heading indicator is a
Options:
a) Earth gyro
b) Directional gyro
c) Rate gyro
Correct Answer:
[x) b) Directional gyro]

⸻

Q47
Question: An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a warm air mass. The altimeter reading will be:
Options:
a) Correct
b) Greater than the real altitude
c) Less than the real altitude
Correct Answer:
[x) c) Less than the real altitude]

⸻

Q48
Question: If the needle and the ball of a turn and slip indicator both show right, what does it indicate?
Options:
a) Turn to left and too much bank
b) Turn to right and too much bank
c) Turn to left and too little bank
Correct Answer:
[x) b) Turn to right and too much bank]

⸻

Q49
Question: What is density altitude?
Options:
a) Altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the density in the standard atmosphere
b) Pressure altitude corrected for prevailing temp
c) Temperature altitude
Correct Answer:
[x) a) Altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the density in the standard atmosphere]

⸻

Q50
Question: Mach number is defined as:
Options:
a) The ratio of pitot pressure to dynamic pressure
b) The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure
c) The ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure
Correct Answer:
[x) c) The ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure

Question 25

Q46 Question: The heading indicator is a Options: a) Earth gyro b) Directional gyro c) Rate gyro ⸻

Answer 25

Correct Answer: [x) b) Directional gyro]

Question 26

Q47 Question: An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a warm air mass. The altimeter reading will be: Options: a) Correct b) Greater than the real altitude c) Less than the real altitude ⸻

Answer 26

Correct Answer: [x) c) Less than the real altitude]

Question 27

Q48 Question: If the needle and the ball of a turn and slip indicator both show right, what does it indicate? Options: a) Turn to left and too much bank b) Turn to right and too much bank c) Turn to left and too little bank ⸻

Answer 27

Correct Answer: [x) b) Turn to right and too much bank]

Question 28

Q49 Question: What is density altitude? Options: a) Altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the density in the standard atmosphere b) Pressure altitude corrected for prevailing temp c) Temperature altitude ⸻

Answer 28

Correct Answer: [x) a) Altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the density in the standard atmosphere]

Question 29

Q50 Question: Mach number is defined as: Options: a) The ratio of pitot pressure to dynamic pressure b) The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure c) The ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure

Answer 29

Correct Answer: [x) c) The ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure

Question 30

Q51 Question: What happens when the static pressure supply, to an altimeter, becomes blocked during a descent? Options: a) Reduces to zero b) Over reads c) Indicates altitude at which blockage occurred ⸻

Answer 30

Correct Answer: [x) c) Indicates altitude at which blockage occurred]

Question 31

Q52 Question: INS relies on: Options: a) Satellite radio positioning waves to fix position b) Accelerometers only to fly the aircraft along a given set of way points c) Accelerometers and a rate gyro stabilized platform to measure acceleration and velocity and keep continuous log of progress from initial erection to shut down ⸻

Answer 31

Correct Answer: [x) c) Accelerometers and a rate gyro stabilized platform to measure acceleration and velocity and keep continuous log of progress from initial erection to shut down]

Question 32

Q56 Question: Stalling Speed with landing configuration is called? Options: a) Vso b) Vsl c) Vs ⸻

Answer 32

Correct Answer: [x) a) Vso]

Question 33

Q57 Question: V1 Should not be less than? Options: a) Vmcg b) Vmbe c) Vmca & Vmcg ⸻

Answer 33

Correct Answer: [x) a) Vmcg]

Question 34

Q58 Question: Scale at LCC practically is? Options: a) Constant within 8 degrees of equator b) Constant Everywhere c) Constant outside standard parallels ⸻

Answer 34

Correct Answer: [x) b) Constant Everywhere]

Question 35

Q60 Question: When turning error is maximum? Options: a) When Turning through North/South direction at high latitudes b) When Turning through North/South at least latitudes c) When turning through East/West Direction at high latitudes ⸻

Answer 35

Correct Answer: [x) a) When Turning through North/South direction at high latitudes]

Question 36

Q61 Question: What Squawk Code should be Entered while crossing an FIR? Options: a) 7500 b) 7600 c) 2000 ⸻

Answer 36

Correct Answer: [x) c) 2000]

Question 37

Q62 Question: What does the Pitot Tube measure? Options: a) Total - Dynamic Pressure b) Total + Static Pressure c) Dynamic + Static Pressure

Answer 37

Correct Answer: [x) c) Dynamic + Static Pressure]

Question 38

Q23 Question: An aircraft on its final approach. The ILS indicator show two dot left and two dots above the centre line with 3 nm DME range from the threshold. ILS has a four dot scale. Find distance from extended R/W centre line and the height of the aircraft above the threshold. Options: a) 115 meters right of centre line, 45 meters b) 115 meters left of centre line, 31 meters c) 230 meters right of centre line, 106 meters ⸻

Answer 38

Correct Answer: [x) a) 115 meters right of centre line, 45 meters]

Question 39

Q24 Question: An airborne Doppler equipment is most likely to unlock over: Options: a) A calm sea b) Mountainous terrain c) desert surface ⸻

Answer 39

Correct Answer: [x) a) A calm sea]

Question 40

Q25 Question: After take off, VNAV will engage when: Options: a) A thrust setting other than take off power is set and the altitude selected is initially above the aircraft current height b) A steering command is initiated and the altitude is at least with the current aircraft c) There is no AFCS comparator and all system flags are clear ⸻

Answer 40

Correct Answer: [x) a) A thrust setting other than take off power is set and the altitude selected is initially above the aircraft current height]

Question 41

Q29 Question: The effect on the position of the CP of reducing the TAS in a head wind component, will be to: Options: a) Leave the distance unchanged b) Decrease the distance c) Increase the distance ⸻

Answer 41

Correct Answer: [x) c) Increase the distance]

Question 42

Q32 Question: INS relies on: Options: a) Satellite radio positioning waves to fix position b) Accelerometers only to fly the aircraft along a given set of way points c) Accelerometers and a rate gyro stabilized platform to measure acceleration and velocity and keep a continuous log of progress from initial erection to shut down ⸻

Answer 42

Correct Answer: [x) c) Accelerometers and a rate gyro stabilized platform to measure acceleration and velocity and keep a continuous log of progress from initial erection to shut down]

Question 43

Q33 Question: What input is fed to the ADC: Options: A. angle of attack B. TAT C. OAT D. dynamic pressure E. Static Pressure F. Total pressure G. AC electrical power H. automatic commands a) A, B, D, E & G b) A, B, D, F & G c) A, B, E, F & G]

Answer 43

Correct Answer: [x) c) A, B, E, F & G]

Question 44

Q10 Question: If an aircraft with two static ports sideslips towards the blocked port, the altitude indication will? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain unchanged ⸻

Answer 44

Correct Answer: [x) a) Increase]

Question 45

Q12 Question: What are errors in a DGI? 1. Transport wander 2. Earth rate 3. Heading errors when banking and pitching 4. Mechanical imperfection Options: a) 1, 2 & 4 b) 2, 3 & 4 c) All the above are correct ⸻

Answer 45

Correct Answer: [x) c) All the above are correct]

Question 46

Q13 Question: While using the airborne weather radar in the weather mode, the strongest returns on the screen indicate – Options: a) Areas of high concentration of larger water droplets b) Areas of probable wind shear c) Areas of severe turbulence ⸻

Answer 46

Correct Answer: [x) a) Areas of high concentration of larger water droplets]

Question 47

Q18 Question: On a Mercator chart, radio bearing are plotted – Options: a) After correcting G/C radio brg into R/L brg by applying CA b) Directly as G/C bearing c) As thumb line bearing after applying convergency angle

Answer 47

Correct Answer: [x) a) After correcting G/C radio brg into R/L brg by applying CA]

Question 48

Q1 Question: The aircraft flies from position 500 N 1750 W to a new position 500 N 1750 E crossing the international date line, the observer should – Options: a) Decrease the date and LMT increase b) Increase the date and LMT increases c) Increase the date and LMT decreases ⸻

Answer 48

Correct Answer: [x) c) Increase the date and LMT decreases]

Question 49

Q2 Question: A co-located VOR/DME is being used to track on airway inbound on the 1600 radial, at 60 nm DME range, the VOR indicates 3360 on the OBS and FROM/TO reads ‘TO’, the aircraft position is – Options: a) VOR, CDI needle indicates one dot to the right b) 4nm left of the airway centre line c) 4 nm starboard of the airway centre line ⸻

Answer 49

Correct Answer: [x) c) 4 nm starboard of the airway centre line]

Question 50

Q3 Question: The radio altimeter determines aircraft height by – Options: a) Measuring the time interval between outgoing and incoming signals b) Employing a pulse modulation pattern c) Comparing the frequencies of the outgoing and the incoming signals

Answer 50

Correct Answer: [x) c) Comparing the frequencies of the outgoing and the incoming signals

Question 51

Q4 Question: Listed below are factors which change density altitude – A. Decreasing barometric pressure B. Increasing barometric pressure C. Decreasing temperature D. Increasing temperature E. Decreasing relative humidity F. Increasing relative humidity Select the factors, which increase the density altitude at a given airport: Options: a) A, D & E b) B, C & E c) A, D & F ⸻

Answer 51

Correct Answer: [x) c) A, D & F]

Question 52

Q5 Question: If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted and a constant indicated altitude is maintained, the altimeter would indicate – Options: a) The actual altitude above the sea level b) Higher than the actual altitude above sea level c) Lower than the actual altitude above sea level ⸻

Answer 52

Correct Answer: [x) c) Lower than the actual altitude above sea level]

Question 53

Q7 Question: Under which of the following circumstances will GPWS not give warning? Options: a) Approaching without flaps lowered b) Approaching with the undercarriage not locked down c) Rising ground ahead ⸻

Answer 53

Correct Answer: [x) c) Rising ground ahead]

Question 54

Q8 Question: When fitted with mode ‘C’ transponders, a TCAS – 2 system may provide? Options: a) RA only b) Horizontal plane TA & RA c) Vertical plane TA & RA

Answer 54

Correct Answer: [x) c) Vertical plane TA & RA]

Question 55

Q95 Question: A/c approaching to NDB heading 240°, ADF reads 000°, A/c maintains heading but drifted to the left. ADF reading will be: Options: a) < 000° b) = 000° c) > 000° ⸻

Answer 55

Correct Answer: [x) c) > 000°]

Question 56

Q96 Question: During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a? Options: a) Nose-down attitude. b) Constant attitude. c) Nose-up attitude. ⸻

Answer 56

Correct Answer: [x) c) Nose-up attitude]

Question 57

Q97 Question: In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate: Options: a) an apparent turn to the North b) no apparent turn c) a heading fluctuating about 090° ⸻

Answer 57

Correct Answer: [x) a) an apparent turn to the North]

Question 58

Q98 Question: A radio altimeter can be defined as a: Options: a) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft b) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft c) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft ⸻

Answer 58

Correct Answer: [x) b) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft]

Question 59

Q99 Question: Aero plane loading: A) must be performed under the supervision of qualified personnel B) must be consistent with the data used for calculating the mass and balance C) must comply with compartment dimension limitations D) must comply with the maximum load per running meter E) must comply with the maximum mass per cargo compartment Options: a) A, B, C, D and E only b) C, D and E only c) A and B only

Answer 59

Correct Answer: [x) a) A, B, C, D and E only]

Question 60

Q80 Question: An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication will show: Options: a) fly left and fly up b) fly right and fly down c) fly left and fly down

Answer 60

Correct Answer: [x) b) fly right and fly down

Question 61

Q81 Question: Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by: Options: a) misalignment of the loop aerial b) skywave/ground wave contamination c) signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces ⸻

Answer 61

Correct Answer: [x) c) signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces]

Question 62

Q82 Question: A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the call sign. Having heard the same call sign 4 times in 30 seconds the: Options: a) VOR and DME call signs were the same and broadcast with the same pitch b) DME call sign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once c) DME call sign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation ⸻

Answer 62

Correct Answer: [x) b) DME call sign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once]

Question 63

Q84 Question: Radio Waves are coming from the land to the sea the waves will bend: Options: a) Towards normal b) Remain same c) Away from normal ⸻

Answer 63

Correct Answer: [x) c) Away from normal]

Question 64

Q88 Question: In a chart if meridians and parallels of Lat. Cut each other at right angles and the scale in the immediate vicinity of the point are correct, the chart is said to be: Options: a) Equal area projection b) poly-conic projection c) Orthomorphic projection ⸻

Answer 64

Correct Answer: [x) c) Orthomorphic projection]

Question 65

Q90 Question: C.A. increases with: Options: a) Increases of Lat and Decreases of d long. b) Decrease of Lat and Decreases of d long. c) Increases of Lat and increases of d long. ⸻

Answer 65

Correct Answer: [x) c) Increases of Lat and increases of d long.]

Question 66

Q91 Question: What will happen to the altimeter indications in an aircraft in level flight if the right static vent becomes blocked and the left remains clear? Options: a) Over indicate when side slipping right. b) Over indicate when side slipping left. c) Under indicate in all conditions. ⸻

Answer 66

Correct Answer: [x) a) Over indicate when side slipping right.]

Question 67

Q92 Question: The vectors of a triangle that are resolved by computer to determine course and G/S are: Options: a) Co & TAS, Tr & G/S, wind direction and speed b) Course and G/S, Tr & TAS, W/V c) Tr and wind speed, Co & TAS, wind direction and G/S ⸻

Answer 67

Correct Answer: [x) a) Co & TAS, Tr & G/S, wind direction and speed]

Question 68

Q93 Question: A/C is on 100° (M) Bg from NDB, in order to intercept 110° Bg line from the NDB a/c to to turn Options: a) Right 130° b) Right 130°. c) Right 080° ⸻

Answer 68

Correct Answer: [x) b) Right 130°.]

Question 69

Q94 Question: The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a? Options: a) Accelerometer system. b) Choke system. c) Bi-metallic compensator.

Answer 69

Correct Answer: [x) a) Accelerometer system.]

Question 70

Q67 Question: The degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises. Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyro which? Options: a) Two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system. b) Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system. c) One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system. ⸻

Answer 70

Correct Answer: [x) a) Two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system.]

Question 71

Q68 Question: A slaved directional gyro derives its directional signal from? Options: a) a direct reading magnetic compass. b) The flight director. c) The flux valve. ⸻

Answer 71

Correct Answer: [x) c) The flux valve.]

Question 72

Q69 Question: Aircraft attitude is indicated on? Options: a) EICAS/ECAM primary display. b) EFIS ND. c) EFIS PFD. ⸻

Answer 72

Correct Answer: [x) c) EFIS PFD.]

Question 73

Q70 Question: When turning through 90° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate? Options: a) Too much nose up and too little bank angle. b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle. c) Too little nose up and too little bank angle. ⸻

Answer 73

Correct Answer: [x) a) Too much nose up and too little bank angle.]

Question 74

Q71 Question: The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is ……. by ……… and ………… Indicates the state of slip? Options: a) Held central | Gravity | Does not always. b) Positioned | Acceleration | Does not always. c) Held central | Gravity | Always. ⸻

Answer 74

Correct Answer: [x) b) Positioned | Acceleration | Does not always.]

Question 75

Q72 Question: The turn indicator is affected by? 1. AOB 2. Airspeed 3. Weight 4. Altitude Options: a) 1, 2. b) 2, 3. c) 3, 4. d) 1, 2. ⸻

Answer 75

Correct Answer: [x) a) 1, 2.]

Question 76

Q73 Question: The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are? Options: a) Needle and ball right. b) Needle and ball left. c) Needle right and ball left.

Answer 76

Correct Answer: [x) c) Needle right and ball left.

Question 77

Q74 Question: ROT indications depend on? 1. Airspeed 2. Mass 3. AOB Options: a) 1, 2. b) 2, 3. c) 1, 3. d) 3, 4. ⸻

Answer 77

Correct Answer: [x) c) 1, 3.]

Question 78

Q75 Question: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates “TO”. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft? Options: a) 095° b) 275° c) 085° ⸻

Answer 78

Correct Answer: [x) b) 275°]

Question 79

Q76 Question: The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of: Options: a) 2.5 nm b) 3.0 nm c) 3.5 nm ⸻

Answer 79

Correct Answer: [x) c) 3.5 nm]

Question 80

Q77 Question: What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM? Options: a) 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centerline b) 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centerline c) 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centerline ⸻

Answer 80

Correct Answer: [x) b) 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centerline]

Question 81

Q78 Question: An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are ‘fly’: Options: a) left with ‘TO’ showing b) right with ‘TO’ showing c) right with ‘FROM’ showing ⸻

Answer 81

Correct Answer: [x) a) left with ‘TO’ showing]

Question 82

Q79 Question: Magnetic heading 280°, VOR radial 090°. What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a “TO” indication? Options: a) 100° b) 090° c) 270°

Answer 82

Correct Answer: [x) c) 270°]

Question 83

Q50 Question: What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a static vent at each side of the fuselage, but the left one is blocked? Options: a) Over read b) Under read c) No change ⸻

Answer 83

Correct Answer: [x) b) Under read]

Question 84

Q51 Question: 0.5 NM for 1 minute of difference in longitude at: Options: a) 60°N b) 45°N c) 20°W ⸻

Answer 84

Correct Answer: [x) a) 60°N

Question 85

Q52 Question: What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight enters a cold front? Options: a) Over indication b) Under indication c) No change ⸻

Answer 85

Correct Answer: [x) a) Over indication

Question 86

Q53 Question: In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to? Options: a) Change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout. b) Compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables length. c) Account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the readings. ⸻

Answer 86

Correct Answer: [x) c) Account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the readings.]

