Module 2 - Planning, Construction, Environmental Flashcards
The Air Traffic Control (ATC) system is seeing a significant change due to use of ___________.
GPS
The ___________ is a 5-year plan updated and published by the FAA every 2 years; listing public-use airports eligible for federal funding.
National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS)
_____________ provide more detailed guidance on how the airports within the state can be developed to better meet state’s aviation needs.
State aviation system plans
_____________ are more specific and narrower in focus and often take into account airport capacity, intermodal access, and traveler type.
Metropolitan (or regional) aviation system plans
List 3 primary areas of airport.
- Landside 2. Terminal 3. Airside
___________ includes the runways, taxiways, and aircraft parking areas within the perimeter fence.
Airside
What grant assurance requires the sponsor to keep ALP updated at all times?
29
What is a graphical representation of existing and proposed airport land, terminal, other facilities, protection zones, and approach areas?
ALP
List 5 primary functions of ALP.
- FAA-approved plan necessary for AIP funding
- blueprint for development
- public document, for community reference
- enables agencies to plan
- working tool for staff
Notification of construction or alteration on an airport is provided on FAA Standard ____________.
Form SF-7460-1
Notification of the activation or alteration of a landing area is provided on FAA Standard ___________.
Form SF-7480-1
What is the inventory of airport projects in NPIAS, highlighting projects over 3-year funding cycle?
Airport Capital Improvement Plan (ACIP)
List 3 items that Grant Assurances specifically require up-to-date.
- property lines
- existing and proposed facilities
- existing and proposed non-aviation areas
The FAA now uses electronic ALP web-based system, that links features on map with ____________, allowing data to be shared in an integrated environment.
GIS
The ALP’s ___________ includes approval signature blocks, airport location maps, and other data.
Cover sheet
The ___________ contains tremendous amount of data including exiting and future airfield, facilities, safety areas, and property lines.
ALP sheet
The __________ contains airport and runway data tables and wind rose (wind direction diagram).
Data sheet
The ___________ depicts existing and future facilities.
Facilities layout plan
The ___________ depicts the airport terminal and surrounding facilities.
Terminal area plan
The ___________ are required elements and show all imaginary surfaces identified in Part 77.
Airport airspace drawings
The ____________ include a profile view of all runway approaches and location of objects as they affect the approach; TERPS surfaces.
Inner portions of the approach surface drawing
The _________ and _____________ depict existing and recommended uses of all land within the ultimate property line and within vicinity of airport (at least 65 DNL noise contour).
On-airport
Off-airport land use drawings
The airport property map depicts how various tracts of land were acquired; often termed ____________ on AIP grant applications; identifies legal interest and ownership of land.
Exhibit A
The __________ depict major routes and modes of transportation that serve the airport.
Airport access plans
ALPs must be submitted to FAA ______________ for approval.
Airport District Office ADO
List 3 conditions for ALP Approval by FAA.
- Safe - meets design standards
- Useful - best use of airport land
- Efficient - planned capacity sufficient for demand
“Mixed Approval” means that some near-term projects depicted in the ALP have completed required _________ reviews while long-term projects have not.
NEPA
Airport operators are required to complete the Airport Data Record on annual basis via _________, identifying changes to airport.
5010 Form
What describes the basic operational and services data of airport and achieves communication of airport data and information program?
Airport Master Record
What requires keeping the FAA informed on airport construction?
CFR Part 157
The FAA updates aeronautical charts and the __________, which pilots use as reference when flying into/out of an airport.
Airport Facility Directory (A/FD)
Changes to airport that result in a __________ , which may become permanent can be listed in the 5010 and __________ cancelled.
Notice to Airman (NOTAM)
The FAA’s __________ guides Airport Sponsors on collection, submission, and management of airport data and information, ensuring users have current information.
Airport Data and Information Program
___________ planning identifies general location and characteristics of new airports and the expansion needs of existing facilities to meet statewide goals.
Statewide integrated airport systems
___________ planning identifies airport needs for large regional/metropolitan areas; in general terms and incorporated into statewide plans.
Regional/metropolitan integrated airport systems
___________ are prepared by the owner/operators of individual airports, usually with the assistance of consultants; detail long-range plans of individual airport.
Airport Master Plans
What sets requirements of NPIAS, and processes to apply for, receive, and implement the funds from gran?
