Module 17 Wk 4 Flashcards
(237 cards)
1
Q
When examining a skin/soft tissue tumour what should you be assessing?
A
- Depth - dermal, subcut OR deep soft tissue, Bone
- Location - mucocutaneous, back, digit
- Measure size
- Signs of ulceration
- Mobility of tumour
2
Q
What test should run to help diagnose skin tumours?
A
- cytology
- histopathology for definitive diagnosis
3
Q
What are your differential diagnosis for skin tumours?
A
- hyperplastic conditions
- granulomatous condtitions
- immune-mediated conditions
- developmental lesions
4
Q
What does “T” stand for in skin tumor staging?
A
Primary lesion – size and extent
5
Q
How is the size and extent of a primary skin lesion assessed?
A
By measuring the lesion and evaluating its depth and local spread
6
Q
What does “N” stand for in skin tumor staging?
A
Regional/Sentinel lymph node involvement
7
Q
How are regional/sentinel lymph nodes assessed in skin tumor staging?
A
Through palpation, imaging (e.g., ultrasound), and fine-needle aspiration
8
Q
What does “M” stand for in skin tumor staging?
A
Distant metastases
9
Q
How is the presence of distant metastases evaluated in skin tumors?
A
Using X-ray, abdominal ultrasound (AUS), and blood tests
10
Q
How do you treat local skin tumours?
A
Surgery + radiography
11
Q
How do you treat local and regional skin Lymphomas?
A
surgery and or radiotherapy
12
Q
How should you treat multifocal/diffuse skin tumours?
A
Chemo
13
Q
Is a cutaneous histiocytoma benign or malignat?
A
Benign
14
Q
What type of skin conditions is cutaneous histiocytosis?
A
Reactive immune-mediated
15
Q
What kind of skin condition is systemuc histiocytosis?
A
16
Q
What kind of skin condition is histiocytic sarcoma?
A
This is malignant histiocytosis = neoplastic
17
Q
What kind of skin condition is haemiphagocytic histiocytic sarcoma?
A
Neoplastic
18
Q
What is Reactive Histiocytosis?
A
A disorder involving infiltration of myeloid interstitial dendritic cells into the dermis and subcutis, affecting young dogs.
19
Q
What are the two types of Reactive Histiocytosis?
A
Cutaneous Histiocytosis – affects only the skin
Systemic Histiocytosis – affects skin, lymph nodes, and other organs
20
Q
Which dog breeds are predisposed to Systemic Histiocytosis?
A
Bernese Mountain Dog (BMD)
Rottweiler
Retrievers
21
Q
How do lesions behave in Reactive Histiocytosis?
A
Lesions wax and wane but are slowly progressive over time.
22
Q
What is the underlying cause of Reactive Histiocytosis?
A
A disorder of immune regulation.
23
Q
What treatments may help manage Reactive Histiocytosis?
A
Some cases respond to immunosuppressive drugs, including:
High-dose corticosteroids
Cyclosporine
Tetracycline/Niacinamide
24
Q
What is Histiocytic Sarcoma derived from?
A
Derived from myeloid interstitial dendritic cells.
25
Which markers are used to stain Histiocytic Sarcoma?
CD1
CD11c
MHC II
CD18
Iba-1
26
What are the three types of epithelial/epidermal solitary skin lesions?
- papilloma
- basal cell tumour
- squamous cell carcinoma
27
What are examples of Adnexal/Dermal tumors?
Sebaceous and sweat gland adenoma/ACA
Hair follicle tumors (Pilomatricoma, Trichoepithelioma, Trichoblastoma)
28
What are examples of Mesenchymal/Subcutaneous Connective Tissue tumors?
Fibrous tissue tumors (Fibroma/Sarcoma)
Adipose tissue tumors (Lipoma/Sarcoma)
29
What age of cats/dogs is multimple epidermal papilloma common in?
young cats and dogs
30
What age of cats/dogs is solitary epidermal papilloma common in?
old
31
Is a basal cell tumour/carcinoma more common in - cats or dogs?
cats
32
Describe how a basal cell tumour/carcinoma presents?
- solitary
- discrete
- well circumcribed
- rasied/domed
- can be pigmented
- occasionally more invasive and ulcerated
33
What are the main causes of Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)?
