Module 3 - Airport Operations, Security and Maintenance Flashcards
1
Q
The _____________ establishes responsibility, authority, and procedures for Part 139 compliance, and once approved, results in issuance of AOC.
A
Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
2
Q
What is the phrase to describe each person must be aware of the consequences of his or her decisions, including safe and risky behaviors?
A
“Safety is everybody’s business”
3
Q
Investigations conducted by ____________show that an accident is seldom due to any single event, but rather a series of events “chain of events”.
A
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
4
Q
____________involves identifying hazards and either eliminating them specifically or eliminating chain of events leading to the hazard.
A
Accident prevention
5
Q
Safety oversight is best provided through organization-wide ____________, helps to manage safety risk through systematic procedures, practices, and policies.
A
Safety Management System (SMS)
6
Q
Communicating management’s commitment to safety and the assurance that safety is constantly monitored and evaluated is ____________.
A
Safety policy
7
Q
____________ are techniques in risk identification, assessment, mitigation, and tracking for enhancing or increasing an airport’s safety record.
A
Safety risk management
8
Q
Internal and external audits and corrective actions providing feedback on implemented risk mitigation strategies is ____________.
A
Safety assurance
9
Q
Creating a “safety culture” that allows the SMS to succeed is ____________.
A
Safety promotion
10
Q
____________is the designated individual responsible for the implementation and oversight of the SMS processes.
A
Accountable Executive (AE)
11
Q
____________is issued to a commercial service airport (enplaning >= 2,500 pax) when it has passed FAA safety inspection.
A
Airport Operating Certificate (AOC)
12
Q
Identify the airport certificate: all types of scheduled operations of air carrier aircraft.
A
Class I
13
Q
Identify the airport certificate: small air carrier, unscheduled operations of large air carrier aircraft.
A
Class II
14
Q
Identify the airport certificate: scheduled small air carrier aircraft.
A
Class III
15
Q
Identify the airport certificate: only unscheduled large air carrier aircraft
A
Class IV
16
Q
___________ occur when an airport must violate a component of P139 due to emergency conditions. Under P139, the airport operator must inform the FAA within ___________ of the occurrence.
A
Deviations
14 days
17
Q
What addresses certification and operations of airports serving air carriers?
A
CFR Part 139
18
Q
The safety oversight function of the FAA is specified in Part 139 and the ____________.
A
Airport Certification Manual (ACM).
19
Q
According to the FAA, ___________ exist if all the requirements in the ACM are properly performed, as required by P139.
A
“Sufficiently qualified personnel”
20
Q
The operator should issue a ____________to report deficient conditions that could have an immediate and critical impact on the safety of aircraft operations.
A
Notice to Airmen (NOTAM)
21
Q
Airports certificated under P139 must retain regularly scheduled inspection checklist for ____________.
A
12 consecutive calendar months (CCM).
22
Q
Training records are to be maintained for ____________ and inspection, condition, incident, and accident records for ____________ under Part 139.
A
24 consecutive calendar mo
12 consecutive calendar mo
23
Q
List 2 categories and 2 types of Pavement.
A
- Flexible 2. Rigid
1. Asphalt 2. Concrete
24
Q
____________is a rigid pavement with higher cost, that can withstand higher aircraft loads and resist weathering and oil/fuel/spillage.
A
Concrete
25
____________can be laid without expansion joints and is generally less expensive and faster than concrete to install, but higher maintenance.
Asphalt
26
The longevity of pavement is highly dependent on an airport pavement management system that focuses on ____________.
Preventative maintenance
27
All paved areas that are the responsibility of the operator must have ____________ before the beginning of commercial flight operations, and at night.
Daily Inspection
28
_____________ is considered an industry standard for qualifying airfield pavements; standards contained in ASTM D 5340.
Pavement Condition Index (PCI)
29
_____________ provide methods of establishing an effective pavement repair system by creating systematic procedures for scheduling maintenance and rehabilitation; uses PCI ratings.
Pavement Management Programs (PMP)
30
List the 2 causes of Pavement Deterioration.
1. Environmental (weather and aging)
| 2. Structural (air traffic loads)
31
Identify the type of pavement deterioration:
- Cracking (longitudinal, transverse, alligator)
- Disintegration (raveling, potholes, etc.)
- Distortion (ruts, depressions, swelling)
Asphalt-related
32
Identify the type of pavement deterioration:
- Cracking (longitudinal, transverse, shrinkage, shattered slab)
- Disintegration (Alkali-Silica Reaction)
- Distortion (pumping, settlement, shoving)
Concrete-related
33
Alkali levels are extraordinarily high, resulting in a circumstance known as an ____________, which causes “map cracking” or “Isle of Man cracking" of concrete.
Alkali-Silica Reaction (ASR)
34
____________ provides a standardized airplane/pavement rating system (max pavement bearing strength).
ACN-PCN (Aircraft Classification Number / Pavement Classification Number)
35
____________devices provide a continuous, graphic record of the pavement surface friction (friction averages for each 1/3 portion of a runway length).