Part 151, Federal Aid to Airports
What was developed after Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 and further expanded Part 151 requirements?
Part 152, Airport Aid Program
List 9 guidelines for Airport System to meet demand.
- safe/efficient, optimum sites, standards
- affordable
- flexible, expandable
- permanent
- compatible with communities
- developed in concert with ATC
- support national objectives
- extensive, convenient access
- productive national economy
List 3 general categories of work in NPIAS.
- Purpose (safety, capacity, etc.)
- Physical component (runway, taxiway, etc.)
- Type of work
A ______________, or a _____________ recommends the general location and characteristics of new airports and the nature of development and expansion for existing airports.
Metropolitan Airport System Plan (MASP)
State Aviation System Plan
What plan identifies principal role of each airport in the area and forecasts proposed future activities, allowing entities to provide input on the comprehensive planning efforts?
SASP/MASP
The Airport ____________ is the primary document used at airports for long-range planning, representing vision of airport and development for up to 20-yr.
Master Plan
The __________ is to provide a framework to guide future airport development that is cost-effective and satisfies needs of airport, market, and community.
Master Plan
List 5 items master plan process is intended to produce.
- technical report
- summary report
- updated ALP
- webpage 9 (about airport and key elements)
- public information kit
_________ the Master Plan means FAA has reviewed elements to ensure sound planning techniques have been applied.
“Accepting”
The FAA _________ the Forecast and ALP.
“Approves”
Demand forecasts must resolve any inconsistency between forecasted levels and __________ produced by FAA.
Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF)
“Guidelines to Selecting Airport Consultants”, published by _________, provides guidance on consultant selection.
Airport Consultants Council (ACC)
What governs the consultant selection process, requiring an equivalent qualification-based process?
Brooks Act
List 3 items Sponsors request in Consultant Selection.
- SOQs
- RFQs
- RFPs
The local ADO should be consulted to determine the appropriate time to begin consultant selection process if a ___________ or ___________ is anticipated.
Environmental assessment (EA) Environmental impact statement (EIS)
What type of agreement is preferable and often used for Master Planning projects?
Fixed-price contract
If level of effort or project duration is uncertain, a _________, or time and materials, may be necessary.
Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
List 8 specific topics in Scoping a Master Plan
- Goals and objectives
- Data availability
- Forecast horizons
- Environmental considerations
- Schedules
- Deliverables
- Coordination and public involvement program
- Budget
What is essential to a successful Master Plan process?
Public awareness campaign (outreach)
What committees facilitate public involvement (in outreach)?
Technical Advisory Committee
Citizen’s Advisory Committee
What format of public meetings is very effective to engage the public and stakeholders throughout the planning process?
Open House
Planners should recognize the need to ____________ between the manmade and natural environment.
Achieve a balance
What is the part of the MP where all types of pertinent data is collected, including a historical review, airspace structures, navigation aids, airport-related land use, aeronautical activity, and socioeconomic factors?
Existing conditions (Inventory)
_____________ include demography, per capita income, economic activity, geographic factors, political factors, and community values.
Socioeconomic factors
List the 8 typical elements of Existing Conditions (MP).
- airfield/airspace
- commercial passenger terminal facilities
- general aviation facilities
- cargo facilities
- support facilities
- access, circulation, and parking
- utilities
- non-aeronautical facilities
List 7 Forecast Sources (MP).
- terminal area forecast
- historical data
- national aerospace forecasts
- FAA long-range aerospace forecast
- state aviation plans
- Official Airline Guide (OAG)
- Form 5010
A ____________ is defined as a takeoff or a landing at an airport, includes “touch and go” .
Aircraft operation
_____________ are arrivals and departures of aircraft that operate in local traffic pattern (flight training) or within sight of tower.
Local operations
A forecast of ____________ is needed for planning or upgrading navigational aids and landing systems.
Annual Instrument Approaches
___________ are arrivals and departures other than the local operations (for air carriers, commuters, air taxi, GA).
Itinerant operations
_____________ are the total number of paying passengers who are departing on commercial aircraft.
Enplaned passengers
_____________ includes total tonnage of priority, non-priority, foreign mail, express, and freight departing on aircraft, to include originations, stopovers, and transfer.