Question 87

Q54 Question: The operating frequency range of a altitude radio altimeter is? Options: a) 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz b) 5 GHz c) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz ⸻

Answer 87

Correct Answer: [x) c) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz]

Question 88

Q55 Question: An advantage of VHF as compared to low frequency radio is: Options: a) Speed of reception as waves travel faster b) Much greater range is possible c) Reduction of static interference ⸻

Answer 88

Correct Answer: [x) c) Reduction of static interference]

Question 89

Q56 Question: As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might? Options: a) Become inaccurate due to ground effect. b) Become inaccurate due to turbulence. c) Stick due to loss of pitot source. ⸻

Answer 89

Correct Answer: [x) a) Become inaccurate due to ground effect.]

Question 90

Q57 Question: What should the VSI indicate when an aircraft on a 3 degree glide slope is flying at 100 Kts TAS? Options: a) 224 fpm descent. b) 524 fpm descent. c) 424 fpm descent. ⸻

Answer 90

Correct Answer: [x) c) 524 fpm descent.]

Question 91

Q58 Question: If the port static vent of a large aircraft is blocked, what will happen to the VSI indications when it is side slipping at a constant rate to the left in a descent? Options: a) Over indicate. b) Under indicate. c) Be unaffected. ⸻

Answer 91

Correct Answer: [x) c) Be unaffected.]

Question 92

Q59 Question: What does the blue line on a twin engine piston aircraft ASI indicate? Options: a) VXSE b) VYSE c) VNE ⸻

Answer 92

Correct Answer: [x) b) VYSE]

Question 93

Q60 Question: What are indicated by the lower and upper ends of the white arc on an ASI? Options: a) VS1 and VFE b) VSO and VFE c) VFE and VFO ⸻

Answer 93

Correct Answer: [x) b) VSO and VFE]

Question 94

Q61 Question: When descending from FL400 and attempting to maintain maximum groundspeed, airspeed will be limited by? Options: a) VNE then VMO b) VNO then VNE c) MMO then VMO ⸻

Answer 94

Correct Answer: [x) c) MMO then VMO]

Question 95

Q62 Question: During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)? Options: a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases. b) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. c) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. ⸻

Answer 95

Correct Answer: [x) a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.]

Question 96

Q63 Question: VLE is the maximum? Options: a) Speed authorized in flight. b) Flight speed with landing gear down. c) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. ⸻

Answer 96

Correct Answer: [x) b) Flight speed with landing gear down.]

Question 97

Q64 Question: How will mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb? Options: a) Increase. b) Decrease. c) Increase then remain constant. ⸻

Answer 97

Correct Answer: [x) a) Increase.]

Question 98

Q65 Question: What is the LSS at MSL, ISA? Options: a) 600 Kts. b) 661 Kts. c) 750 Kts. ⸻

Answer 98

Correct Answer: [x) b) 661 Kts.]

Question 99

Q66 Question: What would happen if the static pipe became detached from the back of a mach meter in a pressurised aircraft at high altitude? Options: a) Under read. b) Over read. c) No effect.

Answer 99

Correct Answer: [x) a) Under read.]

Question 100

Q37 Question: In calculations with respect to the position of the center of gravity a reference is made to a datum. The datum is Options: a) an arbitrary reference chosen by the pilot which can be located anywhere on the aero plane b) a reference plane which is chosen by the aero plane manufacturer. Its position is given in the aero plane Flight or Loading Manual c) calculated from the loading manifest ⸻

Answer 100

Correct Answer: [x) b) a reference plane which is chosen by the aero plane manufacturer. Its position is given in the aero plane Flight or Loading Manual

Question 101

Q38 Question: Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as Options: a) the focal point b) the datum c) the center of gravity of the aero plane ⸻

Answer 101

Correct Answer: [x) b) the datum]

Question 102

Q39 Question: The second segment of take-off flight path begins Options: a) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for the flap retraction b) when landing gear is fully retracted c) when flap retraction begins ⸻

Answer 102

Correct Answer: [x) b) when landing gear is fully retracted]

Question 103

Q40 Question: Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment? Options: a) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating b) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied c) There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height ⸻

Answer 103

Correct Answer: [x) b) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied]

Question 104

Q41 Question: If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. The number of minutes is: Options: a) 30 b) 15 c) 45 ⸻

Answer 104

Correct Answer: [x) a) 30]

Question 105

Q42 Question: You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? Options: a) 20 mins b) 45 mins c) 30 mins ⸻

Answer 105

Correct Answer: [x) c) 30 mins]

Question 106

Q43 Question: The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart: Options: a) is constant along a meridian of longitude b) is constant along a parallel of latitude c) varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude ⸻

Answer 106

Correct Answer: [x) b) is constant along a parallel of latitude]

Question 107

Q44 Question: On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a: Options: a) small circle concave to the nearer pole b) straight line c) curve convex to the nearer pole

Answer 107

Correct Answer: [x) b) straight line]

Question 108

Q47 Question: During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot that indicated airspeed? Options: a) Decreases abruptly towards zero. b) Increases steadily c) Increases abruptly towards VNE. ⸻

Answer 108

Correct Answer: [x) b) Increases steadily]

Question 109

Q48 Question: With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a Options: a) Increasing speed. b) Fluctuating speed c) Decreasing speed. ⸻

Answer 109

Correct Answer: [x) c) Decreasing speed.]

Question 110

Q49 Question: The density altitude is? Options: a) The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere. b) The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and standard temperature. c) The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.

Answer 110

Correct Answer: [x) a) The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere.]

Question 111

Q25 Question: A mach meter comprises of? Options: a) A combination of ASI and altimeter. b) An ASI with its scale marked in mach numbers. c) An altimeter with its scale marked in mach numbers.

Answer 111

Correct Answer: [x) a) A combination of ASI and altimeter.]

Question 112

Q31 Question: Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aero plane’s maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by: Options: a) the maximum zero fuel mass. b) the maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass. c) the maximum take-off mass.

Answer 112

Correct Answer: [x) c) the maximum take-off mass.

Question 113

Q32 Question: Traffic load is the: Options: a) zero fuel mass minus dry operating mass. b) dry operating mass minus the disposable load. c) dry operating mass minus the variable load.

Answer 113

Correct Answer: [x) a) zero fuel mass minus dry operating mass.]

Question 114

Q36 Question: The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aero plane may be loaded prior to engine start. It is: Options: a) a value which varies with airfield temperature and altitude, corrections are listed in the flight manual. b) a value which varies only with airfield altitude. standard corrections are listed in the flight manual. c) a fixed value which is listed in the flight manual ⸻

Answer 114

Correct Answer: [x) c) a fixed value which is listed in the flight manual]

Question 115

Q6 Question: The angle between magnetic north and compass north is called: Options: a) magnetic variation b) compass deviation c) alignment error ⸻

Answer 115

Correct Answer: [x) b) compass deviation]

Question 116

Q7 Question: A positive (easterly) magnetic variation signifies that? Options: a) True North is East of Magnetic North. b) True North is West of Magnetic North. c) Magnetic North is West of Compass North.

Answer 116

Correct Answer: [x) b) True North is West of Magnetic North.

Question 117

Q8 Question: In order to fly from position A (10°00’N, 030°00’W) to position B (30°05’00”N, 030°00’W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly? Options: a) A rhumb line track. b) The constant average drift route. c) The great-circle route. ⸻

Answer 117

Correct Answer: [x) a) A rhumb line track.]

Question 118

Q9 Question: At a fixed pressure altitude an increase in temperature will? Options: a) Decrease density but increase density altitude. b) Decrease density altitude. c) Not affect density altitude.

Answer 118

Correct Answer: [x) a) Decrease density but increase density altitude.]

Question 119

Q11 Question: The position of an aircraft that it would reach if it were flown in conditions of no wind is known as: Options: a) DR position b) Most probable position c) Air position ⸻

Answer 119

Correct Answer: [x) c) Air position]

Question 120

Q12 Question: The sensitivity of a magnetic compass can be affected by? Options: a) The H component of the earth’s magnetic field b) The Z component of the earth’s magnetic field c) Both of the above ⸻

Answer 120

Correct Answer: [x) c) Both of the above]

Question 121

Q13 Question: When cruising on a westerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate? Options: a) Northerly turn b) Southerly turn c) No turn

Answer 121

Correct Answer: [x) c) No turn

Question 122

Q14 Question: When turning right through 90 degrees to north, in the northern hemisphere, roll out should be conducted on a heading of? Options: a) 010 degrees b) 020 degrees c) 350 degrees ⸻

Answer 122

Correct Answer: [x) c) 350 degrees]

Question 123

Q15 Question: When turning from SE to SW at 50 degrees north, the roll out should occur at? Options: a) 245 degrees b) 210 degrees c) 225 degrees ⸻

Answer 123

Correct Answer: [x) a) 245 degrees]

Question 124

Q16 Question: On a Lambert Conformal conic chart great circle that are not meridians are? Options: a) Curves concave to the pole of projection b) Straight lines within the standard parallels c) Curves concave to the parallel of origin ⸻

Answer 124

Correct Answer: [x) c) Curves concave to the parallel of origin]

Question 125

Q17 Question: Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are? Options: a) Rhumb lines b) Complex curves c) Great circle

Answer 125

Correct Answer: [x) a) Rhumb lines]

Question 126

Q22 Question: When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant mach number? Options: a) CAS increases b) CAS decreases c) TAS decreases ⸻

Answer 126

Correct Answer: [x) b) CAS decreases]

Question 127

Q23 Question: When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS? Options: a) LSS increases b) LSS decreases c) LSS remains constant

Answer 127

Correct Answer: [x) c) LSS remains constant

Question 128

Q24 Question: How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at FL270 when it experiences a reduction in OAT? Options: a) No change b) Decrease c) Increase or decrease depending on TAT

Answer 128

Correct Answer: [x) a) No change

Question 129

Q1 Question: The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the? Options: a) The changing distance between the Sun and the Earth. b) The inclination of the ecliptic to the Equator. c) The changing shape of the orbit to the Earth around the Sun. ⸻

Answer 129

Correct Answer: [x) b) The inclination of the ecliptic to the Equator.]

Question 130

Q2 Question: The purpose of creating network of latitudes and longitudes is Options: a) for pinpointing positions on the Earth b) for strategic reasons during war c) for navigation by ships. ⸻

Answer 130

Correct Answer: [x) a) for pinpointing positions on the Earth]

Question 131

Q3 Question: The datum used for measuring directions is Options: a) the meridian of the place b) Latitude of the place c) none is correct. ⸻

Answer 131

Correct Answer: [x) a) the meridian of the place]

Question 132

Q4 Question: Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except meridians, on a polar stereographic chart? Options: a) Ellipses around the pole. b) Curves concave to the pole. c) Curves convex to the pole.

Answer 132

Correct Answer: [x) b) Curves concave to the pole.]

Question 133

Q1 Question: The duration of civil twilight is the time? Options: a) Between Sunset and when the center of the sun is 6° below the true horizon. b) Between Sunset and when the top of the sun is 6° below the visual horizon. c) Between Sunset and when the center of the sun is 6° below the visual horizon. ⸻

Answer 133

Correct Answer: [x) a) Between Sunset and when the center of the sun is 6° below the true horizon.]

Question 134

Q2 Question: Earth is a: Options: a) Planet b) Satellite c) Asteroid ⸻

Answer 134

Correct Answer: [x) a) Planet]

Question 135

Q3 Question: When standing at the South Pole in which direction will you be facing? Options: a) North b) South c) East ⸻

Answer 135

Correct Answer: [x) a) North]

Question 136

Q4 Question: An aircraft passes position A (75°00′N 120°00′W) on route to position B (75°00′N 140°30′W). What is the great circle track on departure from A? Options: a) 280° b) 285° c) 267° ⸻

Answer 136

Correct Answer: [x) a) 280°]

Question 137

Q5 Question: A day at a place as measured in local mean time starts: Options: a) When the mean sun transits the meridian of the place in question. b) When the mean sun transits the anti-meridian of the place in question. c) When the mean sun transits the 180°E/W meridian. ⸻

Answer 137

Correct Answer: [x) b) When the mean sun transits the anti-meridian of the place in question.]

Question 138

Q6 Question: Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives: Options: a) Magnetic track b) True heading c) Compass heading ⸻

Answer 138

Correct Answer: [x) c) Compass heading]

Question 139

Q7 Question: A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that: Options: a) Compass north is east of magnetic north b) Compass north is west of magnetic north c) True north is east of magnetic north

Answer 139

Correct Answer: [x) c) True north is east of magnetic north]

Question 140

Q10 Question: On an instrument check while taxiing when carrying out a turn the TSI will indicate: Options: a) Slip in to the turn b) Skip out of turn c) No slip or skid ⸻

Answer 140

Correct Answer: [x) b) Skip out of turn]

Question 141

Q11 Question: Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are? Options: a) Rhumb lines b) Great circle c) Both Rhumb line and Great circles ⸻

Answer 141

Correct Answer: [x) a) Rhumb lines]

Question 142

Q12 Question: When landing in a southerly direction a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate? Options: a) Easterly turn b) Westerly turn c) No turn ⸻

Answer 142

Correct Answer: [x) c) No turn]

Question 143

Q13 Question: The greatest cause of errors in a direct reading magnetic compass is? Options: a) Turning b) Latitude changes c) Parallax ⸻

Answer 143

Correct Answer: [x) a) Turning]

Question 144

Q14 Question: To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point? Options: a) On the center line of the magnet b) Below the center of gravity c) Above the center of gravity ⸻

Answer 144

Correct Answer: [x) c) Above the center of gravity]

Question 145

Q15 Question: At what DRMC heading is roll out required when conducting a turn from south-west to south-east at 45 degrees north? Options: a) 115 degrees b) 135 degrees c) 140 degrees

Answer 145

Correct Answer: [x) a) 115 degrees]

Question 146

Q17 Question: What type of projection is generally used for charts used for navigation in North and South polar areas? Options: a) Lambert’s conformal b) Polar stereographical projection c) Direct Mercator

Answer 146

Correct Answer: [x) b) Polar stereographical projection]

Question 147

Q22 Question: When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS? Options: a) Mach number increases b) Mach number decreases c) TAS decreases ⸻

Answer 147

Correct Answer: [x) a) Mach number increases]

Question 148

Q23 Question: When descending through an isothermal layer at constant mach number? Options: a) TAS increases b) TAS decreases c) TAS remains constant ⸻

Answer 148

Correct Answer: [x) c) TAS remains constant]

Question 149

Q24 Question: When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will? Options: a) Decrease b) Increase at a linear rate c) Increase at an exponential rate ⸻

Answer 149

Correct Answer: [x) a) Decrease]

Question 150

Q25 Question: In a steady climb with the auto-throttle maintaining a constant calibrated airspeed, if the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number? Options: a) Increases b) Remains constant c) Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature ⸻

Answer 150

Correct Answer: [x) a) Increases]

Question 151

Q26 Question: How will CAS respond if temperature increases by 5 degrees C when flying at a constant indicated mach number at FL290? Options: a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains approximately constant

Answer 151

Correct Answer: [x) c) Remains approximately constant]

Question 152

Q34 Question: In a DRC magnetic system is made aperiodic by Options: a) Pendulous suspension b) Magnets with large magnetic moments c) Damping action of compass liquid ⸻

Answer 152

Correct Answer: [x) c) Damping action of compass liquid]

Question 153

Q35 Question: Which of the following statements is correct? Options: a) The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp. b) The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aero plane excluding traffic load and usable fuel but including the crew. c) The Maximum Landing Mass of an aero plane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway. ⸻

Answer 153

Correct Answer: [x) c) The Maximum Landing Mass of an aero plane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway.]