Continuous Friction Measuring Equipment (CFME)
36
____________are either mechanical or electrical and are used to assess friction properties of runways.
Decelerometers
37
Based on the Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment (TALPA) working group, the ____________ is a more comprehensive and standardized method of assessing and reporting surface conditions.
Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM)
38
Based on the Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM), ____________ is numerical assessment of runway condition determined by the operator.
Runway Condition Codes (RwyCC)
39
____________must be promptly removed from the surface to prevent accidents.
Foreign Object Debris (FOD)
40
Safety area inspection is considered a ___________inspection item.
Regular
41
List 6 items for Safety Area Inspection.
1. storm sewer system
2. before reopening
3. aircraft has left the pavement
4. for construction and maintenance activities
5. engineering materials arresting system (EMAS)
6. driving or walking the safety areas
42
List the 3 types of Runway Lighting.
1. High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL) - 3 to 7 steps
2. Medium Intensity Runway Lights (MIRL) - 3 to 7 steps
3. Low Intensity Runway Lights (LIRL) - 1 step
43
Many airports that are not staffed 24-hr install __________ , providing pilot safety and reducing airport's op and maint costs.
Pilot-controlled lighting
44
Runway edge lights are __________ ; on instrument runways, yellow edge lights replace the __________ ones in the direction of landing for last 2,000-ft or 1/2 of runway length
White
45
Runway centerline lights are __________ in direction of landing; on a precision instrument runway, the lights change to alternating red and white beginning at the last 3,000-ft of runway for a 2,000-feet distance, at 1,000-ft remaining, centerline lights switch to all red.
White
46
Taxiway lead-on and lead-off lights are in-pavement lights that alternative __________ and __________ , lead from runway centerline onto taxiway.
Yellow
| Green
47
Taxiway edge lights have __________ lenses.
Solid Blue
48
__________ , are of colored split lens type, indicating ends of the runway.
Threshold lights
49
____________and ____________is a system of guidance, control, and regulation of all aircraft, ground vehicles, and personnel on the movement areas to prevent collisions and ensure smooth traffic flow during low visibility.
Runway Visual Range (RVR)
| Surface Movement Guidance and Control Systems (SMGCS)
50
What helps to identify the airport location and area to a pilot?
Rotating beacon
51
Any changes to the lighting systems of a public-use airport, including pilot-controlled lighting, require revision in ____________.
Airport Facilities/Directory (A/FD)
52
List the 5 components of Approach Lighting Systems (ALS).
1. sequence flashing lights
2. approach lights
3. crossbar lights
4. runway end identifier (REIL)
5. visual approach slope indicator (VASI) or precision approach path indicator (PAPI)
53
____________is a series of 5 lights that extend past the 1,000-foot mark of the approach lights; referred to as “the rabbit”.
Sequencing Flashing (SF)
54
The ____________is a series of lights positioned perpendicularly to both sides of the primary approach lights; aids with leveling aircraft's wing and distance to runway information.
Crossbar
55
Red ____________ mark an undershoot zone in which approaching aircraft should not land.
Approach lights
56
Further maintenance and cost reductions are achieved through installation of a ____________, which is 1,400-ft in length with sequence flashing.
Medium Intensity Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights (MALSF)
57
____________indicators assist pilots with approach and provide vertical height information on both visual and instrument runways; prevent an overshoot or undershoot.
Visual glideslope
58
What do the lights of the visual glideslope indicate (4-bar system)?
White/white - too high
Red/white - on glidepath
Red/red - too low
59
A less costly and more simplified lighting system than the VASI, the ____________has either 2 or 4 lights with split lenses.
Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
60
A type of approach guidance system, often used for helicopters is ____________(not acceptable for air carrier operations).
Pulsed-Light Visual Approach Slope Indicator (PVASI or PLASI)
61
The ____________emits a steady light from a single source; red when approach is below glideslope and green when on correct angle.
Tri-color visual approach slope indicator (TRCV)
62
A simple visual approach slope indicator of three panels, typically at GA airports, are ____________.
Approach Path Alignment Panels (APAP)
63
____________ use synchronized flashing at both corners of runway threshold; VFR approaches.
Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)
64
____________ are sequential flashing approach lights are installed off the approach end of runway visible from any direction; non-precision approach.
Omni Directional Approach Lights (ODAL)
65
If ODALs are located away from runway to help define a VFR path, they are ____________ and overcome problems with terrain, obstructions, or noise.
Lead-In lights (LDIN)
66
____________ have white inscriptions on a red background and require individual to obtain clearance before proceeding.
Mandatory signs
67
____________ signs identify the taxiway or runway upon which the aircraft or vehicle is; yellow inscriptions on a black background (or vice versa for RSA, OFZ, ILS).