Enplaned air cargo
___________ refers to the categories of aircraft.
Aircraft mix
List the 5 Factors affecting Demand Forecasts.
- Economic Characteristics
- Demographic Characteristics
- Geographical Attributes
- Aviation Related Factors
- Other Factors
Fuel price fluctuations, changes in regulatory environment, types of taxes, fees, industry trends, and new marketing agreements are examples of ___________.
Aviation Related Factors
A region’s physical and climatic qualities that generate tourism or when an airlines intends to establish a hub or new destinations, are examples of __________.
Geographical Attributes
Manufacturing, service industries, primary and resource businesses, instructional flying, and aircraft sales in a community are examples of __________.
Economic Characteristics
Actions local airport authorities make, types of ground access services, user charges, and plans for future development are examples of __________.
Other Factors
List the 4 most common Forecast Techniques.
- Regression analysis
- Trend analysis and extrapolation
- Market share analysis
- Smoothing
What is a technique that assumes a top-down relationship among national, regional, state, and local forecasts (local is share of national forecasts)?
Market Share Analysis
What is a statistical technique applied to historical data focused more on recent trends and conditions?
Smoothing
What is a statistical technique tying aviation demand to enplanements, population, and income levels?
Regression Analysis
A facility requirements analysis is also known as a _____________.
Gap analysis
The following (6) are examples of _____________?
- Airfield and airspace,
- Commercial Service Terminal
- General Aviation Requirements
- Air Cargo Requirements
- Support Facilities
- Ground Access, Circulation, and Parking
Facility Requirements
What helps planners prepare for meetings with TSA representatives and develop security facilities?
Transportation Security Regulations (TSRs)
_____________must also be taken into consideration in terminal space planning; often based on peak hr of avg day of peak month.
Design hour demand
The implementation plan suggests projects to include in the future Capital Improvement Plan, also referred to as ____________ .
Transportation Improvement Plan (TIP)
The _____________explains how to implement findings and recommendations of master planning effort, often fused with financial feasibility analysis.
Facilities Implementation Plan
Sponsor-specific project approvals, environmental processing activities, land acquisition, airline approvals, agency coordination are key activities listed in the ____________ .
Facilities Implementation Plan
____________ includes a CIP funding plan, a review of the airport’s financial structure, and analysis of historical cash flow.
Financial Feasibility Analysis
The selected Aircraft Approach Category (AAC), Airplane Design Group (ADG), and approach visibility minimums are combined to form the ____________ .
Runway Design Code (RDC)
The ____________ relates to the undercarriage dimensions of the aircraft, width and fillet standards, and runway/taxiway separation.
Taxiway Design Group (TDG)
As aircraft negotiates through turns on taxiways that are designed for cockpit over centerline taxiing, the main gear requires additional pavement in the form of fillets to maintain ____________.
Taxiway Edge Safety Margin (TESM)
The ____________ for purposes of airport geometric design is a composite aircraft representing a collection of aircraft by 3 parameters: AAC, ADG, and TDG.
Design Aircraft
The ____________ for purposes of airport geometric design is a composite aircraft representing a collection of aircraft by 3 parameters: Aircraft Approach Category (AAC), Airplane Design Group (ADG), and Taxiway Design Group (TDG).
Design Aircraft
____________ is where aircraft takeoff, land, taxi, park, receive service (i.e. fuel and maintenance), and essentially conduct flight-related operations.
Airside
The design aircraft is typically the largest air carrier aircraft or the largest ____________ aircraft using airport more than 500 times annually.
Transient
What airfield areas include runways, taxiways, and other areas used for taxiing, takeoff, and aircraft landing?
Movement Areas
What airfield areas include loading ramps, parking aprons, unpaved areas, or other areas precluded from air carrier aircraft using?
Non-movement Areas
Airports with a ____________ must delineate which are Movement and Non-movement areas.
Air Traffic Control Towers
The Movement Area corresponds to areas under control of ATCT and other areas as specified through _____________or _____________.
Letters of Agreement (LOA)
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
What defines the standards and conditions of the Movement Area for air carrier aircraft?
Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
The term __________ is a security term that includes all portions of airport designed and used for aircraft landing, taking off, and surface maneuvering.
Air Operations Areas (AOA)
List the 3 basic types of aircraft approach runways.