Chronic exposure to UV light, especially in depigmented (white) skin areas
Papillomavirus infection – associated with Bowen’s in situ carcinoma (BISC) in cats
34
What is Bowen’s in situ carcinoma (BISC) in cats?
A form of squamous cell carcinoma caused by papillomavirus infection, leading to skin plaques at multiple sites in both haired and non-haired areas. It is not UV-associated.
35
How should you treat SCC nasal planum?
Surgical excision (nosectomy!)
Radiotherapy (external beam)
Brachytherapy (Strontium90)
Photodynamic therapy
Electrochemotherapy
36
What dogs are predisposed to SCC of the foot?
Black coat large breeds- lab, St poodle, Schnauzer, Rottweiler, Gordon Set, FCR
37
What clinical signs are associated with SCC of the foot?
Ulcerative, haemorrhagic, lame and bone destruction
38
What are three benign adnexal tumours?
- sebaceous gland tumours
- hair follicle tumours
- meibomian gland adenoma
39
What is the most common skin tumour in older dogs?
sebaceous gland tumours esp cocker spanials and poodles
40
What are two types of malignant adnexal tumours?
- matrical carcinomas
- malignant sweat/sebaceous carcinomas
41
Where is aperi-anal adenoma derived from?
skin sebaceous gland
42
What signlement of dog is predisposed to peri-anal adenoma?
elderly male dogs
43
Describe how a peri-anal adenomal lesion appears?
Solitary, discrete, alopecic, button-like, domed in perianal skin or on anal sphincter
44
TT/F peri-anal adenomas usually regress with castration
True - surgical excision may be needed
45
what are the two types of malignant peri-anal tumours?
- perianal adenomacarcinoma
- anal sac adenomacarcinoma
46
Where are canine cutaneous histiocytoma located?
- Head
- Limbs
- Feet
- Trunk
47
How do canine cutaneous histiocytoma present visibly?
Rapidly growing intradermal lesion
48
What cells are canine cutaneous histiocytoma dervived from?
langerhans cell derived
49
are canine cutaneous histiocytomas benign or malignant?
benign
50
What are melanocytic tumours that have a good prognosis?
Cutaneous and dermal ones
51
What doe cutaneous/dermal melonocytic tumours visually look like?
Solitary,dermal, domed, dark mass
52
What are melanocytic tumours that have a bad prognosis?
- mucocutaneous + digital
- oral melanoma
53
What is the most common mast cell tumour in dogs?
skin
54
What is the most common mast cell tumour in cats?
visceral
55
What are the predisposition to mass cell tumours?
- middle aged to older dogs
- no sex
- boxers, labs, GRT, weimeraners
- pugs
56
What are problems with mast cell tumours?
- variable appearance
- variable behaviour/metastasis
- Variable response to treatment
57
What are mast cell proliferation markers?
- mitotic count
- Ki67
- AgNOR count
- cKIT
58
What is the significance of mitotic count in mast cell tumors (MCT)?
A higher mitotic count indicates a worse prognosis:
59
What mitotic count equals a worse prognosis in cutaneous MCT?
>5 mitoses/10 HPF
60
What mitotic count equals a worse prognosis in subcutaneous MCT?
>4 mitoses/10 HPF
61
What does Ki67 stain for, and what is its prognostic significance in MCT?
Ki67 is a nuclear stain for cells in the cell cycle.
>1.8% positive nuclei per total mast cells in the field is associated with worse prognosis and decreased survival.
62
What is AgNOR count and PCNA, and how do they relate to MCT prognosis?
AgNOR count (nuclear silver stain) and PCNA (proliferating cell nuclear antigen) are both increased in proliferating cells.
They are associated with worse prognosis but are not independent of tumor grade.
63
What is cKIT?
KIT is a cell surface growth factor receptor with tyrosine kinase (TK) enzyme activity
64
How can cKIT protein expression be visualized in MCT, and what patterns are associated with prognosis?
cKIT protein can be visualized using immunohistochemistry (IHC).
65
What cKIT pattern is assocated with normal cells or low-grade MCT that has a better prognosis
KIT1 (membranous)
66
What cKIT pattern is assocated with aberrant expression and a worse prognosis?
KIT2 (focal cytoplasmicc)
67
What cKIT pattern is assocated with aberrant expression, a worse prognosis and often seen in jigh grade MCT?