Location
68
____________ provide location and orientation of other taxiways; contain an arrow; black inscriptions on a yellow background.
Directional signs
69
____________ are similar to direction signs except that they point toward a general location; FUEL, MIL, TERM, etc.
Destination signs
70
____________ such as noise abatement procedures are black inscriptions on a yellow background; runway distance remaining (black w/ white numbers).
Special informational signs
71
A ____________ will include threshold and aiming point markers.
Non-precision instrument runway.
72
What type of runway includes threshold and aiming point markers, plus touchdown zone stripes and runway side stripes?
Precision instrument
73
____________ in the paint as well as black outlines are required to be used for certain airfield markings.
Glass beads
74
____________ are required on runways with visual approaches that are 4,200-ft or longer, serving approach categories C and D airplanes.
Aiming points
75
____________ used for landing operations are spaced at 500-ft intervals and provide distance according to the number of rectangular bars.
Touchdown zone markings
76
____________ are a number of longitudinal lines (usually eight, but as many as 16, depending on runway width) that identify the beginning of a runway.
Runway threshold bars
77
____________ is necessary when siting a threshold other than at runway end; can be for obstacle clearance, obstruction in the runway approach, noise abatement, or construction; 10-ft wide white bar.
Displaced threshold
78
____________ distinguishes a displaced threshold from a stopway, blast pad, or taxiway that precedes the runway; yellow bar and chevrons.
Demarcation bar
79
_____________ are used on both runways and taxiways to provide a visual contrast between the usable and adjacent unusable pavement surface.
Shoulder stripe markings
80
Two parallel continuous yellow lines on taxiways edges are _____________; dashed marking where need to cross over (along terminal apron edge).
Taxiway Edge Lines
81
The stop-bar, or ____________, are 4 yellow parallel lines, which requires ATCT authorization to cross.
Runway hold-position marking
82
Airports with VOR facilities have ____________, allowing pilots to calibrate receivers on the ground; Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is listed.
VOR ground checkpoint markings
83
At airports with authorized ___________ for 2 intersecting runways, or where the runway is used as a taxiway to another runway, a yellow double solid and double dash hold-position marking extends across the runway to identify the hold-short position.
Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)
84
Part 139 airports can enhance airport safety by inspecting ____(3 items) ____.
Markings, Signs, Lighting
85
____________ are intended to reduce the risk of an aircraft and vehicle accident on the AMA; driving lanes are similar to those on highways;
Vehicle roadway markings
86
One component of a ___________ is painted taxiway markings that complement the lighted guidance and informational signs; requires elevated or in-pavement runway guard lights, lead-on lights, taxiway and clearance bar lights, gate-designator and geographic hold-position markings.
Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)
87
The __________ is used to help calibrate the aircraft magnetic compass, located in large area to allow for aligning to magnetic headings.
Compass rose
88
___________ is designed to visually assist pilots in determining the airport traffic pattern while in flight; Series of highly visible, white or yellow markers arranged in a circle around a surface wind indicator.
Segmented circle marking
89
List 4 elements of a Safety Management System.
1. safety policy
2. safety risk management
3. safety assurance
4. safety promotion
90
___________ typically identify unusual operational characteristics such as when air carrier operations are limited to specific runways or load bearing weight.
Limitations
91
___________ provide relief to an airport operator for a particular requirement of P139; request for an ___________ to P139 becomes a rule-making action and necessitates FAA review.
Exemption
92
If some element of P139 is not met, or an unsafe condition exists, ____________, states air carrier activity must be halted for that area.
Noncomplying Conditions
93
A ______________ program enables an airport operator to conduct uninterrupted day-to-day operations in compliance with P139.
Self-inspection
94
List 4 components of Self-Inspection program.
1. regularly scheduled inspection
2. continuous surveillance inspection
3. periodic condition inspection
4. special inspection
95
Daily inspection when aircraft activity is minimal and at least one inspection before beginning of air carrier flights is ____________.
Regularly scheduled inspection
96
Certain activities such as fueling, construction, pedestrian and ground vehicles, snow and ice, and foreign object debris should have ____________.
Continuous surveillance inspection
97
Surveying pavement, checking approach slopes and surrounding areas for obstructions, faded signs, lighting, or markings, and response times for ARFF, should have ____________.
Periodic condition inspection
98
After a complaint, when an unusual condition or event, such as a significant meteorological event or incident/accident occurs, and at end of
construction, ____________ should be conducted.
Special inspection
99
What is the greatest cause of pavement deterioration, and as a result, loss of federal investment?
Lack of preventative maintenance
100
Within the segmented circle is a ___________, can be a windsock, a combination of both, or a wind tee.
Wind Indicator
101
For those airports open for ___________ during hours of darkness, all wind direction indicators require lighting.
Air carrier operations
102
List 4 NAVAIDs that should be Inspected.