Question 154

Q36 Question: The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located Options: a) at or near the natural balance point of the empty aero plane b) at or near the forward limit of the center of gravity c) at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aero plane ⸻

Answer 154

Correct Answer: [x) c) at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aero plane]

Question 155

Q37 Question: In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum? Options: a) It is the most aft position of the center of gravity b) It is the point on the aero plane designated by the manufacturers from which all center of gravity measurements and calculations are made c) It is the distance from the center of gravity to the point through which the weight of the component acts ⸻

Answer 155

Correct Answer: [x) b) It is the point on the aero plane designated by the manufacturers from which all center of gravity measurements and calculations are made]

Question 156

Q38 Question: Vertical soft iron magnetism Options: a) Strength increases with increase in magnetic latitude b) Strength varies as cosine of magnetic latitude c) has the same polarity in both the hemispheres ⸻

Answer 156

Correct Answer: [x) a) Strength increases with increase in magnetic latitude]

Question 157

Q39 Question: In high speed aircraft, the TAS is determined by means of an: Options: a) Air speed indicator b) An accelerometer c) Mach meter

Answer 157

Correct Answer: [x) c) Mach meter]

Question 158

Q27 Question: If ambient temperature increases by 10 degrees, for an aircraft flying at constant TAS, the indicated mach number will…….and the true mach number will……..? Options: a) Increase, increase b) Decrease, Decrease c) Not change, Increase

Answer 158

Correct Answer: [x) b) Decrease, Decrease]

Question 159

Q31 Question: With respect to aero plane loading in the planning phase, which of the following statements is always correct? Options: a) LM = TOM - TRIP FUEL b) MTOM = ZFM + MAXIMUM POSSIBLE FUEL MASS c) MZFM = TRAFFIC LOAD + DOM ⸻

Answer 159

Correct Answer: [x) a) LM = TOM - TRIP FUEL]

Question 160

Q32 Question: For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass: Options: a) less the operating mass b) plus the operating mass c) plus the trip fuel mass ⸻

Answer 160

Correct Answer: [x) a) less the operating mass]

Question 161

Q33 Question: The center of gravity of an aero plane: Options: a) may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aero plane’s certificate of airworthiness b) is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aero plane loading c) can be allowed to move between defined limits

Answer 161

Correct Answer: [x) c) can be allowed to move between defined limits]

Question 162

Q40 Question: It is possible, in flight, to: 1. file an IFR flight plan 2. modify an active IFR or VFR flight plan 3. cancel an active VFR flight plan 4. close an active VFR flight plan The combination of correct statements is: Options: a) 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 3

Answer 162

Correct Answer: [x) b) 1, 2, 3, 4]

Question 163

Q43 Question: Isogonals are lines of equal: Options: a) compass deviation. b) magnetic variation. c) wind velocity.

Answer 163

Correct Answer: [x) b) magnetic variation.]

Question 164

Q47 Question: A gyro which does not have a rotor is called: Options: a) Ring laser gyro b) Rotor free gyro c) Free gyro ⸻

Answer 164

Correct Answer: [x) a) Ring laser gyro]

Question 165

Q48 Question: The north magnetic pole is: Options: a) At the northern end of the Earth’s axis of rotation b) Is always in the same geographic position c) Slowly and constantly changing its position

Answer 165

Correct Answer: [x) c) Slowly and constantly changing its position]

Question 166

Q49 Question: If QFE is 1022 hPa what is the pressure altitude of the field? Options: a) 270 ft amsl b) -270 ft amsl c) 30660 ft amsl ⸻

Answer 166

Correct Answer: [x) b) -270 ft amsl]

Question 167

Q50 Question: The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of? Options: a) A sub-scale logarithmic function b) An induction pick-off device c) More effective temperature compensating leaf springs ⸻

Answer 167

Correct Answer: [x) b) An induction pick-off device]

Question 168

Q51 Question: Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters? Options: a) Overcome friction b) Overcome inertia c) Overcome hysteresis ⸻

Answer 168

Correct Answer: [x) a) Overcome friction]

Question 169

Q52 Question: The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches: Options: a) Operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range b) Are of the pulsed type c) Are of the frequency modulation type ⸻

Answer 169

Correct Answer: [x) c) Are of the frequency modulation type]

Question 170

Q53 Question: For the landing configuration a radio altimeter indicates? Options: a) Altitude of the main wheel above ground b) Height of the flight deck above the ground c) Height of the main wheel above the ground ⸻

Answer 170

Correct Answer: [x) c) Height of the main wheel above the ground]

Question 171

Q54 Question: A VSI? Options: a) Produces an output proportional to ambient pressure b) Measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure c) Measures the difference between the pressure inside and outside a capsule ⸻

Answer 171

Correct Answer: [x) c) Measures the difference between the pressure inside and outside a capsule]

Question 172

Q55 Question: A VSI indicates increasing ROD by? Options: a) VSI needle moving downwards b) VSI needle moving upwards c) VSI needle stationary

Answer 172

Correct Answer: [x) a) VSI needle moving downwards]

Question 173

Q71 Question: Which of the following properties are possessed by a standby artificial horizon? Options: 1. Independent power supply. 2. Integral gyro. 3. Remote (external) gyro. 4. Used only in emergencies. 5. At least one per pilot in JAR 25 aircraft. a) 1, 2. b) 2, 3. c) 3, 4. ⸻

Answer 173

Correct Answer: [x) a) 1, 2.]

Question 174

Q72 Question: If an aircraft turns through 270° at a constant rate of turn and AOB, the indications on its classic artificial horizon will be? Options: a) Bank left nose up. b) Bank right nose up. c) Wings level nose up. ⸻

Answer 174

Correct Answer: [x) b) Bank right nose up.]

Question 175

Q73 Question: The turn needle indicates ….. in a slightly banked turn? Options: a) Angular velocity about the vertical axis. b) Angular acceleration about the vertical axis. c) Angular velocity about the lateral axis. ⸻

Answer 175

Correct Answer: [x) a) Angular velocity about the vertical axis.]

Question 176

Q74 Question: A rate 1 turn at 120 kts requires? Options: a) 10° AOB b) 20° AOB c) 30° AOB ⸻

Answer 176

Correct Answer: [x) b) 20° AOB]

Question 177

Q75 Question: Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to oppose yaw and keep the aircraft on heading, whilst using bank to prevent side slip. What will the turn and slip indicator show? Options: a) Both needle and ball central b) Needle central and ball right c) Both needle and ball left ⸻

Answer 177

Correct Answer: [x) b) Needle central and ball right]

Question 178

Q76 Question: The data supplied by a radio altimeter? Options: a) Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft. b) Concerns only the decision height. c) Is used only by the radio altimeter indicator. ⸻

Answer 178

Correct Answer: [x) a) Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.]

Question 179

Q77 Question: The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains: Options: a) two modes, each of 4096 codes b) four modes, each 1024 codes c) four modes, each 4096 codes

Answer 179

Correct Answer: [x) a) two modes, each of 4096 codes

Question 180

Q79 Question: Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of: Options: a) 400 Hz b) 2000 Hz c) 3000 Hz

Answer 180

Correct Answer: [x) a) 400 Hz]

Question 181

Q81 Question: The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to: Options: a) hear the ident and must always be switched on b) find the loop ‘null’ position c) hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal ⸻

Answer 181

Correct Answer: [x) c) hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal]

Question 182

Q82 Question: What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon? Options: a) blue – amber – white b) amber – white – green c) white – amber – blue

Answer 182

Correct Answer: [x) a) blue – amber – white] ⸻

Question 183

Q83 Question: The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of: Options: a) 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse b) 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse c) 75 MHz and is modulated by more than 2 dashes per second

Answer 183

Correct Answer: [x) c) 75 MHz and is modulated by more than 2 dashes per second

Question 184

Q85 Question: Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ………° each side of the localizer center-line to a distance of (ii) ………. NM from the threshold. Options: a) (i) 25 (ii) 17 b) (i) 35 (ii) 25 c) (i) 8 (ii) 10 ⸻

Answer 184

Correct Answer: [x) c) (i) 8 (ii) 10]

Question 185

Q86 Question: For a conventional DME facility Beacon Saturation will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds: Options: a) 60 b) 100 c) 200 ⸻

Answer 185

Correct Answer: [x) b) 100]

Question 186

Q87 Question: The accuracy of a DME: Options: a) is approximately ± 2 nm b) is approximately ± 0.5 nm c) decreases with increase of range

Answer 186

Correct Answer: [x) c) decreases with increase of range

Question 187

Q88 Question: Which of the following cause air density to decrease? Options: a) Increasing humidity, decreasing altitude, increasing temperature. b) Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, decreasing temperature. c) Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, increasing temperature. ⸻

Answer 187

Correct Answer: [x) c) Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, increasing temperature.]

Question 188

Q89 Question: EAS is Options: a) IAS corrected for adiabatic compression b) CAS corrected for adiabatic compression c) IAS corrected for instruments errors. ⸻ ]

Answer 188

Correct Answer: [x) b) CAS corrected for adiabatic compression]

Question 189

Q90 Question: When a DME is used instead of marker beacons to provide range to the threshold on an ILS approach and where the DME frequency is paired with the ILS, the DME indications should not be used at altitudes greater than: Options: a) 25,000 ft b) 10,000 ft c) 6,000 ft

Answer 189

Correct Answer: [x) c) 6,000 ft]

Question 190

⸻ Q91 Question: An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because: Options: a) the pulse recurrence rates are varied b) they are not on the receiver frequency c) DME uses the UHF band

Answer 190

Correct Answer: [x) b) they are not on the receiver frequency]

Question 191

Q93 Question: If the pressure feed line to a barometric altimeter becomes detached from the back of the instrument in flight the instrument will? Options: a) Read zero continuously. b) Read cabin altitude. c) Over read. ⸻

Answer 191

Correct Answer: [x) b) Read cabin altitude.]

Question 192

Q94 Question: If temperature increases by 5 degrees C during a constant mach number descent, what will happen to CAS? Options: a) Increase by 5 Kts. b) Increase by 10 Kts. c) Remain constant. ⸻

Answer 192

Correct Answer: [x) a) Increase by 5 Kts.]

Question 193

Q95 Question: What does mach number represent? Options: a) The CAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound. b) The local speed of sound as a fraction of the CAS of an aircraft. c) The IAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound.

Answer 193

Correct Answer: [x) c) The IAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound.] ⸻

Question 194

Q96 Question: An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is? Options: a) A directional gyro. b) An artificial horizon. c) A turn indicator.

Answer 194

Correct Answer: [x) a) A directional gyro.

Question 195

Q97 Question: An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a? Options: a) Fluxgate compass. b) Directional gyro. c) Turn indicator. ⸻

Answer 195

Correct Answer: [x) c) Turn indicator.]

Question 196

Q98 Question: In a standby compass the magnet system is immersed in a transparent liquid. The purpose of this liquid is to Options: a) increase sensitivity, increase aperiodicity. b) increase sensitivity at high latitudes, lubricate bearings. c) increase sensitivity, decrease aperiodicity.

Answer 196

Correct Answer: [x) a) increase sensitivity, increase aperiodicity.

Question 197

Q1 Question: The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately? Options: a) 66.5° b) 90.0° c) 23.5° ⸻

Answer 197

Correct Answer: [x) c) 23.5°]

Question 198

The indications of the directional gyro when used as an on-board instrument are valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are? Options: 1. The earth’s rotation. 2. The longitudinal acceleration. 3. The aircraft’s motion over the surface of the earth. 4. The mechanical defects of the gyro. 5. The gyro’s weight. 6. The gimbals mount of the gyro rings.

Answer 198

Correct combination: ✅ b) 1, 3, 4, 6 Explanation: • 1. Earth’s rotation → Causes drift in the gyro. • 3. Aircraft’s motion over the earth → Includes changes in latitude and heading, affecting accuracy. • 4. Mechanical defects → Like friction in the gimbals can introduce precession. • 6. Gimbals mount → Imperfect mounting contributes to drift or precession.

Question 199

Q2 Question: A Rhumb line is: Options: a) A line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle b) Any straight line on a Lambert projection c) A line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection ⸻

Answer 199

Correct Answer: [x) a) A line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle]

Question 200

Q3 Question: If you want to follow a constant true track value: Options: a) You must fly a great circle b) You must fly a rhumb line c) You, in most cases, will also fly the shortest possible track ⸻

Answer 200

Correct Answer: [x) b) You must fly a rhumb line]

Question 201

Q4 Question: Which of the following differences in latitude will produce the greatest difference between the initial great circle track and the mean great circle track, between two points, which are separated by 15° change of longitude? Options: a) 30°S and 25°S b) 30°S and 30°N c) 60°N and 55°N

Answer 201

Correct Answer: [x) c) 60°N and 55°N]

Question 202

Q6 Question: The countries having a standard time slow on UTC: Options: a) will often have an earlier standard date than the UTC date. b) will generally be located at eastern longitudes. c) will generally be located at western longitudes. ⸻

Answer 202

Correct Answer: [x) c) will generally be located at western longitudes.]

Question 203

Q7 Question: Isogonic lines connect positions that have: Options: a) the same elevation b) the same variation c) 0° variation ⸻

Answer 203

Correct Answer: [x) b) the same variation]

Question 204

Q8 Question: Compass deviation is defined as the angle between: Options: a) True north and compass north b) Magnetic north and compass north c) The horizontal and the total intensity of the earth’s magnetic field

Answer 204

Correct Answer: [x) b) Magnetic north and compass north]

Question 205

Q10 Question: In order to fly from position A (10°00’N, 030°00’W) to position B (30°00’N, 050°00’W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly? Options: a) The great-circle route. b) A straight line plotted on a Lambert chart. c) A rhumb line track.

Answer 205

Correct Answer: [x) c) A rhumb line track.]

Question 206

Q14 Question: When correcting RAS of 150 K a TAS of > 150 K is obtained. Options: a) Density of air must be greater than ISA mean Sea level air density. b) No allowance has been made for compressibility c) Error must have been made in calculations

Answer 206

Correct Answer: [x) a) Density of air must be greater than ISA mean Sea level air density.

Question 207

Q15 Question: The purpose of a compass swing is to? Options: a) Align the lubber lines with true north. b) Confirm the accuracy of the schedule tuning. c) Align compass north with magnetic north. ⸻

Answer 207

Correct Answer: [x) c) Align compass north with magnetic north.]

Question 208

Q16 Question: A runway in the northern hemisphere is on an agonic line and heading 045 degrees. If an aircraft with zero compass deviation takes off in still air, what will the northerly turning errors be? Options: a) The compass will remain on 045. b) The compass will move to less than 045. c) The compass will move to more than 045. ⸻

Answer 208

Correct Answer: [x) b) The compass will move to less than 045.]

Question 209

Q17 Question: In order to convert true heading into magnetic heading a compass card and ………… are required? Options: a) Deviation card. b) Error card. c) Map with isogonal lines. ⸻

Answer 209

Correct Answer: [x) c) Map with isogonal lines.]

Question 210

Q18 Question: The roll out must be performed at………. when turning from NW to SE in the southern hemisphere? Options: a) 115 degrees. b) 145 degrees. c) 125 degrees.

Answer 210

Correct Answer: [x) b) 145 degrees.]

Question 211

⸻ Q19 Question: Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of 1:2 000 000? Options: a) 130 nm. b) 130 cm. c) 200 nm. ⸻

Answer 211

Correct Answer: [x) a) 130 nm.]

Question 212

Q20 Question: A straight line on a Lambert conformal projection chart for normal flight planning purposes? Options: a) Is approximately a great circle. b) Is a loxodromic line. c) Is a Rhumb line. ⸻

Answer 212

Correct Answer: [x) a) Is approximately a great circle.]

Question 213

Q21 Question: On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N), with respect to the straight line drawn on the map between A (N49°W030°) and B (N48°W040°)? Options: a) Great circle and rhumb line are to the south of the parallel of origin. b) Great circle and rhumb line are to the north of the parallel of origin. c) Great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the south.

Answer 213

Correct Answer: [x) a) Great circle and rhumb line are to the south of the parallel of origin.

Question 214

Q25 Question: As pressure altitude increases? Options: a) Temperature decreases. b) Temperature decreases then remains constant. c) Temperature increases then remains constant. ⸻

Answer 214

Correct Answer: [x) b) Temperature decreases then remains constant.]

Question 215

Q26 Question: True altitude is obtained from…………on board an aircraft? Options: a) Density altitude. b) Temperature altitude. c) Pressure altitude. ⸻

Answer 215

Correct Answer: [x) c) Pressure altitude.]

Question 216

Q27 Question: During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)? Options: a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases. b) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. c) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases. ⸻

Answer 216

Correct Answer: [x) a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.]