KIT3 (diffuse cytoplasmic)
68
what do the granules in a MCT contain?
histamine, heparin and vasoactive amaines
69
How do granules release their contents?
Spontaneous degranulation
Trauma-induced degranulation
70
What is the effect of histamine release?
Increases vascular permeability
Causes swelling, itching, and redness
Contributes to inflammation
71
What does heparin do?
Acts as an anticoagulant
Prevents blood clotting
May lead to abnormal bleeding
72
What do vasoactive amines do?
Cause vasodilation
Lead to low blood pressure (hypotension)
Can contribute to anaphylaxis
73
How can tumors trigger degranulation?
Direct invasion of granule-containing cells
Chronic inflammation
Trauma to affected tissues
74
What are the systemic effects of hyperhistamineamia?
Acts on H2 receptors in gastic parietal cells leading to increased acitdidty and motility which can lead to vom, anorexia and melaena and gastric ulceration.
75
What is the treatment for hyperhistaminaemia?
1. Supportive therapy - fluids
2. H2 antagonists = Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine
3. Gastric protectants = Sucralfate (Antepsin)
4. Proton pump inhibitor = Omeprazole
5. Remove /treat mast cell tumour to remove source of histamine
76
What is MCT causes hypotension?
Histamine and vasoactive substnaces
77
If MCT is clinically stage 1 how should you treat?
Surgical excision only
78
If MCT is clinically stage 2 how should you treat?
- Surgery and also LN excision
- Metastasis to LN implies higher grade so chemo
79
What is the primary treatment for low-grade (Grade I & some Grade II) tumors?
Wide local excision (surgery) is usually curative.
80
What should be checked after surgery for low-grade tumors?
Histological margins – if incomplete, consider repeat surgery or radiation therapy (XRT).
81
When should chemotherapy or TKIs be considered for low-grade tumors?
Only if there are warning signs of malignancy, such as:
- Nerve involvement (PNS signs)
- Bruising
- Sentinel lymph node involvement
- High mitotic rate (>5 per 10HPF)
- High Ki67 index (>1.8)
- c-Kit mutation
82
How are high-grade (some Grade II & all Grade III) tumors treated?
Wide or radical excision
Radiation therapy if margins aren’t clear
Chemotherapy is always needed due to high metastasis risk
83
What additional treatment may be needed for high-grade tumors?
Treatment for paraneoplastic signs if present.
84
What is the treatment for unresectable (inoperable) tumors?
Chemotherapy or TKIs (targeted therapy) are used.
85
What kind of cats are predisposed to MCT?
- older cats
- siamese
86
How many masses decrease survival time?
more than 5
87
How do soft tissue sarcomas behave locally?
They are locally infiltrative and invasive, usually subcutaneous.
88
Why is a pseudocapsule misleading in soft tissue sarcomas?
The pseudocapsule is a compression zone, not a true margin—tumors do not shell out!
89
What is the surgical approach for soft tissue sarcomas?
Radical surgery is required, but cytoreductive resection + radiotherapy may be an option for difficult sites (e.g., distal limbs).
90
How do soft tissue sarcomas metastasize?
Via the haematogenous route (bloodstream), with about 15% overall risk.
91
How does metastasis risk vary by grade?
Low/Intermediate Grade → Surgery +/- radiotherapy (local treatment)
High Grade → Requires adjunctive chemotherapy (systemic treatment)
92
When is chemotherapy used for soft tissue sarcomas?
For high-grade tumors with a high risk of metastasis.
93
What is the main chemotherapy drug for soft tissue sarcomas?
Doxorubicin-based protocols are used for most sarcomas, including haemangiosarcoma (HSA).
94
What chemotherapy drug is used for histiocytic sarcomas?
Lomutisne.
95
When did feline injection site sarcomas (FISS) become more common?
Since the 1990s in the USA.
96
What vaccines are associated with FISS?
Rabies and FeLV, possibly linked to aluminium adjuvants.
97
How should FISS be treated?
Advanced imaging to guide excision
Surgery +/- radiotherapy for primary tumor
Chemotherapy for metastasis
98
Which species and breeds are most affected by haemangiosarcoma?
Older dogs (rare in cats); GSDs, Labs, Golden Retrievers are predisposed.
99
What are common sites for haemangiosarcoma?