1. Runway End Lights
2. Visual Glide Slope Indicators
3. Approach Lighting systems
4. Any NAVAID damaged/malfunctioning/inoperable/missing
103
To mitigate the effect of _________ on personnel, including vehicular traffic, blast fences are used.
Jet blast
104
The ___________ system disseminates information on unanticipated or temporary changes to components of, or hazards, in the NAS, until aeronautical charts and publications can be amended.
Notice to Airmen (NOTAM).
105
Who has overall management responsibility for the NOTAM system?
National Flight Data Center (NFDC) in DC
106
Identify the type of NOTAM:
| - part of civil system, which includes any NOTAM that is not part of military system.
Civil
107
Identify the type of NOTAM:
- regulatory in nature
- IFR charts, procedures, airspace usage
- Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) for particular event (presidential visit, September 11, etc.)
- distributed by the NFDC
FDC
108
Identify the type of NOTAM:
| - pertains to US Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational aids
Military
109
Identify the type of NOTAM:
- for condition not limited to 1 airport
- Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
- TFRs, airway changes, laser light
Center Area
110
Identify the type of NOTAM:
- issued locally and/or beyond responsibility of FSS
- (U) and (O) NOTAMs
- Field Condition NOTAM
- ARFF restrictions or limitations
NOTAM (D)
111
Issued by the airport operator, ___________ are used specifically to report on airfield conditions, such as snow depth and snow banks.
FICON NOTAM
112
Most airports issue Notices to Airman using software called called the NOTAM Manager, which provides a tie in to the ____________.
FAA’s digital NOTAM system
113
Airports are required to expeditiously remove snow, ice, and slush, so as to maintain runways, high-speed turnoffs, and taxiways in a __________ condition.
“no worse than wet”
114
List 2 phases for the Snow and Ice Control Plan (SICP).
1. pre- and post-winter subjects to prepare for new winter season
2. instruction and procedures when dealing with winter storms and notifying users in a timely manner when less than satisfactory conditions exist.
115
Primary runway with taxiway turnoffs, NAVAIDs, access taxiways to terminal, terminal/cargo ramps are the ____________ for Airfield Cleaning in Snow and Ice Control Plan (SICP).
First Priority
116
___________ includes mechanical and chemical (material spreaders) methods for removing or controlling snow and ice accumulations.
Snow Removal Equipment (SRE)
117
___________ consist of a cutting edge that shears snow from pavement, and moldboard that lifts and casts the dislodged snow to side of cleared path.
Displacement plows
118
___________ are used to haul snow from one location to another.
Carrier vehicles
119
___________ is the primary mechanical device for removal of hazardous snow accumulations; if too heavy to be displaced.
Rotary snow plow (blower)
120
___________ have the capability of melting upwards of 75 cubic yards, or 56 tons, of snow per hour.
Snow melters
121
___________ are used primarily to clean up the residue left on the pavement surface by a plow or blower, or for cleaning debris from AOA.
Snow sweepers / brooms
122
___________ provide a continuous, accurately-metered flow of granular or liquid to a pavement surface over a predetermined area.
Material spreaders
123
___________ plow snow with a front-end blade, broom residue with a center-mounted broom, and then air blast the residue and apply sand or de-icing, cutting down snow removal times by up to 50%.
Multi-function trucks / multi-function equipment
124
___________requirements are focused on responding to emergencies on or involving aircraft, not the airport itself.
ARFF
125
The ARFF __________ a measure of the airport’s firefighting capability based on critical aircraft length and frequency of service.
Index
126
The ___________ of ARFF crew is to evacuate and/or rescue aircraft passengers and crew members.
Primary responsibility
127
The ___________ of ARFF is to extinguish or neutralize the fire and potential explosion.
Secondary responsibility
128
If ARFF requirements can't be met due to repair or breakdown or personnel, then a ___________ is required.
NOTAM
129
First responding ARFF equipment must reach the mid-point of the furthest runway within ________, and all other equipment within ________.
3 min
| 4 min
130
ARFF drills or exercises should follow guidance in the ___________, a national standard for exercises maintained by FEMA.
Homeland Security Exercises and Evaluation Program (HSEEP)
131
Hazardous material shipped as aircraft cargo is ___________.
HAZMAT
132
The FAA cites ____________ guidelines for fueling safety standards.
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
133
Once a fire has started, the resulting __________ sustains the fire and allows it to continue until some, or at least one of the elements of the fire, is blocked.
Chemical chain reaction
134
____________ has more explosive potential than Jet A because of its rapid flame spread rate.
Avgas
135
Identifying and preventing __________ is where the FAA’s major efforts are made to reduce or eliminate fire or explosion risk.
Ignition sources
136
___________ materials have a flashpoint above 100F and ___________materials have a flashpoint below 100F and/or vapor pressure less than 40psi.
Combustible
| Flammable
137
____________ is an unauthorized or unapproved movement within the designated movement area or an occurrence in that same area associated with aircraft operation.