Question 217

Q28 Question: For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a? Options: a) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density. b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density. c) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density. Correct Answer: [x) b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.] Q39 Question: The center of gravity location of the aero plane is normally computed along the: Options: a) vertical axis b) longitudinal axis c) horizontal axis Correct Answer: [x) b) longitudinal axis] ⸻ Q40 Question: While using a VSI a pilot can Options: a) not rely on reading especially when change of pitch altitudes occurring b) only rely when changing to horizontal flight c) rely on its readings in all altitudes of flight Correct Answer: [x) a) not rely on reading especially when change of pitch altitudes occurring] ⸻ Q41 Question: At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? Options: a) 1500 ft above field elevation b) 35 ft above ground c) 400 ft above field elevation Correct Answer: [x) c) 400 ft above field elevation] ⸻ Q42 Question: The Radio wave, covers in 1 microsecond a distance of: Options: a) 300M b) 500M c) 300 ft Correct Answer: [x) a) 300M] ⸻ Q43 Question: For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is: Options: a) the time of take-off b) the time at which the flight plan is filed c) the estimated off-block time Correct Answer: [x) c) the estimated off-block time] Q49 Question: In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake? Options: a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible Correct Answer: [x) a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window] ⸻ Q50 Question: The altimeter consist of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively? Options: a) (i) Static pressure  (ii) Total pressure b) (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure)  (ii) Static pressure c) (i) Static pressure at time t  (ii) Static pressure at time t-t Correct Answer: [x) b) (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure)  (ii) Static pressure] ⸻ Q51 Question: The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a? Options: a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor b) Bi-metallic strip c) Return spring Correct Answer: [x) a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor] ⸻ Q52 Question: The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to? Options: a) Allow damping of the measurement in the unit b) Reduce the hysteresis effect c) Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages Correct Answer: [x) c) Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages] Q54 Question: What is density altitude? Options: a) Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature. b) True altitude. c) Pressure altitude corrected for density changes. Correct Answer: [x) a) Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.] ⸻ Q55 Question: A radio altimeter is? Options: a) Aircraft based and indicates true altitude. b) Aircraft based and indicates pressure altitude. c) Aircraft based and indicates true height. Correct Answer: [x) c) Aircraft based and indicates true height.] ⸻ Q56 Question: Radio altimeters are based on the principle of? Options: a) Frequency modulated carrier wave. b) Pulse modulated carrier wave. c) Amplitude modulated carrier wave. Correct Answer: [x) a) Frequency modulated carrier wave.] ⸻ Q57 Question: The correct action to be taken when the static vent blocks on an unpressurised aircraft is to? Options: a) Break the VSI glass. b) Use the standby static source. c) Calculate ROC using mathematically. Correct Answer: [x) b) Use the standby static source.] ⸻ Q58 Question: If the casing of a VSI in a pressurised aircraft develops a leak? Options: a) VSI indications will be too high when climbing and too low when descending. b) VSI indications will be too high when climbing or descending. c) VSI indications will be too low when climbing and too high when descending. Correct Answer: [x) a) VSI indications will be too high when climbing and too low when descending.] ⸻ Q59 Question: What do the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI represent? Options: a) VNE and VNO. b) VNO and VNE. c) VMO and VNE. Correct Answer: [x) a) VNE and VNO.] ⸻ Q60 Question: If the pitot source and drain become blocked by ice when in cruise flight, how will the ASI respond when descending? Options: a) It will under read. b) It will over read. c) It will read zero in all conditions. Correct Answer: [x) a) It will under read.] ⸻ Q61 Question: At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift-off at the same? Options: a) CAS. b) TAS. c) Ground speed. Correct Answer: [x) a) CAS.] ⸻ Q62 Question: The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in? Options: a) True airspeed (TAS). b) Computed airspeed (COAS). c) Calibrated airspeed (CAS). Correct Answer: [x) c) Calibrated airspeed (CAS).] ⸻ Q63 Question: The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are? Options: a) VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit. b) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit. c) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit. Correct Answer: [x) c) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.] Q65 Question: How will mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static source becomes blocked? Options: a) Increase. b) Decrease. c) Remain constant. Correct Answer: [x) b) Decrease.] ⸻ Q66 Question: The indications on a mach meter are independent of? Options: a) Dynamic pressure. b) Ambient temperature. c) Static pressure. Correct Answer: [x) b) Ambient temperature.] Q68 Question: What could be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn? Options: a) Climb due to pendulous vanes. b) No climb. c) Descent due to pendulous vanes. Correct Answer: [x) a) Climb due to pendulous vanes.] Q69 Question: What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at constant attitude and bank angle? Options: a) Correct bank angle and attitude. b) Too little bank and too much nose up attitude. c) Too little bank and too little nose up attitude. Correct Answer: [x) b) Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.] ⸻ Q70 Question: Classic artificial horizon indications turning through 180° at constant AOB? Options: a) Nose up and AOB too low. b) Nose up and AOB too high. c) Nose up and correct AOB. Correct Answer: [x) c) Nose up and correct AOB.] ⸻ Q71 Question: An artificial horizon has… Degrees of freedom in the … axis? Options: a) Two, vertical. b) Two, horizontal. c) One, vertical. Correct Answer: [x) b) Two, horizontal.] ⸻ Q72 Question: When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft is? Options: a) Turning right with too much TAS. b) Turning right with insufficient TAS. c) Turning left with too much TAS. Correct Answer: [x) b) Turning right with insufficient TAS.] ⸻ Q73 Question: When the needle is displaced right and the ball displaced left, in a turn and slip indicator, the aircraft is? Options: a) Turning right with insufficient bank. b) Turning left with too much bank. c) Turning left with insufficient TAS. Correct Answer: [x) a) Turning right with insufficient bank.] ⸻ Q74 Question: Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed? Options: a) DME station sited on the flight route. b) An ADF sited on the flight route. c) A VOR station sited on the flight route. Correct Answer: [x) a) DME station sited on the flight route.] ⸻ Q75 Question: When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is: Options: a) Altitude based on regional QNH. b) Aircraft height based on sub-scale setting. c) Flight level based on 1013.25 hPa. Correct Answer: [x) c) Flight level based on 1013.25 hPa.] ⸻ Q76 Question: DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately: Options: a) 1000 MHz b) 1000 GHz c) 1000 KHz Correct Answer: [x) a) 1000 MHz] ⸻ Q77 Question: The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because: Options: a) Transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft. b) Pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft. c) Pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration. Correct Answer: [x) b) Pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft.] ⸻ Q78 Question: The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is: Options: a) Phase comparison b) Envelope matching c) Beat frequency discrimination Correct Answer: [x) a) Phase comparison] Q81 Question: Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles? Options: a) Global Positioning System (GPS) b) Airborne weather radar (AWR) c) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Correct Answer: [x) b) Airborne weather radar (AWR)] ⸻ Q82 Question: The wavelength of HF is? Options: a) Centimetric b) Decimetric c) Metric Correct Answer: [x) c) Metric] ⸻ Q83 Question: The least attenuation of a skywave is likely to occur at? Options: a) Midnight and high frequency. b) Midday and high frequency. c) Midnight and low frequency. Correct Answer: [x) c) Midnight and low frequency.] ⸻ Q84 Question: Diffraction of radio waves? Options: a) Increases with increasing frequency. b) Decreases with increasing frequency. c) Is constant at all frequencies. Correct Answer: [x) b) Decreases with increasing frequency.] Q85 Question: Sky waves at day or night are least likely with? Options: a) VHF b) LF c) HF Correct Answer: [x) a) VHF] ⸻ Q86 Question: The optimum HF frequency puts the receiver? Options: a) Just inside the minimum skip distance b) Just outside the minimum skip distance c) Just within the surface wave coverage area Correct Answer: [x) b) Just outside the minimum skip distance] ⸻ Q87 Question: Surface wave range? Options: a) Decreases with increasing frequency b) Is independent of frequency c) Decreases with decreasing frequency Correct Answer: [x) a) Decreases with increasing frequency] ⸻ Q88 Question: Atmospheric ducting close to the earth, is most likely? Options: a) In an inversion with constant humidity at all altitudes b) In an inversion with humidity decreasing with increasing altitude c) Over land Correct Answer: [x) b) In an inversion with humidity decreasing with increasing altitude] ⸻ Q89 Question: The BFO in an ADF? Options: a) Produces a signal that differs from the received signal by approximately 2 KHz b) Produces a 2 KHz signal c) Minimises static interference Correct Answer: [x) a) Produces a signal that differs from the received signal by approximately 2 KHz] ⸻ Q90 Question: For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must not exceed … in a terminal area and … outside a terminal area? Options: a) 50 feet; 200 feet b) 100 m; 2000 m c) 30m; 600m Correct Answer: [x) c) 30m; 600m] ⸻ Q91 Question: DME is a (i) radar operating in the (ii) band and transmits (iii)? Options: a) (i) secondary; (ii) UHF; (iii) pulse pairs b) (i) secondary; (ii) SHF; (iii) 2400 pulse pairs per second c) (i) primary; (ii) SHF; (iii) CW pulses Correct Answer: [x) a) (i) secondary; (ii) UHF; (iii) pulse pairs] ⸻ Q92 Question: What type of pressure sensor is employed in a barometric altimeter? Options: a) Aneroid capsule b) Differential capsule c) Bellows Correct Answer: [x) a) Aneroid capsule] ⸻ Q93 Question: If the glass of a barometric altimeter in a pressurised aircraft becomes cracked and the static ports become blocked, the altimeter will? Options: a) Over read b) Under read c) Read cabin altitude Correct Answer: [x) c) Read cabin altitude] ⸻ Q94 Question: Mach meter indications? Options: a) Are temperature related b) Increase with temperature c) Are independent of temperature Correct Answer: [x) c) Are independent of temperature] ⸻ Q95 Question: What is actually measured by a mach meter? Options: a) Pilot pressure b) The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure): static pressure c) The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure Correct Answer: [x) b) The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure): static pressure] ⸻ Q96 Question: The International Date Line is found on or near the ———. When crossing the date line traveling west, you go into the ——— day: Options: a) Parallel, next day b) Meridian, previous day c) Meridian, next day Correct Answer: [x) b) Meridian, previous day] ⸻ Q97 Question: An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is? Options: a) An artificial horizon b) A turn indicator c) A directional gyro Correct Answer: [x) c) A directional gyro] ⸻ Q98 Question: What error is caused by movement of the gyro relative to the earth in a DGI? Options: a) Transport wander b) Earth rate c) Real wander Correct Answer: [x) a) Transport wander] ⸻ Q99 Question: Gyroscope rigidity is increased by RPM and concentrating the mass at the ……. of the rotor? Options: a) Increasing hub b) Increasing rim c) Decreasing hub Correct Answer: [x) b) Increasing rim

Question 218

Q28 Question: For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a? Options: a) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density. b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density. c) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.

Answer 218

Correct Answer: [x) b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.]

Question 219

Q39 Question: The center of gravity location of the aero plane is normally computed along the: Options: a) vertical axis b) longitudinal axis c) horizontal axis ⸻

Answer 219

Correct Answer: [x) b) longitudinal axis]

Question 220

Q40 Question: While using a VSI a pilot can Options: a) not rely on reading especially when change of pitch altitudes occurring b) only rely when changing to horizontal flight c) rely on its readings in all altitudes of flight ⸻

Answer 220

Correct Answer: [x) a) not rely on reading especially when change of pitch altitudes occurring]

Question 221

Q41 Question: At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? Options: a) 1500 ft above field elevation b) 35 ft above ground c) 400 ft above field elevation ⸻

Answer 221

Correct Answer: [x) c) 400 ft above field elevation]

Question 222

Q42 Question: The Radio wave, covers in 1 microsecond a distance of: Options: a) 300M b) 500M c) 300 ft ⸻

Answer 222

Correct Answer: [x) a) 300M]

Question 223

Q43 Question: For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is: Options: a) the time of take-off b) the time at which the flight plan is filed c) the estimated off-block time

Answer 223

Correct Answer: [x) c) the estimated off-block time]

Question 224

Q49 Question: In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake? Options: a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible ⸻

Answer 224

Correct Answer: [x) a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window]

Question 225

Q50 Question: The altimeter consist of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively? Options: a) (i) Static pressure  (ii) Total pressure b) (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure)  (ii) Static pressure c) (i) Static pressure at time t  (ii) Static pressure at time t-t ⸻

Answer 225

Correct Answer: [x) b) (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure)  (ii) Static pressure]

Question 226

Q51 Question: The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a? Options: a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor b) Bi-metallic strip c) Return spring ⸻

Answer 226

Correct Answer: [x) a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor]

Question 227

Q52 Question: The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to? Options: a) Allow damping of the measurement in the unit b) Reduce the hysteresis effect c) Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages

Answer 227

Correct Answer: [x) c) Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages]

Question 228

Q54 Question: What is density altitude? Options: a) Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature. b) True altitude. c) Pressure altitude corrected for density changes. ⸻

Answer 228

Correct Answer: [x) a) Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.]

Question 229

Q55 Question: A radio altimeter is? Options: a) Aircraft based and indicates true altitude. b) Aircraft based and indicates pressure altitude. c) Aircraft based and indicates true height. ⸻

Answer 229

Correct Answer: [x) c) Aircraft based and indicates true height.]

Question 230

Q56 Question: Radio altimeters are based on the principle of? Options: a) Frequency modulated carrier wave. b) Pulse modulated carrier wave. c) Amplitude modulated carrier wave. ⸻

Answer 230

Correct Answer: [x) a) Frequency modulated carrier wave.]

Question 231

Q57 Question: The correct action to be taken when the static vent blocks on an unpressurised aircraft is to? Options: a) Break the VSI glass. b) Use the standby static source. c) Calculate ROC using mathematically. ⸻

Answer 231

Correct Answer: [x) b) Use the standby static source.]

Question 232

Q58 Question: If the casing of a VSI in a pressurised aircraft develops a leak? Options: a) VSI indications will be too high when climbing and too low when descending. b) VSI indications will be too high when climbing or descending. c) VSI indications will be too low when climbing and too high when descending. ⸻

Answer 232

Correct Answer: [x) a) VSI indications will be too high when climbing and too low when descending.]

Question 233

Q59 Question: What do the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI represent? Options: a) VNE and VNO. b) VNO and VNE. c) VMO and VNE. ⸻

Answer 233

Correct Answer: [x) a) VNE and VNO.]

Question 234

Q60 Question: If the pitot source and drain become blocked by ice when in cruise flight, how will the ASI respond when descending? Options: a) It will under read. b) It will over read. c) It will read zero in all conditions. ⸻

Answer 234

Correct Answer: [x) a) It will under read.]

Question 235

Q61 Question: At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift-off at the same? Options: a) CAS. b) TAS. c) Ground speed. ⸻

Answer 235

Correct Answer: [x) a) CAS.]

Question 236

Q62 Question: The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in? Options: a) True airspeed (TAS). b) Computed airspeed (COAS). c) Calibrated airspeed (CAS). ⸻

Answer 236

Correct Answer: [x) c) Calibrated airspeed (CAS).]

Question 237

Q63 Question: The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are? Options: a) VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit. b) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit. c) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.

Answer 237

Correct Answer: [x) c) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.]

Question 238

Q65 Question: How will mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static source becomes blocked? Options: a) Increase. b) Decrease. c) Remain constant. ⸻

Answer 238

Correct Answer: [x) b) Decrease.]

Question 239

Q66 Question: The indications on a mach meter are independent of? Options: a) Dynamic pressure. b) Ambient temperature. c) Static pressure.

Answer 239

Correct Answer: [x) b) Ambient temperature.]

Question 240

Q68 Question: What could be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn? Options: a) Climb due to pendulous vanes. b) No climb. c) Descent due to pendulous vanes.

Answer 240

Correct Answer: [x) a) Climb due to pendulous vanes.]

Question 241

Q69 Question: What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at constant attitude and bank angle? Options: a) Correct bank angle and attitude. b) Too little bank and too much nose up attitude. c) Too little bank and too little nose up attitude. ⸻

Answer 241

Correct Answer: [x) b) Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.]

Question 242

Q70 Question: Classic artificial horizon indications turning through 180° at constant AOB? Options: a) Nose up and AOB too low. b) Nose up and AOB too high. c) Nose up and correct AOB. ⸻

Answer 242

Correct Answer: [x) c) Nose up and correct AOB.]

Question 243

Q71 Question: An artificial horizon has… Degrees of freedom in the … axis? Options: a) Two, vertical. b) Two, horizontal. c) One, vertical. ⸻

Answer 243

Correct Answer: [x) b) Two, horizontal.]

Question 244

Q72 Question: When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft is? Options: a) Turning right with too much TAS. b) Turning right with insufficient TAS. c) Turning left with too much TAS. ⸻

Answer 244

Correct Answer: [x) b) Turning right with insufficient TAS.]

Question 245

Q73 Question: When the needle is displaced right and the ball displaced left, in a turn and slip indicator, the aircraft is? Options: a) Turning right with insufficient bank. b) Turning left with too much bank. c) Turning left with insufficient TAS. ⸻

Answer 245

Correct Answer: [x) a) Turning right with insufficient bank.]