Spleen
Right atrium/pericardium
Muscle, subcutis
100
How does haemangiosarcoma metastasize?
Rapidly via the blood, with transabdominal seeding (lymph nodes often remain negative).
101
What are possible presentations of haemangiosarcoma?
Superficial soft tissue mass or haematoma
Splenic rupture → haemorrhage, collapse, pale mucous membranes, abdominal distension
Cardiac signs → muffled heart sounds, arrhythmias, right-sided heart failure
102
What bloodwork findings are common in haemangiosarcoma?
Regenerative anaemia (blood loss)
Thrombocytopenia
Neutrophilia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
103
How is primary haemangiosarcoma treated?
Surgical excision for subcutaneous masses (radical excision or amputation)
Splenectomy for splenic tumors
Pericardectomy for cardiac tumors
104
What chemotherapy options exist for haemangiosarcoma?
Doxorubicin-based protocols
VAC (Vincristine, Adriamycin, Cyclophosphamide)
Metronomic therapy
105
what is the median survival time (MST) for splenic haemangiosarcoma?
Surgery alone: 1-3 months
Surgery + chemotherapy: 5-7 months
106
What is the MST for intramuscular haemangiosarcoma with chemotherapy?
6-9 months
107
How does prognosis differ for skin haemangiosarcoma?
Dermal HSA (UV-induced in thin-coated dogs) → 26-33 months with surgery alone
Subcutaneous HSA → 7-10 months (up to 39-40 months with doxorubicin)
108
What is the MST for cardiac haemangiosarcoma?
With doxorubicin: 3-4 months
No treatment: 12 days
109
(approach to mammary tumours)
What is the most common tumour type in intact female dogs?
Mammary tumour
110
What dogs are predisposed to mammary tumours?
- 7-13yrs
- Miniature and toy breeds
- 99% females v low prevelelnce in males
111
What cats are predisposed to mammary tumours?
- 10-12yrs and 9yrs in siamese
- oriental breeds, DSH
- 99% female v low prevelence in older males
112
What are the two genetic ways that cause mammary tumours?
- sporadic which is a combination of upregulated or downregulated (mutated) genes acquired through life.
- Familial whihc is inherited from generation to generation
113
Name key tumour suppressor genes involved in mammary tumours.
p53: Prevents damaged cells from dividing.
PTEN: Regulates cell proliferation and survival.
E-cadherin & β-catenin: Maintain cell adhesion; mutations promote metastasis.
114
Name key oncogenes involved in mammary tumours.
ErbB2/HER2: Drives aggressive tumour growth.
COX2: Enhances inflammation and tumour progression.
PI3K/AKT/mTOR Pathway: Increases cell survival and proliferation.
115
What are SNPs, and why are they important in mammary tumours?
SNPs (Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms): Small genetic variations that can affect tumour characteristics.
Certain SNPs are linked to tumour grade (aggressiveness).
116
What is the similarity between feline mammary carcinoma and human breast cancer?
Feline mammary carcinoma has a similar gene expression pattern to human triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC), which is aggressive and difficult to treat.
117
What genetic mutations increase the risk of CMT in dogs?
BRCA1 & BRCA2 Germline Mutations: Inherited mutations in these genes significantly raise the risk of CMT.
118
How do BRCA1 mutations affect other dog breeds?
BRCA1 mutations and decreased expression are observed in other breeds, contributing to mammary tumour risk.
119
Are BRCA mutations common in cats?
Few germline BRCA1 & BRCA2 mutations have been reported in cats. Their hereditary risk is still being studied.
120
How does the PI3K/AKT/mTOR pathway contribute to cancer?
This pathway promotes cell survival, proliferation, and tumour growth when overactivated.
121
T/F exogenous hormones from contraceptive injections/tablets increase risk of malignant tumours?
True
122
Why can obesity cause mammary tumours?
adipose tissue is the source of steroid
123
What is your differential diagnosis in the dog for a mammary lump?
Mastitis
Duct ectasia (cysts)
Focal fibrosis
Lobular hyperplasia
Ductal hyperplasia
Gynecomastia - abnormal development of mammary system in males
124
What is your differential diganosis for a mammary lump in the cat?
mastitis
Duct ectasia (cysts)
focal fibrosis
Ductal hyperplasia
lobular hyperplasia
125
What is fibroadenomatous hyperplasia and when can it occur?