Surface Incident
138
____________ is an occurrence at an airport with a control tower, involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated on runways or safety areas; Significantly impact safe operations.
Runway Incursions
139
Serious Incident in which collision was narrowly avoided describes a __________ Runway incursion.
Category A
140
Separation decreases and significant potential for collision describes a __________ Runway incursion.
Category B
141
Ample time and/or distance to avoid describes a __________ Runway incursion.
Category C
142
Incorrect presence of a single vehicle/person/aircraft on the protected area describes a __________ Runway incursion.
Category D
143
Operational Errors occur when the action ___________ results in less than required min separation between 2 or more aircraft, or between an aircraft and obstacles
ATC
144
____________ involve the action of a pilot that violates any Federal Aviation Regulation.
Pilot Deviations
145
____________ occur when pedestrians or vehicles enter movement areas (runways/taxiways) without ATC authorization.
Vehicle/Pedestrian Deviations (V/PD)
146
FAA requires that individuals who routinely operate in the Movement Area (ops, maint, police, and fire) receive ____________ .
Annual driver training
147
At non-towered airports or when tower is closed, individuals should ____________ for aircraft broadcasting on UNICOM or the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency before entering runway/taxiway.
STOP, LOOK, LISTEN
148
What caused the US Airways Flight 1549 to land on the Hudson River?
Bird strike
149
Upon completion of the ____________ (identifying hazards and recommendations for reducing hazards), the document must be submitted to the FAA Administrator for approval; the administrator will then determine the need for a ____________.
Wildlife Hazard Assessment (WHA)
| Wildlife Hazard Management Plan (WHMP).
150
____________ or ____________ is a planned activity, begins with habitat identification, alternatives for modification or elimination of the habitat, and then the incorporation of changes into long-term, land-use.
Habitat management or modification
151
____________ includes scaring, dispersing, trapping, and controlling through lethal methods the animals causing problems.
Active control
152
Can AIP funds be used for wildlife control?
Yes - grant assurances involved
153
Who has expertise in management of wildlife and provides advice for dealing with wildlife and control?
USDA
154
Construction sites represent an obstruction to aircraft operations, with stockpiled materials, an increase in ___________, trenches.
Foreign Object Debris (FOD)
155
Identify the type of inspection under Construction Safety Plan:
- stockpiled materials and construction materials
- adjacent to movement areas
- construction equipment
- construction barricades
- debris and foreign objects
- open trenches
- operation of lighting
- NOTAMs
- Properly marked and lit closed twy/rwy
- Report and monitor any dangerous condition
Daily
156
Identify the type of inspection under Construction Safety Plan:
- Unauthorized use of rwy, twy, and aprons
- Conditions that may result in rwy incursions
- Equipment in ILS critical areas w/o FAA coordination
- Perimeter gates
- Not properly marked
- Foreign object debris (FOD)
- Confusing or missing signs, marking or lighting
- Inoperative
Continuous
157
The recognized certification for airport emergency management is ____________.
Certified Emergency Manager (CEM)
158
National Incident Management System (NIMS) is integrated with ___________ for emergency operations.
Incident Command System (ICS)
159
____________ is designed to minimize personal injury and property damage on the airport in case of an emergency (separate document from ACM).
Airport Emergency Plan (AEP)
160
Relationships between on-airport emergency services and all other mutual aid entities should be defined in ____________ and ____________.
Memorandums of Understanding (MOUs) Memorandums of Agreement (MOAs)
161
There may be a regulatory requirement through the Stafford Act to develop an emergency plan for a ___________ airport.
GA
162
A _____________ must be conducted to identify other emergencies that should be addressed in the Airport Emergency Plan.
Hazard/Risk Analysis
163
What section of the AEP provides an overview of emergency response organization and its policies, including legal authority, summary of incidents, and responsibilities for emergency planning and operations?
Basic Plan
164
What section of the AEP are plans organized around the performance of broad tasks or wide-scale operations?
Functional Annexes
165
What section of an AEP provide additional and detailed information applicable to the performance of a function in support of a hazard? (Standalone)
Hazard-Specific Sections
166
___________ and ___________ provide detailed instructions needed to fulfill responsibilities and perform tasks assigned in the AEP?
Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
| Checklists
167
____________ provides a set of standardized organizational structures, such as the Incident Command System (ICS), multiagency coordination systems, and joint public information systems.
National Incident Management System (NIMS)
168
List the 5 functions of Incident Command System (ICS).
1. Command
2. Operations
3. Planning
4. Logistics
5. Finance and administration
169
____________ in the ICS determines who will assume authority and accept responsibility at scene of incident.
Command
170
____________ is another accepted structure in ICS, where representatives work together to develop common goals and policies.
Unified command
171
____________ means that a procedure has been established that coordinates activities so that the emergency is effectively resolved.
Control
172
____________ acts as the “central nervous system” of the overall response - transmitting and receiving information w/o delay and confusion.