Question 246

Q74 Question: Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed? Options: a) DME station sited on the flight route. b) An ADF sited on the flight route. c) A VOR station sited on the flight route. ⸻

Answer 246

Correct Answer: [x) a) DME station sited on the flight route.]

Question 247

Q75 Question: When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is: Options: a) Altitude based on regional QNH. b) Aircraft height based on sub-scale setting. c) Flight level based on 1013.25 hPa. ⸻

Answer 247

Correct Answer: [x) c) Flight level based on 1013.25 hPa.]

Question 248

Q76 Question: DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately: Options: a) 1000 MHz b) 1000 GHz c) 1000 KHz ⸻

Answer 248

Correct Answer: [x) a) 1000 MHz]

Question 249

Q77 Question: The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because: Options: a) Transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft. b) Pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft. c) Pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration. ⸻

Answer 249

Correct Answer: [x) b) Pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft.]

Question 250

Q78 Question: The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is: Options: a) Phase comparison b) Envelope matching c) Beat frequency discrimination

Answer 250

Correct Answer: [x) a) Phase comparison]

Question 251

Q81 Question: Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles? Options: a) Global Positioning System (GPS) b) Airborne weather radar (AWR) c) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) ⸻

Answer 251

Correct Answer: [x) b) Airborne weather radar (AWR)]

Question 252

Q82 Question: The wavelength of HF is? Options: a) Centimetric b) Decimetric c) Metric ⸻

Answer 252

Correct Answer: [x) c) Metric]

Question 253

Q83 Question: The least attenuation of a skywave is likely to occur at? Options: a) Midnight and high frequency. b) Midday and high frequency. c) Midnight and low frequency. ⸻

Answer 253

Correct Answer: [x) c) Midnight and low frequency.]

Question 254

Q84 Question: Diffraction of radio waves? Options: a) Increases with increasing frequency. b) Decreases with increasing frequency. c) Is constant at all frequencies.

Answer 254

Correct Answer: [x) b) Decreases with increasing frequency.]

Question 255

Q85 Question: Sky waves at day or night are least likely with? Options: a) VHF b) LF c) HF ⸻

Answer 255

Correct Answer: [x) a) VHF]

Question 256

Q86 Question: The optimum HF frequency puts the receiver? Options: a) Just inside the minimum skip distance b) Just outside the minimum skip distance c) Just within the surface wave coverage area ⸻

Answer 256

Correct Answer: [x) b) Just outside the minimum skip distance]

Question 257

Q87 Question: Surface wave range? Options: a) Decreases with increasing frequency b) Is independent of frequency c) Decreases with decreasing frequency ⸻

Answer 257

Correct Answer: [x) a) Decreases with increasing frequency]

Question 258

Q88 Question: Atmospheric ducting close to the earth, is most likely? Options: a) In an inversion with constant humidity at all altitudes b) In an inversion with humidity decreasing with increasing altitude c) Over land Correct Answer: [x) b) In an inversion with humidity decreasing with increasing altitude] ⸻ Q89 Question: The BFO in an ADF? Options: a) Produces a signal that differs from the received signal by approximately 2 KHz b) Produces a 2 KHz signal c) Minimises static interference Correct Answer: [x) a) Produces a signal that differs from the received signal by approximately 2 KHz] ⸻ Q90 Question: For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must not exceed … in a terminal area and … outside a terminal area? Options: a) 50 feet; 200 feet b) 100 m; 2000 m c) 30m; 600m Correct Answer: [x) c) 30m; 600m] ⸻ Q91 Question: DME is a (i) radar operating in the (ii) band and transmits (iii)? Options: a) (i) secondary; (ii) UHF; (iii) pulse pairs b) (i) secondary; (ii) SHF; (iii) 2400 pulse pairs per second c) (i) primary; (ii) SHF; (iii) CW pulses Correct Answer: [x) a) (i) secondary; (ii) UHF; (iii) pulse pairs] ⸻ Q92 Question: What type of pressure sensor is employed in a barometric altimeter? Options: a) Aneroid capsule b) Differential capsule c) Bellows Correct Answer: [x) a) Aneroid capsule] ⸻ Q93 Question: If the glass of a barometric altimeter in a pressurised aircraft becomes cracked and the static ports become blocked, the altimeter will? Options: a) Over read b) Under read c) Read cabin altitude Correct Answer: [x) c) Read cabin altitude] ⸻ Q94 Question: Mach meter indications? Options: a) Are temperature related b) Increase with temperature c) Are independent of temperature Correct Answer: [x) c) Are independent of temperature] ⸻ Q95 Question: What is actually measured by a mach meter? Options: a) Pilot pressure b) The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure): static pressure c) The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure Correct Answer: [x) b) The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure): static pressure] ⸻ Q96 Question: The International Date Line is found on or near the ———. When crossing the date line traveling west, you go into the ——— day: Options: a) Parallel, next day b) Meridian, previous day c) Meridian, next day Correct Answer: [x) b) Meridian, previous day] ⸻ Q97 Question: An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is? Options: a) An artificial horizon b) A turn indicator c) A directional gyro Correct Answer: [x) c) A directional gyro] ⸻ Q98 Question: What error is caused by movement of the gyro relative to the earth in a DGI? Options: a) Transport wander b) Earth rate c) Real wander Correct Answer: [x) a) Transport wander] ⸻ Q99 Question: Gyroscope rigidity is increased by RPM and concentrating the mass at the ……. of the rotor? Options: a) Increasing hub b) Increasing rim c) Decreasing hub Correct Answer: [x) b) Increasing rim

Question 259

Q88 Question: Atmospheric ducting close to the earth, is most likely? Options: a) In an inversion with constant humidity at all altitudes b) In an inversion with humidity decreasing with increasing altitude c) Over land ⸻

Answer 259

Correct Answer: [x) b) In an inversion with humidity decreasing with increasing altitude]

Question 260

Q89 Question: The BFO in an ADF? Options: a) Produces a signal that differs from the received signal by approximately 2 KHz b) Produces a 2 KHz signal c) Minimises static interference ⸻

Answer 260

Correct Answer: [x) a) Produces a signal that differs from the received signal by approximately 2 KHz]

Question 261

Q90 Question: For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must not exceed … in a terminal area and … outside a terminal area? Options: a) 50 feet; 200 feet b) 100 m; 2000 m c) 30m; 600m ⸻

Answer 261

Correct Answer: [x) c) 30m; 600m]

Question 262

Q91 Question: DME is a (i) radar operating in the (ii) band and transmits (iii)? Options: a) (i) secondary; (ii) UHF; (iii) pulse pairs b) (i) secondary; (ii) SHF; (iii) 2400 pulse pairs per second c) (i) primary; (ii) SHF; (iii) CW pulses ⸻

Answer 262

Correct Answer: [x) a) (i) secondary; (ii) UHF; (iii) pulse pairs]

Question 263

Q92 Question: What type of pressure sensor is employed in a barometric altimeter? Options: a) Aneroid capsule b) Differential capsule c) Bellows ⸻

Answer 263

Correct Answer: [x) a) Aneroid capsule]

Question 264

Q93 Question: If the glass of a barometric altimeter in a pressurised aircraft becomes cracked and the static ports become blocked, the altimeter will? Options: a) Over read b) Under read c) Read cabin altitude ⸻

Answer 264

Correct Answer: [x) c) Read cabin altitude]

Question 265

Q94 Question: Mach meter indications? Options: a) Are temperature related b) Increase with temperature c) Are independent of temperature ⸻

Answer 265

Correct Answer: [x) c) Are independent of temperature]

Question 266

Q95 Question: What is actually measured by a mach meter? Options: a) Pilot pressure b) The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure): static pressure c) The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure ⸻

Answer 266

Correct Answer: [x) b) The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure): static pressure]

Question 267

Q96 Question: The International Date Line is found on or near the ———. When crossing the date line traveling west, you go into the ——— day: Options: a) Parallel, next day b) Meridian, previous day c) Meridian, next day

Answer 267

Correct Answer: [x) b) Meridian, previous day] ⸻

Question 268

Q97 Question: An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is? Options: a) An artificial horizon b) A turn indicator c) A directional gyro ⸻

Answer 268

Correct Answer: [x) c) A directional gyro]

Question 269

Q98 Question: What error is caused by movement of the gyro relative to the earth in a DGI? Options: a) Transport wander b) Earth rate c) Real wander ⸻

Answer 269

Correct Answer: [x) a) Transport wander]

Question 270

Q99 Question: Gyroscope rigidity is increased by RPM and concentrating the mass at the ……. of the rotor? Options: a) Increasing hub b) Increasing rim c) Decreasing hub

Answer 270

Correct Answer: [x) b) Increasing rim

Question 271

Q1 Question: At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)? Options: a) Beginning of July b) End of September c) Beginning of January

Answer 271

Correct Answer: [x) a) Beginning of July]

Question 272

Q3 Question: Direction is measured Options: a) clockwise from North b) anti clockwise from north c) clockwise or anticlockwise from the parallel of latitude

Answer 272

Correct Answer: [x) a) clockwise from North]

Question 273

Q4 Question: The highest value of longitude is found: Options: a) close to the poles b) along equator c) at greenwich anti meridian

Answer 273

Correct Answer: [x) c) at greenwich anti meridian]

Question 274

Q7 Question: Nautical mile is defined as a unit of measurement of distance Options: a) fixed by statute as 5280 ft. b) equal to the average length of one minute of latitude c) equal to 1/1000th part of the meridian between equator and the pole

Answer 274

Correct Answer: [x) b) equal to the average length of one minute of latitude]

Question 275

Q8 Question: An agonic line is a line that connects: Options: a) positions that have the same variation b) points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength c) positions that have 0° variation

Answer 275

Correct Answer: [x) c) positions that have 0° variation]

Question 276

Q12 Question: When landing on runway 36 in Northern hemisphere, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates: Options: a) A westerly turn b) An easterly turn c) No turn

Answer 276

Correct Answer: [x) c) No turn]

Question 277

Q13 Question: Magnetic heading can be calculated from true heading using? Options: a) A compass and a map indicating isogonal lines b) A compass and a calibration card c) A compass and a deviation card

Answer 277

Correct Answer: [x) a) A compass and a map indicating isogonal lines]

Question 278

Q14 Question: Errors in direct reading magnetic compasses can be caused by? Options: a) Turns through 90 degrees East and 270 degrees west b) Acceleration on east/west headings c) Crosswinds when on east/west headings

Answer 278

Correct Answer: [x) b) Acceleration on east/west headings]

Question 279

Q15 Question: In an aircraft taking-off on runway 27 in the northern hemisphere, what will its DRMC indicate? Options: a) Southerly turn b) Northerly turn c) Oscillations about west

Answer 279

Correct Answer: [x) b) Northerly turn]

Question 280

Q16 Question: The roll out must be performed at… when turning from NW to NE in the southern hemisphere? Options: a) 025 degrees b) 045 degrees c) 055 degrees

Answer 280

Correct Answer: [x) c) 055 degrees]

Question 281

Q17 Question: A perfectly straight line on the rta Lamberts chart is? Options: a) A parallel of latitude b) A rhumb line c) A meridian of longitude

Answer 281

Correct Answer: [x) c) A meridian of longitude

Question 282

Q18 Question: How do rhumb lines (other than meridians) appear on polar stereographic charts? Options: a) As straight lines b) As lines concave to the nearer pole c) As lines convex to the nearer pole

Answer 282

Correct Answer: [x) b) As lines concave to the nearer pole]

Question 283

Q23 Question: If pressure remains constant as temperature increases? Options: a) Density will increase, causing the CAS: TAS ratio to increase b) Density will decrease, causing the CAS: TAS ratio to decrease c) Density will decrease, causing the CAS: TAS ratio to increase

Answer 283

Correct Answer: [x) b) Density will decrease, causing the CAS: TAS ratio to decrease]

Question 284

Q24 Question: If an aircraft is climbed with a constant mach meter indication in the ISA, how should the ASI indication respond? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) Decrease then remain constant

Answer 284

Correct Answer: [x) b) Decrease]

Question 285

Q25 Question: How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when flying at constant CAS and altitude? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain constant

Answer 285

Correct Answer: [x) c) Remain constant]

Question 286

Q30 Question: A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aero plane’s structural limits... What is the maximum traffic load that can be carried is: Options: a) 20 420 kg b) 17 810 kg c) 21 170 kg

Answer 286

Correct Answer: [x) b) 17 810 kg]

Question 287

Q31 Question: The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of: Options: a) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aero plane not including the fuel load and operational items b) The maximum mass for some aero planes including the fuel load and the traffic load c) The maximum permissible mass of an aero plane with no usable fuel

Answer 287

Correct Answer: [x) c) The maximum permissible mass of an aero plane with no usable fuel]

Question 288

Q36 Question: Why are “stepped cruise” used on long distance flights? Options: a) To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aero plane mass reduces b) To respect ATC flight level constraints c) Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aero planes; they are used for piston engine aero planes only

Answer 288

Correct Answer: [x) a) To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aero plane mass reduces]

Question 289

Q37 Question: What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude? Options: a) The time to climb decreases b) The time to climb does not change c) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aero plane type

Answer 289

Correct Answer: [x) b) The time to climb does not change

Question 290

Q38 Question: The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aero plane: Options: a) is always equal to the powerplant ceiling b) increases when the aero plane mass decreases c) is independent of the aero plane mass

Answer 290

Correct Answer: [x) b) increases when the aero plane mass decreases]

Question 291

Q39 Question: You have filed a flight plan for an uncontrolled flight and suffer a delay prior to departure. After how long a delay must you restate your OBTT? Options: a) 30 mins b) 40 mins c) 60 mins

Answer 291

Correct Answer: [x) c) 60 mins]

Question 292

Q40 Question: Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day? Options: a) 68° b) 66° c) 62°

Answer 292

Correct Answer: [x) c) 62°

Question 293

Q43 Question: In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aero plane altitude is calculated from? Options: a) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage b) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT) c) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back

Answer 293

Correct Answer: [x) a) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage]

Question 294

Q44 Question: The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding? Options: a) In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps b) In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point c) In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point

Answer 294

Correct Answer: [x) c) In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point]

Question 295

Q45 Question: At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed? Options: a) +/-60 feet b) +/-75 feet c) +/-30 feet

Answer 295

Correct Answer: [x) c) +/-30 feet]

Question 296

Q46 Question: The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is? Options: a) Equal to the standard altitude b) Lower than the real altitude c) Higher than the real altitude

Answer 296

Correct Answer: [x) c) Higher than the real altitude]

Question 297

Q48 Question: What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a warmer air mass? Options: a) Over indicate. b) Under indicate. c) Not change.

Answer 297

Correct Answer: [x) b) Under indicate.]

Question 298

Q49 Question: A radio altimeter can be defined as a? Options: a) Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft. b) Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft. c) Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.

Answer 298

Correct Answer: [x) c) Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.]

Question 299

Q50 Question: In low altitude radio altimeters height measurement (above ground) is based upon? Options: a) A triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured. b) A frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured. c) A pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen.

Answer 299

Correct Answer: [x) b) A frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.]

Question 300

Q51 Question: VSI lag is reduced by? Options: a) Two dashpots responding to acceleration. b) Two return springs. c) Bi-metallic strips.

Answer 300

Correct Answer: [x) a) Two dashpots responding to acceleration.]

Question 301

Q52 Question: If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked? Options: a) The VSI indication will be too high when climbing. b) The VSI indication will be too low when descending. c) The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.

Answer 301

Correct Answer: [x) c) The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.]

Question 302

Q53 Question: If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked? Options: a) The VSI indication will over read when descending. b) The VSI will be unaffected. c) The VSI will over under read at all times.

Answer 302

Correct Answer: [x) b) The VSI will be unaffected.]

Question 303

Q55 Question: What will be the effect if the drain hole and pitot tapping in a probe are blocked, whilst the static source remains open? Options: a) The ASI will respond to changes in pressure altitude only. b) The ASI will not respond c) The ASI will under read at all speeds

Answer 303

Correct Answer: [x) a) The ASI will respond to changes in pressure altitude only.]

Question 304

Q56 Question: With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same? Options: a) Calibrated airspeed. b) Ground speed. c) True airspeed.

Answer 304

Correct Answer: [x) a) Calibrated airspeed.]

Question 305

Question: The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS)? Options: a) A compressibility and density correction. b) An instrument and position/pressure error correction. c) An antenna and compressibility correction.

Answer 305

Correct Answer: [x) b) An instrument and position/pressure error correction.]

Question 306

Q58 Question: VNO is the maximum speed? Options: a) Which must never be exceeded. b) Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution. c) At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

Answer 306

Correct Answer: [x) b) Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.]

Question 307

Q59 Question: For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a? Options: a) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density. b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density. c) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.

Answer 307

Correct Answer: [x) b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.

Question 308

Q60 Question: When a climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will? Options: a) Decrease. b) Increase at a linear rate. c) Remain constant.