- visual
- non-precision
- precision
Substantial use (for design aircraft) means ____________ or largest scheduled commercial services aircraft.
> = 500 annual itinerant operations
What signifies the design standards to which the runway is to be built?
Runway Design Code (RDC)
What is the first component,related to the speed of design aircraft?
Aircraft approach category (AAC)
What is the second component, that relates to either aircraft wingspan or tail height?
Airplane Design Group (ADG)
What is the third component that relates to visibility minimums?
RVR values
The ____________ is a designation that signifies the airport’s highest Runway Design Code minus the visibility component.
Airport Reference Code (ARC)
List the 4 basic Runway Configurations.
- single
- open-V
- parallel
- intersecting
What is a disadvantage of open-V runways?
Operations reduced when takeoffs and landings made toward closer ends
______________ is the best runway configuration for strong prevailing winds that change over the year and provides relatively large capacity.
Intersecting
A ____________ is the beginning portion that is available for landing or takeoff.
Runway Threshold
A ____________ is located some distance down the runway, required (1) an object obstructs airspace for landing aircraft (2) environmental considerations (3) to provide RSA or ROFZ lengths.
Displaced Threshold
A ____________ is a defined area comprising either a runway or a taxiway and the surrounding surfaces, areas that are prepared for reducing the risk of damage to airplanes in the event of an unintentional departure from runway; “landing strip” used in definition.
Runway Safety Area (RSA)
What is the total width (range) of Runway Safety Areas?
120 to 500 feet
What is the total width (range) of Taxiway safety areas?
49 to 262 feet
Consisting of a soft ground arrester system, ____________ is used to reduce the severity of airport accidents and incidents by improving overrun areas.
Engineered Material Arresting System (EMAS)
The ___________ is a trapezoidal-shaped area located off the runway ends, designed to enhance the protection of people and property on the ground.
Runway Protection Zone (RPZ)
The ___________ is a ground area based on runway, taxiway, or taxilane centerline that enhances safety of aircraft.
Object-Free Area (OFA)
The ___________ is the airspace above the runway elevation at any point, but below the 150-foot floor of the horizontal surface area under Part 77.
Obstacle-Free Zone (OFZ)
The ___________ is shown on the ALP and identifies suitable building area locations on airports; assumed building height usually 35-ft.
Building Restriction Line (BRL)
__________ refer to the distances the airport declares available for a turbine-powered aircraft’s takeoff run, takeoff distance, accelerate-stop distance, and landing distance.
Declared Distances
Take-Off Run Available (TORA), Take-Off Distance Available (TODA), Accelerate-stop Distance Available (ASDA), Landing Distance Available (LDA) are ____________.
Declared Distances
To increase safety using intersecting runways when buildings block visibility of aircraft on other runways, the FAA requires ____________.
Runway Visibility Zones (RVZ)
The airport ____________is the highest point on an airport’s usable runway (in feet AMSL).
Elevation
The ____________ is the latitude and longitude of the geometric center of the airport’s runways.
Airport Reference Point (ARP)
____________ differ based on designation.
Maximum takeoff weights
A large airplane is certificated for maximum takeoff weights of ____________ pounds.
More than 12,500
A ____________ is the area beyond the departure end of the runway used to support and minimize damage to an airplane in an overrun.
Stopway
A ____________ is a rectangular area off the departure end of a runway used in calculating aircraft takeoff performance.
Clearway
Several factors including aircraft width, undercarriage dimensions, main gear width, and taxilane/taxiway separations, comprise the ____________ .
Taxiway Design Group (TDG)
A ___________ is a portion of a ramp used for access between taxiways and aircraft parking positions; not typically part of Movement Area.
Taxilane
___________ is the required distance between a taxiway/taxilane centerline and objects, determined by ADG wingtip clearance.
Taxiway separations
List 3 types of Aprons.
- Terminal (pax and cargo)
- Remote
- Hangar
What type of apron do passengers board and deplane from an aircraft, and aircraft servicing activities?
Passenger terminal aprons
Remote aprons are located in an area where aircraft can be secured and stored for long periods of time; accommodate __________ airline or corporate traffic.
Remain-Over-Night (RON)
___________ is the surface in front of an aircraft hangar that accommodates aircraft movement.
Hangar aprons
Parked aircraft must remain clear of the _________ of runways/taxiways, and no parked aircraft should penetrate protected surfaces.