Communication
173
Changing the term Incident Command to __________ can reduce conflict over who is in charge during an emergency and better distinguish roles.
Incident Coordinator
174
The ____________ handles 3 additional responsibilities at minor incidents: scene safety, liaison, and dissemination of media.
Incident Commander
175
At larger incidents, the Incident Commander typically appoints individuals to carry out responsibilities and a ____________ may be used.
Unified Command.
176
The ___________ function is responsible for tactical emergency response at the incident site.
Operations
177
In incidents of long duration, more than 1 operational cycle, the ___________ element is applicable, and te development of the Incident Action Plan (IAP).
Planning
178
The ___________ element ICS is responsible for facilities, services, personnel, equipment, and material in support of the incident.
Logistics
179
___________ activities are focused on the dispatch and arrival of first responders, initial fire suppression, rescue ops, and dealing with hazardous materials.
Response Phase
180
___________ may require some type of activity specific to gathering and analysis of information and conclusions, determining cause; NTSB responsible.
Investigatory Phase
181
___________ activities are focused on returning the airport to normal operational condition; relationship between AEP and other emergency response plans (local jurisdictions).
Recovery Phase
182
Describe 3 levels of Emergency Response Alerts:
- Alert I
- Alert II
- Alert III
Alert I - Local Standby (aircraft with operational defect but can land safely)
Alert II - Full Emergency (all units respond to aircraft with operational defect that affects flight operations)
Alert III - Aircraft Accident (all units proceed to scene)
183
The __________ exercise is the most comprehensive test and is intended to evaluate the operational capability of the EMS in a stressful environment with actual mobilization and deployment; every 36 months.
Full-scale
184
Authority for removing aircraft wreckage remains solely with NTSB, but exceptions include _________.
Aiding and removing any person
185
The following events are examples of ___________.
- Surge (high level of pax/aircraft)
- Capacity (terminal/gates full)
- After-Hours
- Extended Stay
IROPS-related (irregular operations)
186
To address length tarmac delays, pax aircraft operators are not allowed to sit on the ramp for more than _________ for domestic flights, or _________ for international flights.
3 hrs
| 4 hrs
187
Should airports incorporate detailed contingency plans into Emergency Contingency Plans submitted to DOT?
No - use internal IROPs plans
188
___________ provides support to Incident Command personnel and coordinate other necessary support functions and assist operator to keep airport open.
Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
189
To monitor access to restricted areas, alarm notification during the breach of sterile area, record events through cctv, and respond to incidents, a __________ is encouraged.
Security Operations Center (SOC)
190
List 3 resources for an Airport Communications/Ops Center.
1. Computer aided dispatching (CAD)
2. Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf (TDD)
3. National Crime Information Center (NCIC)
191
___________ receives and processes emergency and nonemergency calls from the public and coordinates dispatching of appropriate providers.
Airport Communications Dispatcher (ACD)
192
___________ is an emergency telecommunication involves 6 basic components (1. telephone interrogation 2. dispatch allocation 3. logistics 4. call prioritization 5. impacting lives, 6. resource networking).
National Academies of Emergency Dispatch
193
Confidential information of dispatch calls is defined under ___________ regulations and ___________, for protected/confidential health information.
Sensitive Security Information
| HIPPA
194
A task force of the Association of Public Safety Communications Officials claimed that dispatchers and call takers need to _____________ in analyzing emergency information and responding to incidents.
Receive Training
195
The __________ is the airport’s main passenger structure, beginning at the curb and extending through checkpoint to concourses and gates.
Terminal
196
__________ is area beginning with passenger pickup and drop-off curb areas and extending to the highway, railway, and intermodal transportation.
Landside
197
__________ programs have been shown to be effective in improving the passenger experience by providing information and assistance to passengers.
Airport ambassador
198
To expedite the processing of ticketing passengers and baggage check-in, airlines are using innovative ___________, reducing airport labor requirements.
Self-ticketing
199
Congestion has been further reduced in ticket counters by placing __________ throughout terminals to present airline and airport information.
Flight Information Displays (FIDS)
200
An airport can host the display information, __________, which integrates all airlines.
Multi-User Flight Information Display Systems (MUFIDS)
201
List and describe 5 customer points to influence Passenger Experience.
1. physical - layout/design of airport
2. subliminal - atmosphere/feel of airport
3. human - interactions with staff
4. procedural - processes encountered including checkpoint, ticketing, lost and found, etc.
5. communicative - websites, brochures, signage
202
____________ include passengers, “meters-and-greeters,” employees who buy goods, food and beverages from airport, and those that do business with airport.
External customers
203
____________ are employees or business departments who receive services from other employees or business departments of same organization.
Internal customers
204
__________ relates to the success of concession operation, with revenue influenced by the distribution within terminal.
Location
205
___________ should be located in close proximity to concession and gate areas, helping with improve operational efficiencies.