Answer 308

Correct Answer: [x) a) Decrease.]

Question 309

Q61 Question: How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at FL270 when it experiences a reduction in OAT? Options: a) No change. b) Increase. c) Decrease.

Answer 309

Correct Answer: [x) a) No change.]

Question 310

Q62 Question: How will the mach meter respond in a constant CAS climb if the static source becomes blocked? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain constant

Answer 310

Correct Answer: [x) b) Decrease]

Question 311

Q63 Question: How will the mach meter respond in a constant TAS climb if the static source becomes blocked? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain constant

Answer 311

Correct Answer: [x) b) Decrease]

Question 312

Q64 Question: The basis properties of a gyroscope are? Options: 1. The gyro’s weight. 2. The rigidity in space. 3. The inertia 4. The high RPM. 5. The precession The combination of correct statements is? a) 3, 4. b) 2, 5. c) 2, 3, 5.

Answer 312

Correct Answer: [x) b) 2, 5.]

Question 313

Q65 Question: At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the? Options: a) Angular velocity of the aircraft. b) Yaw rate of the aircraft. c) Pitch rate of the aircraft.

Answer 313

Correct Answer: [x) b) Yaw rate of the aircraft.]

Question 314

Q66 Question: An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is? Options: a) An artificial horizon. b) A turn indicator. c) A directional gyro.

Answer 314

Correct Answer: [x) c) A directional gyro.]

Question 315

Q67 Question: When, in flight, the needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is? Options: a) Turning left with not enough bank b) Turning right with not enough bank c) Turning right with too much bank

Answer 315

Correct Answer: [x) a) Turning left with not enough bank]

Question 316

Q68 Question: How many degrees of freedom and what is the spin axis of an attitude indicator? Options: a) Local earth vertical two degrees of freedom. b) Aircraft lateral axis two degrees of freedom. c) Aircraft horizontal axis one degree of freedom.

Answer 316

Correct Answer: [x) a) Local earth vertical two degrees of freedom.]

Question 317

Q69 Question: A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by? Options: a) Soft iron. b) Hard iron. c) Soft iron effect hard iron, and hard iron.

Answer 317

Correct Answer: [x) c) Soft iron effect hard iron, and hard iron.]

Question 318

Q70 Question: A turn indicator has? 1. A horizontal spin axis. 2. A vertical spin axis. 3. One degree of freedom. 4. Two degrees of freedom. 5. A spin axis tied to the yawing plane of the aircraft. 6. A gravity erecting unit. Options: a) 1, 3. b) 1, 5. c) 3, 5.

Answer 318

Correct Answer: [x) c) 3, 5.]

Question 319

Q71 Question: When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft is? Options: a) Turning right with insufficient bank. b) Turning right with too much bank. c) Turning left with too much bank.

Answer 319

Correct Answer: [x) b) Turning right with too much bank.]

Question 320

Q72 Question: In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines: Options: a) minimum range b) beam width c) maximum theoretical range

Answer 320

Correct Answer: [x) c) maximum theoretical range]

Question 321

Q73 Question: Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings? Options: a) Coastal effect b) Quadrantal error c) Local thunderstorm activity

Answer 321

Correct Answer: [x) c) Local thunderstorm activity]

Question 322

Q74 Question: What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes? Options: a) 760 b) 4096 c) 3600

Answer 322

Correct Answer: [x) b) 4096]

Question 323

Q75 Question: An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the center line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide) Options: a) 6.0 b) 1.5 c) 3.0

Answer 323

Correct Answer: [x) b) 1.5]

Question 324

Q76 Question: The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of: Options: a) dots and a white light flashing b) dashes and an amber light flashing c) alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing

Answer 324

Correct Answer: [x) c) alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing]

Question 325

Q77 Question: An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station? Options: a) SE b) NE c) NW

Answer 325

Correct Answer: [x) c) NW]

Question 326

Q78 Question: ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed: Options: a) +/- 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater b) +/- 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured c) +/- 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured

Answer 326

Correct Answer: [x) c) +/- 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured]

Question 327

Q79 Question: What is the metric distance of an NDB wavelength? Options: a) Metric b) Centimetric and metric c) Metric and Kilometric

Answer 327

Correct Answer: [x) c) Metric and Kilometric]

Question 328

Q80 Question: Which radio frequency employs the refraction properties of the ionosphere? Options: a) EHF b) HF c) VHF

Answer 328

Correct Answer: [x) b) HF]

Question 329

Q81 Question: VOR wavelength is? Options: a) 2.46 Cm. b) 24.6 Cm. c) 2.46m.

Answer 329

Correct Answer: [x) c) 2.46m.]

Question 330

Q82 Question: Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate flying: Options: a) towards the station at short range. b) past the station at short range. c) from the station at long range.

Answer 330

Correct Answer: [x) c) from the station at long range.]

Question 331

Q83 Question: Real wander of the gyroscope can be caused by Options: a) earth's rotation beneath the gyroscope. b) asymmetric friction at the spin axis. c) instrument being a tied as opposed to space gyro.

Answer 331

Correct Answer: [x) b) asymmetric friction at the spin axis.]

Question 332

Q84 Question: What is the wavelength and waveband of a radio aid that uses a frequency of 19 Cm. Options: a) 1.579 GHz. — UHF. b) 15.79 Khz. — VLF. c) 1.579 MHz — VHF.

Answer 332

Correct Answer: [x) a) 1.579 GHz. — UHF.]

Question 333

Q85 Question: In an ASI the static pressure enters: Options: a) Both the capsule & the case b) the case only. c) the capsule only.

Answer 333

Correct Answer: [x) a) Both the capsule & the case]

Question 334

Q86 Question: The wavelength of a 121.95 MHz signal is? Options: a) 24.6 Cm. b) 2.46 m. c) 24.6 m.

Answer 334

Correct Answer: [x) b) 2.46 m.]

Question 335

Q87 Question: What is skip distance? Options: a) The distance between a receiver and the first and second fundamentals. b) The distance between the transmitter and the first returning sky wave. c) The distance between the receiver and the first returning fundamental.

Answer 335

Correct Answer: [x) b) The distance between the transmitter and the first returning sky wave.]

Question 336

Q88 Question: The skip distance is increased by ——— the wavelength and ——— the frequency? Options: a) Decreasing, Decreasing. b) Decreasing, Increasing. c) Increasing, Increasing.

Answer 336

Correct Answer: [x) b) Decreasing, Increasing.]

Question 337

Q89 Question: If an aircraft has two altimeters, only one of which is corrected for position error? Options: a) ATC transponder replies will be inaccurate. b) At high altitude and high speed the non-corrected altimeter will over indicate. c) At high altitude and high speed the non-corrected altimeter will under indicate.

Answer 337

Correct Answer: [x) c) At high altitude and high speed the non-corrected altimeter will under indicate.]

Question 338

Q90 Question: Barometric altimeter readings can become erratic during landing because? Options: a) Static ports can become blocked by debris. b) Static pressure is changed by ground effect. c) The air is warmer close to the ground so dynamic pressure changes.

Answer 338

Correct Answer: [x) b) Static pressure is changed by ground effect.]

Question 339

Q91 Question: If the static source becomes blocked the mach meter will ..........as an aircraft climbs? Options: a) Over indicate. b) Under indicate. c) Not indicate.

Answer 339

Correct Answer: [x) b) Under indicate.]

Question 340

Q92 Question: If temperature decreases when flying at constant CAS at FL 200, the mach meter indication will.......... and the true mach number will..........? Options: a) Increase, increase. b) Decrease, decrease. c) Not change, increase.

Answer 340

Correct Answer: [x) c) Not change, increase.]

Question 341

Q93 Question: The correct indications when taxiing in a turn to the left are? Options: a) Needle right, ball right. b) Needle right, ball central. c) Needle left, ball right.

Answer 341

Correct Answer: [x) c) Needle left, ball right.]

Question 342

Q94 Question: A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from? Options: a) A direct reading magnetic compass. b) The flight director. c) The flux valve.

Answer 342

Correct Answer: [x) c) The flux valve.]

Question 343

Q95 Question: The gyro in a vertical reference data generator has? Options: 1) One degree of freedom. 2) Two degrees of freedom. 3) Vertical axis, 4) Horizontal axis. a) 1,3 b) 1,4 c) 2,3

Answer 343

Correct Answer: c) 2,3

Question 344

Q96 Question: DG errors are caused by? Options: 1) Mechanical imperfections, 2)Earth rate,3) Transport wander. 4) Banking when pitching, 5)Annual migration of the poles. a) All of the above. b) 1,2,3,4 c) 2,3,4,5

Answer 344

Correct Answer: [x) b) 1,2,3,4

Question 345

Q97 Question: An aero plane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible? Options: a) No, only ATC can order you to do this b) No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan c) Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase "Canceling my IFR flight"

Answer 345

Correct Answer: [x) c) Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase "Canceling my IFR flight"]

Question 346

Q99 Question: When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS? Options: a) TAS increases. b) TAS remains constant. c) Mach number decreases.

Answer 346

Correct Answer: [x) a) TAS increases.]

Question 347

Q1 Question: Gyro rigidity increases with? Options: a) Increasing RPM, and concentrating mass close to the center. b) Increasing RPM and concentrating mass at the periphery. c) Decreasing RPM and radius.

Answer 347

Correct Answer: [x) b) Increasing RPM and concentrating mass at the periphery.]