One or multiple glands are swollen, painful, oedematous but no milk production and can occur flowwing metoeastrus, pregnancy and administration of exogenous progestins
126
What are the clinical signs of fibroadenomatous hyperplasia?
Anorexia, lethargy and tachycardia
127
How can you diagnose fibroadenomatous hyperplasia?
On gross appearence and age
128
Is ther anything you can use when the fibroadenomatous hyperplasia has been caused by exogenous progestins?
Yes - progesterone antagonist
129
What are the types of benign mammary tumours in the dog?
- simple adenoma - single epithelium or myoepithelium but its rare
- complex adenoma - where both luminal, epi and myoepi cells are involved
- mixed tumour - cart or bone always present with this tumour
130
What are the types of simple carcinoma (malignant) mammary tumours found in the dog?
- single epi
- tubular
- tuulopapillary
- cystic-papillary
- cribiform
- solid
- anaplastic
131
What are the types of complex carcinoma (malignant) mammary tumours found in the dog
- both luminal epith AND myoepithelial cells
- Luminal – malignant
- Myoepith - benign
132
what are the other two malignant mammary tumours found in dogs?
- carcinoma in mixed tumout form where acrtlage and bone are always present
- carcinosarcoma
133
How do solid mammary carcinomas present?
They are fixed, ulerated and grow rapidly
134
How do anaplastic mammary cacinomas present?
They present ulcerated and have dermal and lymphatic invasion
135
What is the definition of inflammatory carcinoma?
Invasion of dermal lymphatics by tumour emboli which causes local oedema
136
What are your differential diagnosis for inflammatory carcinoma?
Acute mastitis or dermatitis
137
What are the 3 grades for mammary tumours?
1 - low - well differentiated
2 - intermediate - moderately differentiates
3- high - porrly differentiated
138
What additional pathological findings influenece prognosis of mammary tumours?
- surrounding stromla invasion
- vascular or lymphatic invasion
- lymph node involvement
139
What grade are feline simpe carcinomas?
high
140
How can you confirm the diagnosis of a mammary mass via FNA?
- suck out some cells
- look at them and usually diagnositic if there is uniform carcinoma
- can also rule out non-mammary tumours
141
How does biobsy of a mammary mass compare to FNA?
Gives way more info than FNA
142
State the diameteres for T1-T4 on the who system in dogs
T1 = less than 3 cm
T2 = 2-5cm
T3 = more than 5cm
T4 = any size/inflammatory
143
T/F size of primary tumour is importnat independent of LN status?
True
144
State the diameteres for T1-T4 on the who system in cats
T1 = less than 2cm
T2 = 2-3cm
T3 = more than 3cm
145
What is the main treatment of mammary tumours?
Surgery
146
What is nodulectomy/lumpectomy used to treat?
Unfixed lesions less than 0.5cm - more of a biopsy procedure
147
What is a simple mammectomy used for?
centrally positioned lesions, fixed or unfixed, that are 0.5-1cm in diameter
148
What is a partial/regional mastectomy and what is it used for?
- It is where the gland plus other adjacent glands which drain from it are removed
- Used for most lesions in dogs
149
How should you treat a local reacurrece of mammary tumour?
- submit for histiopathology
- check surgical margins
- further/bilateral surgery?
- removal of lymph nodes?
150
why should you spay at the same time if not already when performing a mastectomy on a benign tumour?
- reduces risk of growth of further benign tumours
- will prevent pyometra
- prevent the need for progestins
151
should you spay at the same time if not already when performing a mastectomy on a malignant tumour?
- its not been proven to have effect on time to metastasis and overall survival time
- better just to do mammary strips
152
What histological types of tumors in dogs are associated with a good prognosis?
Tubular, papillary
153
What histological types of tumors in dogs are associated with a poor prognosis?
Solid, anaplastic
154
What is the prognosis for dogs with a low histological grade (Grade I)?
Good prognosis
155
What is the prognosis for dogs with a high histological grade (Grade III)?
Poor prognosis
156
What is the prognosis for dogs with a tumor size less than 3 cm in diameter?
Good prognosis
157
How does tumor clinical stage impact the prognosis in dogs?
Prognosis depends on the stage, as per the Bioscore system (2019), which combines stage and grade
158
Does being spayed affect prognosis in female dogs with tumors?