Flight Information Display Screens (FIDS)
206
Define a remotely-piloted vehicle (RPV).
When an operator at a remote site actually pilots a “true” RPV
207
Components that are required to operate the UAV, such as a ground control station, payload, a datalink, and the vehicle itself are ____________.
Unmanned aerial system (UAS)
208
____________ may both be piloted and programmed to perform autonomous missions; "drone".
Unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV)
209
____________ UAVs aircraft operated by the U.S. government or another entity authorized to operate on the governments’ behalf.
Public
210
The first FAA exemption was made available to individuals operating ___________; now classified as drones weighing 55 lbs or less and used by hobbyist.
Model Aircraft
211
___________ addresses requirements for small, unmanned aircraft systems in the NAS for civil operators.
Part 107, Operation and Certification of Small UAS
212
Part 107 allows operations of drones of less than 55 pounds without a COA, provided the operator has a _________, which requires the passage of an aeronautical knowledge test and flying regulations.
Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate
213
Public or civil UAVs 55+ lbs must be authorized through a ___________, issued by the FAA, which allows an entity to operate a specific UAV/UAS in a specific area for a specific purpose.
Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA)
214
While it is unlikely UAVs will soon be operating out of busy, commercial service airports, it is likely that they will be operating out of __________.
GA Facilities
215
Airports are expected to have an ___________ for aircraft hijackings and bombings, bomb threats, suspicious items, and vehicle born IEDs (addition to Gerado Hernandez Act)
Effective mitigation, response, and recovery plan
216
ICAO has been involved in guiding aviation security policy through their ___________.
Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs)
217
What law created the TSA and transferred authority for civil aviation security from FAA to TSA?
Aviation Security and Transportation Act of 2001 (ATSA)
218
ATSA created the position of ___________, with service, regulatory, and administrative functions.
Federal Security Director (FSD)
219
List and describe 3 functions of the Federal Security Director.
1. Service - screening of pax and bags
2 Regulatory - compliance inspections and approval of airport security programs, internal investigations
3. Administrative - staffing, budget/finance, HR, engineering, procurement, PR
220
Identify the law that establishes:
- Federal Air Marshals
- Airport credential requirements
- Screening Partnership Program
- TSA screeners
- 100% screening of checked bags
- Trust traveler program
Aviation Security and Transportation Act (ATSA).
221
__________ established a pilot project for replacing TSA personnel with private contractors.
Screening Partnership Program
222
___________ set requirements for aircraft operators using aircraft 12,500+ lbs in commercial carriage (commercial service/GA).
Aircraft Operator Standard Security Program (AOSSP)
223
___________ screen passengers and carry-on and checked baggage, while staffing checkpoints and conducting Travel Document Check and some serve as ___________.
Transportation Security Officers (TSOs)
| Behavior Detection Officers (BDOs)
224
The Trusted Traveler program, was known as Registered Traveler, and now "PreCheck" and "Known Crewmember", two __________ programs.
Risk-based screening (RBS)
225
____________ are the regulatory enforcement personnel for the TSA (audits/inspections).
Transportation Security Inspector (TSIs)
226
____________ are TSA personnel who screen for IEDs, chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threats.
Transportation Security Expert-Explosive (TSSE)
227
TSA’s __________ detects and deters the introduction of explosive devices into the transportation system.
Explosives Detection Canine Program (EDCP)
228
Originally called Aviation Direct Access Screening Program (ADASP), the __________ uses random checks of personnel and random checks in public areas.
“Playbook"
229
___________ is not just the key player in airport security, it's a position required by regulation (Part 1542); ensures compliance with federal regulation and serves as liaison.
Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)
230
Airport Security Coordinator seeks TSA approval for the __________ and is responsible for enforcement.
Airport Security Program (ASP)
231
What regulation requires the ASC to have completed subject matter Training, in order to serve as ASC?
1542.3(c)
232
_________ are members of airport’s badging (credentialing) offices who process personally identifiable information.
Trusted Agent
233
List 5 qualifications for Airport Police.
1. arrest authority
2. identifiable
3. firearm
4. completed a training program
5. trained
234
One of the most common airport crimes is __________ of cars, checked baggage or unattended personal belongings.
Theft
235
___________ are unarmed security guards, used to provide perimeter security, staff vehicle entry gates, and patrol the airfield.
Security officers
236
Many security officer supervisors and managers are accredited through ___________.
Certified Protection Professional (CPP)
237
____________ personnel are frequently charged with duties and responsibilities to maintain the AOC under Part 139.
Airport Operations
238
Airlines must designate one __________ for their airline, to be primary point of contact for TSA in all security issues and AOSSP.
Aircraft Operator Security Coordinator (AOSC)
239
____________ are airline employees who manage security functions for each passenger and cargo flight.
Ground Security Coordinators (GSCs)
240
The ___________ is the airline or aircraft operator’s pilot-in-command of the aircraft and has final authority for security of the flight.