OFAs
The __________ is the amount of time an airplane occupies the gate; typically a gate is used 50-80% of the time.
Gate occupancy time
__________ are visual aids located on the side of a terminal building, to be viewed from the pilot’s perspective as they approach the parking location.
Stand guidance systems
A ___________ accommodates helicopters used by individuals, corporations, and helicopter air taxi services.
GA heliport
A __________ is intended to accommodate air carrier operators providing scheduled service or unscheduled service with large helicopters
Transport heliport
A __________ is limited to serving helicopters engaged in air ambulance, or other hospital related functions.
Hospital heliport
What reflects the max weight, max contact load/min contact area, overall length, rotor diameter, and other factors of expected helicopters?
Design Helicopter
What is a load bearing, paved area, on which the helicopter lands or takes off?
Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF)
What is a defined area over which final phase of approach to a hover or landing is completed and takeoff is initiated?
Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO)
A __________ is an area of water that is used, or is intended to be used, for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, with buildings and facilities on shore.
Seaplane Base
What are conventional land airplanes fitted with separate floats in place of wheels?
Seaplanes
For a ____________, the bottom of the fuselage is its main landing gear, usually have smaller wing/tip floats.
Flying boat
____________ are flying boats and floatplanes equipped with retractable wheels for landing on dry land.
Amphibians
A ____________ is the defined path, which is prescribed for the landing and takeoff run of aircraft in bodies of water.
Sea-lane
The __________ is charged with marking and lighting navigable waterways.
U.S. Coast Guard
What does FAA require for seaplane base development financed with federal funds?
Seaplane Base Layout Plan (SBLP)
What facility is designed for UAVs, with no defined design standards, but expected to have runways, hangars with office buildings, and command and control center?
Drone airport
What addresses the development of criteria for parachute landing areas on airpors?
AC 150/5300-13A Change 1 Airport Design
The first phase of a construction project, __________, is used to discuss critical design parameters, safety, construction phasing, and environmental considerations.
Predesign Conference
For large projects, projects with unique features, or to meet local procurement requirements the next step after Predesign is _____________; will explain contract requirements and procurement process.
Pre-bid Conference
The _____________ is conducted by Sponsor or authorized agent, to discuss critical project issues such as contract requirements, operational safety, phasing, airport security, labor req, and other pertinent matters.
Preconstruction Conference
What is a written order by Sponsor to make a change in the design, drawings, or specs within general scope of contract?
Change orders
A _____________ covers work that is not within the general scope of the existing contract or is work that exceeds the 25% of contract cost.
Supplemental agreement
Who has the ultimate responsibility for operational safety during construction (and implementing construction safety plan)?
Airport operator
What plans depict the final construction projects?
“As constructed” or “as-built”
What FAA form is required to be filed when an approved construction or alteration is completed?
7460-2 Notice of Actual Construction or Alteration
_____________ Safe, Efficient Use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace provides regulations on managing objects that may interfere with aircraft flying in airport area.
FAA Part 77
Under P77, an _____________ is defined as any natural growth, terrain, permanent or temporary construction or alteration (equipment or materials), and apparatus of permanent/temporary character.
Object
The ____________ area is centered on the runway centerline and extends 200-ft past the runway end.
Primary surface
The ____________ extend outward and upward at right angles to runway centerline and runway centerline extended at a slope of 7:1 from the sides of the primary surface and approach surfaces.
Transitional surfaces
The ____________ start 200-ft from runway end and extend outward from the primary surface for a distance of up to 50,000-ft in the case of precision instrument runways.
Approach surfaces
The ____________ area of P77 is a level plane 150-ft above runway elevation; for the safe operation and maneuvering of aircraft that are performing circle-to-land or missed approaches.
Horizontal surface
The ____________ starts at the perimeter of horizontal surface and continues upward at slope of 20:1 for a horizontal distance of 4,000-ft.
Conical surfaces
What does the FAA conduct after receiving notice of proposed construction, in order to analyze effect on airport access and aircraft operation?
Part 77 study
What do airport operators have to submit to FAA for proposed construction or alteration (Part 77 requirement)?
Form 7460-1
The ____________ begins and ends with intermodal connections to community that surround airport; includes parking, curb frontage, public transit, pedestrian walkways.
Access interface