Not spayed (more likely ER positive) = better prognosis
159
What histological grade is associated with a good prognosis in cats?
Low grade (Grade I), but it is less common
160
What is the prognosis for cats with a high histological grade (Grade III)?
90-100% dead within 1 year
161
What is the prognosis for cats with a tumor size less than 2 cm in diameter?
good
162
What is the prognosis for cats with a tumor size greater than 3 cm in diameter?
poor
163
What is the prognosis for cats with Stage 1 tumors?
good
164
What is the prognosis for cats with Stage IV tumors?
poor
165
How does the extent of surgery affect prognosis in cats with mammary tumors?
aggressive surgery is best to prevent recurrence, including a bilateral mammary strip down to a clean fascial plane
166
(Lumps and poisoning of farm animals)
What are the differences between SA/Equine and farm animal neoplasia?
- FA dont live long enough to develop classic old age neoplasia
- Juvenile neoplasia is uncommon
- other than US and FNA nothing else really performed and there is no staging
- chemo/radio never an option just surgery
167
What setting should the rectal probe be when US a lump on FA?
early/late pregnancy depending on size of lump
168
If the ultrasound of the lump is black, what does this indicate, and what type of lump could it be?
- Fluid
- Seoma/haematoma
169
If the ultrasound of the lump is white, what does this indicate?
The lump is a mass
170
If the ultrasound of the lump is black/white, what does this indicate about the lump?
Abscess/organising seroma or haematoma
171
Will an abscesses walls be thick or thin?
Thick
172
What gauge of needle do need when doing an FNA of lump on a large animal?
18g, but it might need to be thicker 14g
173
when inserting the FNA needle into the lump what shoudl you do?
Feel consistency
174
If blood is seen on FNA what does this indicate the lump is?
haematoma
175
If clear fluid is seen when performing an FNA what does this indicate the lump is?
seroma
176
If pus is seen when performing and FNA what does this indicate the lump is?
abscess
177
How should you go about treating a tumour in large animals?
- In a cow report to APHA
- Leave or surgical resection
178
How should you go about treating a seroma in large animals?
leave it
179
How should you go about treating a haematoma in large animals?
leave it
180
How should you go about treating a abscess in large animals?
Lance, fluhs and aim to keep open
181
How should you go about treating a lymph node in large animals?
Depends on cause so should treat primary lesions first
182
Is enzootic bovine leukosis in cattle notifiable?
qui
183
What is enzootic bovine leukosis caused by?
Bovine leukaemia virus which is a oncogenic retrovrus
184
How is enzootic bovine leukosis transmitted and at what age?
Any age, animal to animal
185
T/F animals infected with enzootic bovine leukosis are infected for life?
qui
186
Even though enxootic bovine leukosis is mainly sub-clinical where might tumour types may develop?
Abomasum, heart and lymphnodes
187
T/F lymphocytosis can be seen with enzootic bovine leukosis?
Yes
188
What is Sporadic Bovine Leukosis (SBL)?
A rare lymphoproliferative disease in cattle under 4 years old with an unknown cause and low prevalence.
189
What are the three forms of sporadic bovine leukosis?
cutaneous
thymic
multicentric
190
What are the main features of the Cutaneous Form of SBL?
Skin lesions that resemble ringworm, dermatophilosis, skin TB, urticaria, or actinobacillosis.
191
What are the key clinical signs of the Thymic Form of SBL?
Space-occupying lesion (SOL) effects, jugular vein occlusion, increased respiratory rate, and bloat.
192
What is a major differential diagnosis for the Thymic Form of SBL?
Congestive heart failure.
193
What characterizes the Multicentric (Juvenile) Form of SBL?
Enlargement of multiple lymph nodes, resembling tuberculosis (TB).
194
What is the prognosis for cattle diagnosed with SBL?
Poor, as there is no effective treatment.
195
What kind of cattle does sporadic Bovine leukosis effect?
dairy and beef
196
Describe what a suspected animal thats been infected with enzootic bovine leukosis presents like?
- Swollen, painless lymph nodes or tumourous chnages
- Haematological examination indiacted lymphocytes count for a infected animla
- Any other test has indicated the possible precence of infection with bovine leukosis virus.
197
What predisposes farm animals to squamous cell carcinomas?