Question 348

Q2 Question: At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)? Options: a) 21 March. b) 21 September. c) Beginning of January. Correct Answer: [x) c) Beginning of January.] Q3 Question: Convergence is: Options: a) the angle of inclination of meridians towards each other. b) the angle at which a meridian cuts the equator. c) the angle of inclination of one parallel of latitude with another. Correct Answer: [x) a) the angle of inclination of meridians towards each other.] Q4 Question: The initial great circle track from A (S 27° 30' E 017° 45') to B (S 27° 30' E 029° 15') is: Options: a) 092.65° b) 088.34° c) 091.61° Correct Answer: [x) a) 092.65°] Q5 Question: Consider the following statements on sunrise and sunset. Options: a) in May sunrise occurs later at 4500N than at 4500S. b) in November sunset occurs earlier at 4500S than at 4500N. c) at equator sunrise and sunset occur at quite regular times throughout the year. Correct Answer: [x) c) at equator sunrise and sunset occur at quite regular times throughout the year.] Q6 Question: When approaching the international date line from the east, you: Options: a) should increase your date by an extra date at the first midnight you experience. b) should be prepared to decrease your date by 1. c) should be prepared to increase your date by 1. Correct Answer: [x) b) should be prepared to decrease your date by 1.] Q7 Question: When Magnetic direction is 270° and true direction is 265°, the variation is Options: a) 5° West b) 5° East c) 5° West in N.Hemisphere Correct Answer: [x) a) 5° West] Q8 Question: Zero variation occurs only at Options: a) Equator b) Poles c) could occur anywhere Correct Answer: [x) c) could occur anywhere] Q9 Question: The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400MHz is the: Options: a) weather radar b) primary radar c) radio altimeter Correct Answer: [x) c) radio altimeter Q10 Question: The thumb-line distance between points A (60°00’N002°30’E) and B (60°00’N007°30’W) is: Options: a) 600nm b) 450nm c) 300nm Correct Answer: [x) c) 300nm Q11 Question: An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distance from position 04°00’N 030°00’W: 700 NM South, then 700 NM East. Then 700 NM North, then 700 NM West. The final position of the aircraft is: Options: a) 04°00’N 030°30’W b) 03°58’N 030°02’W c) 04°00’N 029°55’W Correct Answer: [x) c) 04°00’N 029°55’W] Q12 Question: An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 350 km. On completion of the flight the longitude will be: Options: a) 002°10’W b) 000°15’E c) 001°19’E Correct Answer: [x) c) 001°19’E] Q13 Question: The circumference of the Earth is approximately: Options: a) 5,600 Km. b) 13,200 Km. c) 40,000 Km. Correct Answer: [x) c) 40,000 Km.] Q14 Question: An aircraft is over position PONTA (55°30’N 060°15’W), where PBN VOR (53°30’N 060°15’W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 31°W at PONTA and 28°W at PBN. What is the radial from PBN? Options: a) 031° b) 332° c) 028° Correct Answer: [x) c) 028°] Q15 Question: Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1960 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 380 kt, Groundspeed ‘back’ 470 kt, Safe endurance 7 HR. The distance from ‘Q’ to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between ‘Q’ and ‘R’ is? Options: a) 1471 NM. b) 1442 NM. c) 1538 NM. Correct Answer: [x) a) 1471 NM.] Q16 Question: What is the strength of the H component of the earth’s magnetic field (in micro teslas) at the magnetic North pole? Options: a) 0. b) 16. c) 11. Correct Answer: [x) a) 0.] Q17 Question: A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by? Options: 1. Adjacent electrical equipment 2. Ferrous metals 3. Non-ferrous metals a) 1, 2] B) 1, 3] C) 1, 4] Correct Answer: [x) a) 1, 2] Q18 Question: If the ADF pointer indicates 270 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 075 degrees, what is the relative bearing of the beacon? Options: a) 290 degrees b) 110 degrees c) 195 degrees Correct Answer: [x) c) 195 degrees] Q19 Question: When an aircraft lands on a southerly heading in the southern hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate: Options: a) 180 degree turn to the west. b) 180 degree turn to the east. c) No apparent turn. Correct Answer: [x) c) No apparent turn. Q20 Question: Which one of the following, concerning great circle on a direct Mercator chart, is correct? Options: a) With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator. b) Their center cannot be that of the Earth. c) They are represented by straight lines. Correct Answer: [x) a) With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator.] Q21 Question: Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circle, with the exception of meridians, on a polar stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole? Options: a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. b) The lower the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. c) They are represented by straight lines. Correct Answer: [x) a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line.] Q22 Question: Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1970 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 436 kt, Groundspeed ‘back’ 485 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR. The distance from ‘Q’ to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between ‘Q’ and ‘R’ is? Options: a) 1964 MIN. b) 2079 MIN. c) 2066 MIN. Correct Answer: [x) c) 2066 MIN.] Q23 Question: True course from A to B = 090°, TAS 460 kts, W/V = 360/100 kt, Average variation = 10°E, Deviation = -2°. Calculate the compass heading and GS? Options: a) 069° - 448 kt. b) 067° - 446 kt. c) 069° - 458 kt. Correct Answer: [x) a) 069° - 448 kt.] Q24 Question: What is the true altitude of an aircraft if its altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the ambient temperature was -30°C? Options: a) 15200 ft b) 16200 ft c) 16400 ft Correct Answer: [x) a) 15200 ft] Q25 Question: If pressure altitude is 30000 ft, indicated TAT is -10, mach number is 0.82, what is the density altitude? Options: a) 31000 ft b) 30382 ft c) 30674 ft Correct Answer: [x) b) 30382 ft] Q26 Question: When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS? Options: a) TAS increases. b) TAS decreases. c) TAS remains constant. Correct Answer: [x) b) TAS decreases. Q27 Question: How will mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) remain constant Correct Answer: [x) a) Increase] Q28 Question: Mach meter indications? Options: a) Vary with airspeed and temperature. b) Vary only with airspeed. c) Vary with density and altitude. Correct Answer: [x) b) Vary only with airspeed. Q33 Question: When the center of gravity is at the forward limit, an aero plane will be: Options: a) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch. b) extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch. c) extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch. Correct Answer: [x) a) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch. Q34 Question: By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get: Options: a) landing mass b) dry operating mass c) take-off mass Correct Answer: [x) b) dry operating mass] Q38 Question: Loads must be adequately secured in order to: Options: a) prevent excessive “g”-loading during the landing flare b) avoid unplanned center of gravity (CG) movement and aircraft damage c) allow steep turns Correct Answer: [x) b) avoid unplanned center of gravity (CG) movement and aircraft damage Q39 Question: Who is responsible for specifying the principle method of loading? Options: a) the operator b) the loading supervisor c) the CAA Correct Answer: [x) a) the operator] Q40 Question: A reduction in airspeed of aircraft will cause an air driven artificial horizon to indicate: Options: a) a climbing turn to the right b) a pitch lip c) a descending turn to the left Correct Answer: [x) c) a descending turn to the left] Q41 Question: While carrying out a turn at magnetic equator with DRC, there will be: Options: a) no turning error b) a tendency to over read the turn through North & under read the turn through South c) a tendency to under read all turns due to liquid swirl Correct Answer: [x) c) a tendency to under read all turns due to liquid swirl] Q42 Question: During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-RAC, are: Options: a) TAS 10kt and time 2 minutes b) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes c) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes Correct Answer: [x) b) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes] Q44 Question: Which white EFIS symbol below represents the aircraft? Options: a) △ b) ▯ c) ○ Correct Answer: [x) a) △] Q45 Question: What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS? Options: a) Mach number decreases; TAS decreases b) Mach number increases; TAS remains constant c) Mach number increases; TAS increases Correct Answer: [x) c) Mach number increases; TAS increases] Q46 Question: In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter? Options: a) Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information during symmetric flight. b) Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations. c) Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight. Correct Answer: [x) c) Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.] Q47 Question: If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal? Options: a) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude. b) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude. c) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR. Correct Answer: [x) a) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.] Q48 Question: After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed? Options: a) Increases steadily. b) Decreases abruptly towards zero. c) Decreases steadily. Correct Answer: [x) c) Decreases steadily.] Q49 Question: What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb? Options: a) Decreases b) Increases c) Increases then remains constant Correct Answer: [x) b) Increases] Q50 Question: The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the? Options: a) Time passed at a given altitude. b) Mach number of the aircraft c) Aircraft altitude. Correct Answer: [x) a) Time passed at a given altitude.] Q51 Question: When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will? Options: a) Over read b) Be just as correct as before. c) Show the actual height above ground. Correct Answer: [x) a) Over read] Q52 Question: What is QNH? Options: a) Ambient pressure at msl. b) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of zero on the runway. c) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the pressure altitude of the runway. Correct Answer: [x) a) Ambient pressure at msl.] Q53 Question: During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. this is an indication of the true. Options: a) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. b) Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. c) Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. Correct Answer: [x) a) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.] Q54 Question: Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band? Options: a) HF (High Frequency). b) UHF (Ultra High Frequency). c) SHF (Super High Frequency). Correct Answer: [x) c) SHF (Super High Frequency). Q55 Question: The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on? Options: a) Pulse modulation of the carrier wave. b) A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation. c) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave. Correct Answer: [x) c) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.] Q56 Question: If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked? Options: a) The VSI indication will be too low when climbing. b) The VSI indication will be too low when descending. c) The VSI will not be affected. Correct Answer: [x) c) The VSI will not be affected. Q57 Question: If the static pipe becomes partly blocked? Options: a) The VSI indication will be too high with descending. b) The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating at constant descending. c) The VSI indication will be too low when descending. Correct Answer: [x) c) The VSI indication will be too low when descending.] Q58 Question: What does an AS indicate? Options: a) MMO. b) VNE. c) Temperature and VMO. Correct Answer: [x) b) VNE.] Q59 Question: What speed is VNO? Options: a) That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air. b) That which may never be exceeded c) That which may be exceeded only in emergencies Correct Answer: [x) a) That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.] Q60 Question: What will be the effect on the ASI if the pitot tube of an unpressurised aircraft is fractured and the pitot drain is blocked. Options: a) It will over read. b) It will under read. c) It will give a constant reading. Correct Answer: [x) b) It will under read.] Q61 Question: Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited? Options: a) By the MMO. b) By the VMO in still air. c) Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level. Correct Answer: [x) c) Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.] Q62 Question: In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is? Options: a) Lower than the true airspeed (TAS). b) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS). c) Independent of the true airspeed (TAS). Correct Answer: [x) b) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).] Q63 Question: VLO is the maximum? Options: a) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. b) Flight speed with landing gear down. c) Speed with flaps extended in a given position. Correct Answer: [x) a) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.] Q64 Question: Mach meter indications? Options: a) Vary with airspeed and temperature b) Vary only with airspeed. c) Vary only with temperature. Correct Answer: [x) b) Vary only with airspeed. Q65 Question: How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when flying at constant CAS and altitude? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain constant Correct Answer: [x) c) Remain constant] Q66 Question: The building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass? Options: a) Close to the axis and with a low rotation speed. b) On the periphery and with a high rotation speed. c) Close to the axis and with a high rotation speed. Correct Answer: [x) b) On the periphery and with a high rotation speed.] Q67 Question: A Standby horizon or emergency attitude indicator? Options: a) Only works if there is a complete electrical failure. b) Contains its own separate gyro. c) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails. Correct Answer: [x) b) Contains its own separate gyro.] Q68 Question: A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with? Options: a) 1 degree of freedom. b) 3 degree of freedom. c) 2 degree of freedom. Correct Answer: [x) a) 1 degree of freedom.] Q69 Question: The indication on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to: 1. Rotation of Earth. 2. Aero plane motion on Earth. 3. Lateral and transversal aero plane bank angles. 4. North change. 5. Mechanical defects. Choose the combination with true statements only? Options: a) 2, 3, 5. b) 1, 2, 3, 5. c) 3, 4, 5. Correct Answer: [x) b) 1, 2, 3, 5.] Q70 Question: When turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate? Options: a) Too much nose up and too little bank angle. b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle. c) Too little nose up and too little bank angle. Correct Answer: [x) b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle.] Q71 Question: An artificial horizon has? Options: a) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis b) Two degrees of freedom and a longitudinal spin axis. c) Two degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis. Correct Answer: [x) a) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis] Q73 Question: ROT indications are? Options: a) Proportional to TAS. b) Proportional to CAS. c) Proportional to mass. Correct Answer: [x) a) Proportional to TAS.] Q74 Question: For a rate one turn at 150 Kts the AOB must be? Options: a) 22° b) 33° c) 44° Correct Answer: [x) a) 22° Q75 Question: Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to arrest the yaw, whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the ailerons. What will the turn and slip indicator show in this condition? Options: a) Both needle and ball central. b) Both needle and ball right. c) Both needle and ball left. Correct Answer: [x) a) Both needle and ball central.] Q76 Question: In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by: Options: a) the aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in known positions b) measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft’s receiver c) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites’ transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver Correct Answer: [x) c) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites’ transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver] Q78 Question: A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to: Options: a) standby mode b) signal controlled search c) memory mode Correct Answer: [x) c) memory mode] Q79 Question: In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400? Options: a) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM b) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more c) When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it Correct Answer: [x) b) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more] Q80 Question: Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency? Options: a) 109.15 MHz b) 108.25 MHz c) 110.20 MHz Correct Answer: [x) a) 109.15 MHz] Q81 Question: A Primary radar operates on the principle of: Options: a) phase comparison b) continuous wave transmission c) pulse technique Correct Answer: [x) c) pulse technique] Q82 Question: Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include: Options: a) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system b) static interference - station interference - latitude error c) height error - station interference - mountain effect Correct Answer: [x) a) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system Q83 Question: The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME system: Options: a) Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter b) Is to avoid the reception in the aircraft of signals referring to other aircraft c) Is to prevent overload of the system. Correct Answer: [x) a) Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter] Q84 Question: What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same Morse code identifier? Options: a) 600 m b) 2000 m c) 300 m Correct Answer: [x) a) 600 m] Q85 Question: The minimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is: Options: a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 Correct Answer: [x) c) 5] Q86 Question: What is the first returning sky wave called? Options: a) The critical ray. b) The sky ray. c) The space wave. Correct Answer: [x) a) The critical ray.] Q87 Question: The CP is exactly halfway when: Options: a) 0-H. b) in nil wind conditions. c) in beam wind conditions. Correct Answer: [x) b) in nil wind conditions.] Q88 Question: When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly? Options: a) a constant heading. b) a rhumb line track. c) a great circle track. Correct Answer: [x) c) a great circle track.] Q89 Question: A VOT is: Options: a) A test VOR. b) A tracking VOR. c) A terminal VOR. Correct Answer: [x) a) A test VOR.] Q92 Question: In a banked turn a barometric altimeter using a single static source? Options: a) Will over indicate. b) Will under indicate. c) Might over or under indicate, depending on the position of the static source. Correct Answer: [x) c) Might over or under indicate, depending on the position of the static source.] Q93 Question: Conversion angle is: Options: a) Difference between G/C being measured at either meridian b) Difference between G/C and R/L Bearings c) Difference between Grid north and True North. Correct Answer: [x) b) Difference between G/C and R/L Bearings Q94 Question: A mach meter is made up of? Options: a) An altimeter with a density capsule. b) An ASI with an altitude capsule. c) A VSI with a modified scale. Correct Answer: [x) b) An ASI with an altitude capsule.] Q95 Question: VMO is calculated based on? Options: a) TAS. b) EAS. c) CAS. Correct Answer: [x) b) EAS. Q96 Question: In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake? Options: a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window. b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin. c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible. Correct Answer: [x) a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window.] Q97 Question: The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a? Options: a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor. b) Bi-metallic strip. c) Return spring. Correct Answer: [x) a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.] Q98 Question: Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at? Options: a) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis. b) 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis. c) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis. Correct Answer: [x) c) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis.] Q99 Question: In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon: Options: a) frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured b) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen c) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured Correct Answer: [x) a) frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured]

Question 349

Q2 Question: At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)? Options: a) 21 March. b) 21 September. c) Beginning of January.

Answer 349

Correct Answer: [x) c) Beginning of January.]

Question 350

Q3 Question: Convergence is: Options: a) the angle of inclination of meridians towards each other. b) the angle at which a meridian cuts the equator. c) the angle of inclination of one parallel of latitude with another.

Answer 350

Correct Answer: [x) a) the angle of inclination of meridians towards each other.]

Question 351

Q5 Question: Consider the following statements on sunrise and sunset. Options: a) in May sunrise occurs later at 4500N than at 4500S. b) in November sunset occurs earlier at 4500S than at 4500N. c) at equator sunrise and sunset occur at quite regular times throughout the year.

Answer 351

Correct Answer: [x) c) at equator sunrise and sunset occur at quite regular times throughout the year.]

Question 352

Q6 Question: When approaching the international date line from the east, you: Options: a) should increase your date by an extra date at the first midnight you experience. b) should be prepared to decrease your date by 1. c) should be prepared to increase your date by 1.

Answer 352

Correct Answer: [x) b) should be prepared to decrease your date by 1.]

Question 353

Q7 Question: When Magnetic direction is 270° and true direction is 265°, the variation is Options: a) 5° West b) 5° East c) 5° West in N.Hemisphere

Answer 353

Correct Answer: [x) a) 5° West]

Question 354

Q8 Question: Zero variation occurs only at Options: a) Equator b) Poles c) could occur anywhere

Answer 354

Correct Answer: [x) c) could occur anywhere]

Question 355

Q9 Question: The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400MHz is the: Options: a) weather radar b) primary radar c) radio altimeter

Answer 355

Correct Answer: [x) c) radio altimeter

Question 356

Q13 Question: The circumference of the Earth is approximately: Options: a) 5,600 Km. b) 13,200 Km. c) 40,000 Km.

Answer 356

Correct Answer: [x) c) 40,000 Km.]

Question 357

Q16 Question: What is the strength of the H component of the earth’s magnetic field (in micro teslas) at the magnetic North pole? Options: a) 0. b) 16. c) 11.

Answer 357

Correct Answer: [x) a) 0.]

Question 358

Q17 Question: A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by? Options: 1. Adjacent electrical equipment 2. Ferrous metals 3. Non-ferrous metals a) 1, 2] B) 1, 3] C) 1, 4]

Answer 358

Correct Answer: [x) a) 1, 2]

Question 359

Q19 Question: When an aircraft lands on a southerly heading in the southern hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate: Options: a) 180 degree turn to the west. b) 180 degree turn to the east. c) No apparent turn.

Answer 359

Correct Answer: [x) c) No apparent turn.

Question 360

Q20 Question: Which one of the following, concerning great circle on a direct Mercator chart, is correct? Options: a) With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator. b) Their center cannot be that of the Earth. c) They are represented by straight lines.

Answer 360

Correct Answer: [x) a) With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator.]

Question 361

Q21 Question: Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circle, with the exception of meridians, on a polar stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole? Options: a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. b) The lower the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line. c) They are represented by straight lines.

Answer 361

Correct Answer: [x) a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line.]

Question 362

Q26 Question: When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS? Options: a) TAS increases. b) TAS decreases. c) TAS remains constant.

Answer 362

Correct Answer: [x) b) TAS decreases.

Question 363

Q27 Question: How will mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) remain constant

Answer 363

Correct Answer: [x) a) Increase]

Question 364

Q28 Question: Mach meter indications? Options: a) Vary with airspeed and temperature. b) Vary only with airspeed. c) Vary with density and altitude.

Answer 364

Correct Answer: [x) b) Vary only with airspeed.

Question 365

Q33 Question: When the center of gravity is at the forward limit, an aero plane will be: Options: a) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch. b) extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch. c) extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.

Answer 365

Correct Answer: [x) a) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.

Question 366

Q34 Question: By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get: Options: a) landing mass b) dry operating mass c) take-off mass

Answer 366

Correct Answer: [x) b) dry operating mass]

Question 367

Q38 Question: Loads must be adequately secured in order to: Options: a) prevent excessive “g”-loading during the landing flare b) avoid unplanned center of gravity (CG) movement and aircraft damage c) allow steep turns

Answer 367

Correct Answer: [x) b) avoid unplanned center of gravity (CG) movement and aircraft damage