- Non-pigmented, white faced breeds
- Older animals
198
How do farm animals with squamous cell carcinomas present?
- Occular and peri-occular
- Plaque -> keratoma -> papilloma -> carcinoma
- often bilateral
199
What are secondary effects to SCC?
+/i mets to LN and lungs
200
How do you treat SCC in farm animals?
Local and excise or enucleation or cryptherapy
201
What age of cattle are papillomas common in?
young
202
What are papillomas caused by in cattle?
Bovine papilloma virus
203
What are your treatment options for papillomas in cattle?
Simple local/scalpel removal or surgical or leave alone
204
What are the clinical signs of granulosa cell tumors in cattle?
Not detected in oestrus (NDO) or nymphomania.
205
What ultrasound finding is characteristic of granulosa cell tumors?
Thick-walled ovary with a honeycomb pattern.
206
What is the main differential diagnosis for a granulosa cell tumor?
Ovarian cyst.
207
What are the treatment options for granulosa cell tumors in cattle?
Surgical ovariectomy (risk of bleeding, uncertain oestrus return) or culling at the end of lactation.
208
Is cutaneous actinobacillosis a neoplasm?
No, it is NOT a neoplasm.
209
What are two differential diagnoses for cutaneous actinobacillosis?
Cutaneous lymphoma (SBL) and cutaneous tuberculosis (rare).
210
What is ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma?
Contagious lunch cancer of sheep
211
what is ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma caused by?
It is caused by the Jaagsiekte Sheep Retrovirus (JSRV), which induces the transformation of lung epithelial cells, leading to tumor formation in the lungs.
212
What are clinical signs of ovine pulmonary adenocarinoma?
- weight loss
- dyspnea
- nasal discherge
- coughing
- wheel barrow test it and fluid pour out then yes
213
What are the most common types of poisoning seen in farm animals?
- nephrotoxic or hepatotoxic
214
What kind of poisoning, acute or chronic, is harder to diagnose?
chronic
215
Why are young farm animals more likely to get poisoned?
more inquisitive
216
What should you try to rule out in history of a potentially poisoned patient (unless obv poisoning)?
- infectious cause
- nutritional cause
- Husbandaru issue
217
What are non specific med used in farm animals to treat poisoning?
Fluids or charcoal
218
For neuro signs with poisoning ie seizures what can be used?
Sedation
219
How should you manage a poisoning case after treating?
- remove the source
- offer alternative feeding
220
What are other considerations you should take into account when analysing a poisoning case?
- Could this be insurance case ie animals escaped?
- Could this be a litigation case ie feed company
- Couls this be malicious ie family/neighbour feud
221
What does Yew poisoning cause?
Cadriotoxic effects and sudden onset of death
222
What farm animals do you see rhododendron poisoning in?
Sheep
223
What are clinical signs of rhododrendrom poisoning?
GIT. teeth grinding, salivation and abdo pain
224
How should you treat rhodendron poisoning?
Supportive, NSAIDs, broad spec abs
225
What species is ragwort poisoning most common in?
Horses
226
What are the hepatotoxic clinical signs of ragwort poisoning?
Jaundice, oeadema
227
What are the Neurotoxic clinical signs of ragowort poisoning?
Apparent blindness, hepatic encephalopathy
228
What are the GIT clinical signs of regwort poisoning?
Abd pain, dehydrates, weight loss and ascites
229
What is lead poisoning caused by in farm animals?
dumped batteries ans lead paint
230
What are the clinical signs caused by lead poisoning in farm animals?
- neurologically = M fasciculation, staggering, apparent blindness
- GIT = frothing at mouth, colic, teeth grinding and rumen stasis
231
How do you treat lead poisoning in farm animals?
- supportive
- sedate
- Ca disodium edetate
- report to food standard agency
232
What are the causes of copper poisoning in farm animals?
Over supplementation and wrong feeding
233
What is copper poisoning more common in, cattle or sheep?
sheeppiesss
234
Is the coppor poisoning is acute what is the result?
death
235
What is the outcome of chronic copper poisoning?
Sick, jaundiced, anaemia and haemoglobunuria
236
(Cytotoxic safety and Chemo administration)
What is chemo?
The use of cytotoxic drugs to treat cancer
237
How do chemo drugs intefere with normal cells?
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