Question 368

Q39 Question: Who is responsible for specifying the principle method of loading? Options: a) the operator b) the loading supervisor c) the CAA Correct Answer: [x) a) the operator] Q40 Question: A reduction in airspeed of aircraft will cause an air driven artificial horizon to indicate: Options: a) a climbing turn to the right b) a pitch lip c) a descending turn to the left Correct Answer: [x) c) a descending turn to the left] Q41 Question: While carrying out a turn at magnetic equator with DRC, there will be: Options: a) no turning error b) a tendency to over read the turn through North & under read the turn through South c) a tendency to under read all turns due to liquid swirl Correct Answer: [x) c) a tendency to under read all turns due to liquid swirl] Q42 Question: During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-RAC, are: Options: a) TAS 10kt and time 2 minutes b) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes c) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes Correct Answer: [x) b) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes] Q44 Question: Which white EFIS symbol below represents the aircraft? Options: a) △ b) ▯ c) ○ Correct Answer: [x) a) △] Q45 Question: What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS? Options: a) Mach number decreases; TAS decreases b) Mach number increases; TAS remains constant c) Mach number increases; TAS increases Correct Answer: [x) c) Mach number increases; TAS increases] Q46 Question: In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter? Options: a) Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information during symmetric flight. b) Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations. c) Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight. Correct Answer: [x) c) Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.] Q47 Question: If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal? Options: a) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude. b) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude. c) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR. Correct Answer: [x) a) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.] Q48 Question: After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed? Options: a) Increases steadily. b) Decreases abruptly towards zero. c) Decreases steadily. Correct Answer: [x) c) Decreases steadily.] Q49 Question: What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb? Options: a) Decreases b) Increases c) Increases then remains constant Correct Answer: [x) b) Increases] Q50 Question: The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the? Options: a) Time passed at a given altitude. b) Mach number of the aircraft c) Aircraft altitude. Correct Answer: [x) a) Time passed at a given altitude.] Q51 Question: When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will? Options: a) Over read b) Be just as correct as before. c) Show the actual height above ground. Correct Answer: [x) a) Over read] Q52 Question: What is QNH? Options: a) Ambient pressure at msl. b) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of zero on the runway. c) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the pressure altitude of the runway. Correct Answer: [x) a) Ambient pressure at msl.] Q53 Question: During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. this is an indication of the true. Options: a) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. b) Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. c) Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. Correct Answer: [x) a) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.] Q54 Question: Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band? Options: a) HF (High Frequency). b) UHF (Ultra High Frequency). c) SHF (Super High Frequency). Correct Answer: [x) c) SHF (Super High Frequency). Q55 Question: The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on? Options: a) Pulse modulation of the carrier wave. b) A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation. c) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave. Correct Answer: [x) c) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.] Q56 Question: If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked? Options: a) The VSI indication will be too low when climbing. b) The VSI indication will be too low when descending. c) The VSI will not be affected. Correct Answer: [x) c) The VSI will not be affected. Q57 Question: If the static pipe becomes partly blocked? Options: a) The VSI indication will be too high with descending. b) The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating at constant descending. c) The VSI indication will be too low when descending. Correct Answer: [x) c) The VSI indication will be too low when descending.] Q58 Question: What does an AS indicate? Options: a) MMO. b) VNE. c) Temperature and VMO. Correct Answer: [x) b) VNE.] Q59 Question: What speed is VNO? Options: a) That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air. b) That which may never be exceeded c) That which may be exceeded only in emergencies Correct Answer: [x) a) That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.] Q60 Question: What will be the effect on the ASI if the pitot tube of an unpressurised aircraft is fractured and the pitot drain is blocked. Options: a) It will over read. b) It will under read. c) It will give a constant reading. Correct Answer: [x) b) It will under read.] Q61 Question: Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited? Options: a) By the MMO. b) By the VMO in still air. c) Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level. Correct Answer: [x) c) Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.] Q62 Question: In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is? Options: a) Lower than the true airspeed (TAS). b) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS). c) Independent of the true airspeed (TAS). Correct Answer: [x) b) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).] Q63 Question: VLO is the maximum? Options: a) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. b) Flight speed with landing gear down. c) Speed with flaps extended in a given position. Correct Answer: [x) a) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.] Q64 Question: Mach meter indications? Options: a) Vary with airspeed and temperature b) Vary only with airspeed. c) Vary only with temperature. Correct Answer: [x) b) Vary only with airspeed. Q65 Question: How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when flying at constant CAS and altitude? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain constant Correct Answer: [x) c) Remain constant] Q66 Question: The building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass? Options: a) Close to the axis and with a low rotation speed. b) On the periphery and with a high rotation speed. c) Close to the axis and with a high rotation speed. Correct Answer: [x) b) On the periphery and with a high rotation speed.] Q67 Question: A Standby horizon or emergency attitude indicator? Options: a) Only works if there is a complete electrical failure. b) Contains its own separate gyro. c) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails. Correct Answer: [x) b) Contains its own separate gyro.] Q68 Question: A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with? Options: a) 1 degree of freedom. b) 3 degree of freedom. c) 2 degree of freedom. Correct Answer: [x) a) 1 degree of freedom.] Q69 Question: The indication on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to: 1. Rotation of Earth. 2. Aero plane motion on Earth. 3. Lateral and transversal aero plane bank angles. 4. North change. 5. Mechanical defects. Choose the combination with true statements only? Options: a) 2, 3, 5. b) 1, 2, 3, 5. c) 3, 4, 5. Correct Answer: [x) b) 1, 2, 3, 5.] Q70 Question: When turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate? Options: a) Too much nose up and too little bank angle. b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle. c) Too little nose up and too little bank angle. Correct Answer: [x) b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle.] Q71 Question: An artificial horizon has? Options: a) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis b) Two degrees of freedom and a longitudinal spin axis. c) Two degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis. Correct Answer: [x) a) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis] Q73 Question: ROT indications are? Options: a) Proportional to TAS. b) Proportional to CAS. c) Proportional to mass. Correct Answer: [x) a) Proportional to TAS.] Q74 Question: For a rate one turn at 150 Kts the AOB must be? Options: a) 22° b) 33° c) 44° Correct Answer: [x) a) 22° Q75 Question: Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to arrest the yaw, whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the ailerons. What will the turn and slip indicator show in this condition? Options: a) Both needle and ball central. b) Both needle and ball right. c) Both needle and ball left. Correct Answer: [x) a) Both needle and ball central.] Q76 Question: In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by: Options: a) the aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in known positions b) measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft’s receiver c) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites’ transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver Correct Answer: [x) c) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites’ transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver] Q78 Question: A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to: Options: a) standby mode b) signal controlled search c) memory mode Correct Answer: [x) c) memory mode] Q79 Question: In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400? Options: a) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM b) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more c) When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it Correct Answer: [x) b) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more] Q80 Question: Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency? Options: a) 109.15 MHz b) 108.25 MHz c) 110.20 MHz Correct Answer: [x) a) 109.15 MHz] Q81 Question: A Primary radar operates on the principle of: Options: a) phase comparison b) continuous wave transmission c) pulse technique Correct Answer: [x) c) pulse technique] Q82 Question: Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include: Options: a) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system b) static interference - station interference - latitude error c) height error - station interference - mountain effect Correct Answer: [x) a) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system Q83 Question: The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME system: Options: a) Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter b) Is to avoid the reception in the aircraft of signals referring to other aircraft c) Is to prevent overload of the system. Correct Answer: [x) a) Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter] Q84 Question: What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same Morse code identifier? Options: a) 600 m b) 2000 m c) 300 m Correct Answer: [x) a) 600 m] Q85 Question: The minimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is: Options: a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 Correct Answer: [x) c) 5] Q86 Question: What is the first returning sky wave called? Options: a) The critical ray. b) The sky ray. c) The space wave. Correct Answer: [x) a) The critical ray.] Q87 Question: The CP is exactly halfway when: Options: a) 0-H. b) in nil wind conditions. c) in beam wind conditions. Correct Answer: [x) b) in nil wind conditions.] Q88 Question: When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly? Options: a) a constant heading. b) a rhumb line track. c) a great circle track. Correct Answer: [x) c) a great circle track.] Q89 Question: A VOT is: Options: a) A test VOR. b) A tracking VOR. c) A terminal VOR. Correct Answer: [x) a) A test VOR.] Q92 Question: In a banked turn a barometric altimeter using a single static source? Options: a) Will over indicate. b) Will under indicate. c) Might over or under indicate, depending on the position of the static source. Correct Answer: [x) c) Might over or under indicate, depending on the position of the static source.] Q93 Question: Conversion angle is: Options: a) Difference between G/C being measured at either meridian b) Difference between G/C and R/L Bearings c) Difference between Grid north and True North. Correct Answer: [x) b) Difference between G/C and R/L Bearings Q94 Question: A mach meter is made up of? Options: a) An altimeter with a density capsule. b) An ASI with an altitude capsule. c) A VSI with a modified scale. Correct Answer: [x) b) An ASI with an altitude capsule.] Q95 Question: VMO is calculated based on? Options: a) TAS. b) EAS. c) CAS. Correct Answer: [x) b) EAS. Q96 Question: In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake? Options: a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window. b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin. c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible. Correct Answer: [x) a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window.] Q97 Question: The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a? Options: a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor. b) Bi-metallic strip. c) Return spring. Correct Answer: [x) a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.] Q98 Question: Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at? Options: a) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis. b) 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis. c) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis. Correct Answer: [x) c) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis.] Q99 Question: In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon: Options: a) frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured b) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen c) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured Correct Answer: [x) a) frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured]

Question 369

Q40 Question: A reduction in airspeed of aircraft will cause an air driven artificial horizon to indicate: Options: a) a climbing turn to the right b) a pitch lip c) a descending turn to the left

Answer 369

Correct Answer: [x) c) a descending turn to the left]

Question 370

Q41 Question: While carrying out a turn at magnetic equator with DRC, there will be: Options: a) no turning error b) a tendency to over read the turn through North & under read the turn through South c) a tendency to under read all turns due to liquid swirl

Answer 370

Correct Answer: [x) c) a tendency to under read all turns due to liquid swirl]

Question 371

Q42 Question: During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-RAC, are: Options: a) TAS 10kt and time 2 minutes b) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes c) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes

Answer 371

Correct Answer: [x) b) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes]

Question 372

Q44 Question: Which white EFIS symbol below represents the aircraft? Options: a) △ b) ▯ c) ○

Answer 372

Correct Answer: [x) a) △]

Question 373

Q45 Question: What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS? Options: a) Mach number decreases; TAS decreases b) Mach number increases; TAS remains constant c) Mach number increases; TAS increases

Answer 373

Correct Answer: [x) c) Mach number increases; TAS increases]

Question 374

Q46 Question: In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter? Options: a) Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information during symmetric flight. b) Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations. c) Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.

Answer 374

Correct Answer: [x) c) Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.]

Question 375

Q47 Question: If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal? Options: a) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude. b) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude. c) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.

Answer 375

Correct Answer: [x) a) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.]

Question 376

Q48 Question: After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed? Options: a) Increases steadily. b) Decreases abruptly towards zero. c) Decreases steadily.

Answer 376

Correct Answer: [x) c) Decreases steadily.]

Question 377

Q49 Question: What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb? Options: a) Decreases b) Increases c) Increases then remains constant

Answer 377

Correct Answer: [x) b) Increases]

Question 378

Q50 Question: The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the? Options: a) Time passed at a given altitude. b) Mach number of the aircraft c) Aircraft altitude.

Answer 378

Correct Answer: [x) a) Time passed at a given altitude.]

Question 379

Q51 Question: When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will? Options: a) Over read b) Be just as correct as before. c) Show the actual height above ground.

Answer 379

Correct Answer: [x) a) Over read]

Question 380

Q52 Question: What is QNH? Options: a) Ambient pressure at msl. b) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of zero on the runway. c) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the pressure altitude of the runway.

Answer 380

Correct Answer: [x) a) Ambient pressure at msl.]

Question 381

Q53 Question: During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. this is an indication of the true. Options: a) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. b) Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. c) Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.

Answer 381

Correct Answer: [x) a) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.]

Question 382

Q54 Question: Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band? Options: a) HF (High Frequency). b) UHF (Ultra High Frequency). c) SHF (Super High Frequency).

Answer 382

Correct Answer: [x) c) SHF (Super High Frequency).

Question 383

Q55 Question: The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on? Options: a) Pulse modulation of the carrier wave. b) A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation. c) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.

Answer 383

Correct Answer: [x) c) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.]

Question 384

Q56 Question: If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked? Options: a) The VSI indication will be too low when climbing. b) The VSI indication will be too low when descending. c) The VSI will not be affected.

Answer 384

Correct Answer: [x) c) The VSI will not be affected.

Question 385

Q57 Question: If the static pipe becomes partly blocked? Options: a) The VSI indication will be too high with descending. b) The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating at constant descending. c) The VSI indication will be too low when descending.

Answer 385

Correct Answer: [x) c) The VSI indication will be too low when descending.]

Question 386

Q58 Question: What does an AS indicate? Options: a) MMO. b) VNE. c) Temperature and VMO.

Answer 386

Correct Answer: [x) b) VNE.]

Question 387

Q59 Question: What speed is VNO? Options: a) That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air. b) That which may never be exceeded c) That which may be exceeded only in emergencies

Answer 387

Correct Answer: [x) a) That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.]

Question 388

Q60 Question: What will be the effect on the ASI if the pitot tube of an unpressurised aircraft is fractured and the pitot drain is blocked. Options: a) It will over read. b) It will under read. c) It will give a constant reading.

Answer 388

Correct Answer: [x) b) It will under read.]

Question 389

Q61 Question: Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited? Options: a) By the MMO. b) By the VMO in still air. c) Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.

Answer 389

Correct Answer: [x) c) Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.]

Question 390

Q62 Question: In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is? Options: a) Lower than the true airspeed (TAS). b) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS). c) Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).

Answer 390

Correct Answer: [x) b) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).]

Question 391

Q63 Question: VLO is the maximum? Options: a) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. b) Flight speed with landing gear down. c) Speed with flaps extended in a given position.

Answer 391

Correct Answer: [x) a) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.]

Question 392

Q64 Question: Mach meter indications? Options: a) Vary with airspeed and temperature b) Vary only with airspeed. c) Vary only with temperature.

Answer 392

Correct Answer: [x) b) Vary only with airspeed.

Question 393

Q65 Question: How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when flying at constant CAS and altitude? Options: a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain constant

Answer 393

Correct Answer: [x) c) Remain constant]

Question 394

Q66 Question: The building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass? Options: a) Close to the axis and with a low rotation speed. b) On the periphery and with a high rotation speed. c) Close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.

Answer 394

Correct Answer: [x) b) On the periphery and with a high rotation speed.]

Question 395

Q67 Question: A Standby horizon or emergency attitude indicator? Options: a) Only works if there is a complete electrical failure. b) Contains its own separate gyro. c) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails.

Answer 395

Correct Answer: [x) b) Contains its own separate gyro.]

Question 396

Q68 Question: A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with? Options: a) 1 degree of freedom. b) 3 degree of freedom. c) 2 degree of freedom.

Answer 396

Correct Answer: [x) a) 1 degree of freedom.]

Question 397

Q69 Question: The indication on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to: 1. Rotation of Earth. 2. Aero plane motion on Earth. 3. Lateral and transversal aero plane bank angles. 4. North change. 5. Mechanical defects. Choose the combination with true statements only? Options: a) 2, 3, 5. b) 1, 2, 3, 5. c) 3, 4, 5.

Answer 397

Correct Answer: [x) b) 1, 2, 3, 5.]

Question 398

Q70 Question: When turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate? Options: a) Too much nose up and too little bank angle. b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle. c) Too little nose up and too little bank angle.

Answer 398

Correct Answer: [x) b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle.]

Question 399

Q71 Question: An artificial horizon has? Options: a) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis b) Two degrees of freedom and a longitudinal spin axis. c) Two degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.

Answer 399

Correct Answer: [x) a) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis]

Question 400

Q73 Question: ROT indications are? Options: a) Proportional to TAS. b) Proportional to CAS. c) Proportional to mass.

Answer 400

Correct Answer: [x) a) Proportional to TAS.]

Question 401

Q75 Question: Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to arrest the yaw, whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the ailerons. What will the turn and slip indicator show in this condition? Options: a) Both needle and ball central. b) Both needle and ball right. c) Both needle and ball left.

Answer 401

Correct Answer: [x) a) Both needle and ball central.]

Question 402

Q76 Question: In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by: Options: a) the aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in known positions b) measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft’s receiver c) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites’ transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver

Answer 402

Correct Answer: [x) c) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites’ transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver]

Question 403

Q78 Question: A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to: Options: a) standby mode b) signal controlled search c) memory mode

Answer 403

Correct Answer: [x) c) memory mode]

Question 404

Q79 Question: In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400? Options: a) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM b) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more c) When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it

Answer 404

Correct Answer: [x) b) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more]

Question 405

Q80 Question: Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency? Options: a) 109.15 MHz b) 108.25 MHz c) 110.20 MHz

Answer 405

Correct Answer: [x) a) 109.15 MHz]

Question 406

Q81 Question: A Primary radar operates on the principle of: Options: a) phase comparison b) continuous wave transmission c) pulse technique

Answer 406

Correct Answer: [x) c) pulse technique]

Question 407

Q82 Question: Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include: Options: a) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system b) static interference - station interference - latitude error c) height error - station interference - mountain effect

Answer 407

Correct Answer: [x) a) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system

Question 408

Q83 Question: The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME system: Options: a) Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter b) Is to avoid the reception in the aircraft of signals referring to other aircraft c) Is to prevent overload of the system.

Answer 408

Correct Answer: [x) a) Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter]

Question 409

Q84 Question: What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same Morse code identifier? Options: a) 600 m b) 2000 m c) 300 m

Answer 409

Correct Answer: [x) a) 600 m]

Question 410

Q85 Question: The minimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is: Options: a) 3 b) 4 c) 5

Answer 410

Correct Answer: [x) c) 5]

Question 411

Q86 Question: What is the first returning sky wave called? Options: a) The critical ray. b) The sky ray. c) The space wave.

Answer 411

Correct Answer: [x) a) The critical ray.]

Question 412

Q87 Question: The CP is exactly halfway when: Options: a) 0-H. b) in nil wind conditions. c) in beam wind conditions.

Answer 412

Correct Answer: [x) b) in nil wind conditions.]

Question 413

Q88 Question: When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly? Options: a) a constant heading. b) a rhumb line track. c) a great circle track.

Answer 413

Correct Answer: [x) c) a great circle track.]

Question 414

Q89 Question: A VOT is: Options: a) A test VOR. b) A tracking VOR. c) A terminal VOR.

Answer 414

Correct Answer: [x) a) A test VOR.]

Question 415

Q92 Question: In a banked turn a barometric altimeter using a single static source? Options: a) Will over indicate. b) Will under indicate. c) Might over or under indicate, depending on the position of the static source.

Answer 415

Correct Answer: [x) c) Might over or under indicate, depending on the position of the static source.]

Question 416

Q93 Question: Conversion angle is: Options: a) Difference between G/C being measured at either meridian b) Difference between G/C and R/L Bearings c) Difference between Grid north and True North.

Answer 416

Correct Answer: [x) b) Difference between G/C and R/L Bearings

Question 417

Q94 Question: A mach meter is made up of? Options: a) An altimeter with a density capsule. b) An ASI with an altitude capsule. c) A VSI with a modified scale.

Answer 417

Correct Answer: [x) b) An ASI with an altitude capsule.]

Question 418

Q95 Question: VMO is calculated based on? Options: a) TAS. b) EAS. c) CAS.

Answer 418

Correct Answer: [x) b) EAS.

Question 419

Q96 Question: In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake? Options: a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window. b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin. c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible.

Answer 419

Correct Answer: [x) a) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window.]

Question 420

Q97 Question: The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a? Options: a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor. b) Bi-metallic strip. c) Return spring.

Answer 420

Correct Answer: [x) a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.]

Question 421

Q98 Question: Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at? Options: a) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis. b) 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis. c) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis.

Answer 421

Correct Answer: [x) c) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis.]

Question 422

Q99 Question: In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon: Options: a) frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured b) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen c) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured

Answer 422

Correct Answer: [x) a) frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured]

Question 423

Q72 Question: A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator will show? Options: 1. Turn direction. 2. Rate of turn. 3. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis. 4. Angular velocity about the aircraft vertical axis. 5. Angular velocity about the longitudinal axis. a) 1, 2. b) 1, 3. c) 1, 2, 4.

Answer 423

Correct Answer: [x) c) 1, 2, 4.]