In-Flight Security Coordinator (IFSC)
241
FBI Special Agent, known as ___________, is responsible for disseminating relevant threat information to airports, airlines, and law enforcement.
Airport Liaison Agent (ALA)
242
___________ is operated by the FBI, consisting of personnel who are focused on preventing terrorist acts and identifying and arresting terrorists.
Joint Terrorism Task Force (JTTF)
243
List the 8 signs of terrorism that airport employees should be trained in.
1. surveillance
2. elicitation (information gathering)
3. testing security
4. funding
5. acquiring supplies
6. impersonation
7. rehearsal (multiple alarms or suspicious activity)
8. deployment
244
Customs and Border Protection (CBP) - focuses on goods, and Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) provide protection to ___________ to the US.
Ports of Entry
245
The crime of ____________ is getting worse, with air travel being used to move victims; airports should be aware of 7 signs (inappropriate dress, scripted communication, controlled movement, etc.).
Human trafficking
246
___________ are DHS personnel whom protect federal facilities like courthouses and federal buildings, with some deployed to commercial service airports.
Federal Protective Service (FPS)
247
Transportation Security Regulations, TSRs, are known as the ___________ series.
49 CFR Part 1500
248
___________ embodies the key security requirements for commercial airports, including Airport Security Coordinator (ASC), access control, incident response, etc.
Part 1542
249
The ___________ describes how that specific commercial service airport will comply with federal regulations (Part 1542) and applicable Security Directives [primarily employee security].
Airport Security Program (ASP)
250
List the 3 security programs for an airport (based on airport category).
1. Complete
2. Supporting
3. Partial.
251
___________ security programs are required for most Category X through Category III airports (as defined by enplanements and TSA).
Complete
252
___________ security programs are for Category IV airports; typically do not include defined security areas.
Supporting and Partial
253
TSA can require an airport to customize their ASP by implementing amendments, or Security Directives, issued by the ____________.
Federal Security Director (FSD).
254
List the 4 Security Areas.
1. secured area
2. security identification display area (SIDA)
3. air operations area (AOA)
4. sterile area
255
The ___________ begins at the screening checkpoint and extends to the doors leading outside to the airfield.
Sterile Area
256
The ___________ must be established around the scheduled passenger air carrier operation where passengers load and unload, and baggage sorting and screening areas.
Secured Area/SIDA
257
___________ is part of a Secured Area and can also be attached to an AOA, requiring access control.
Security Identification Display Area (SIDAs)
258
The ___________ is established wherever aircraft operate, including the ramp areas, taxiways, and runways; visually identified by signs on perimeter fence.
Air Operations Area (AOA)
259
Aircraft operators and foreign carriers may control access and movements within their leased areas, through a ____________, applying to Regulated Parties (Part 1544, 1546).
Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA)
260
The ____________ applies to non-Regulated Parties such as airport tenants besides air carriers (FBOs, SASOs).
Airport Tenant Security Program (ATSP)
261
Commercial service airports commonly use a ____________ to control access (of personnel) between security areas and public areas; PIN codes.
Physical Access Control System (PACS)
262
Doors that access Security Areas are known as ____________ access points, or ____________ points.
Point of denial
| Controlled access point
263
ATSA requires ALL airport, aircraft operator, or foreign carrier personnel with access to SIDA undergo a fingerprint __________ and __________.
Criminal History Record Check (CHRC)
| Security Threat Assessment (STA)
264
Airports tenants are required to designate __________, who act as the requesting authorities for badges and access.
Authorized Signatories
265
Airports that are enrolled in FBI's __________ are immediately notified if someone who holds an ID has been arrested or prosecuted.
RAPBack
266
__________ access/ID media can be issued to individuals working on short-term contracts or left primary ID at home.
Temporary
267
List 3 requirements for Personal Identification in Secured Area.
1. full-face image
2. scope of individual's access
3. sufficient size and appearance
268
Each individual in a Secured Area or SIDA must continuously display visible ID above waist level, or individual is ___________.
Under escort
269
Airports must have ___________, tied to the National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) - Elevated Threat and Imminent Threat.
Contingency plans
270
List 3 steps for Incident/Threat Management.
1. evaluate the threat (ASP)
2. initiate appropriate actions (AEP)
3. immediately notify TSA
271
__________ accounts for 77% of all flights in US and 19,000+ airports.
General aviation
272
The ___________ serves as a centralized reporting system for GA pilots, airport operators, and maintenance technicians who wish to report suspicious activity at GA airports; it complements the highly successful AOPA's ___________.
GA Hotline
| Airport Watch Program.
273
TSA has issued ___________ for security of GA airports.
Guidelines
274
List the Maryland-3 (GA airports) that must follow certain security restrictions under Part 1562.
1. College Park
2. Potomac Airfield in Ft. Washington
3. Washington Executive/Hyde Field
275
In order for a GA aircraft to operate out of D.C., the owner/operator must adopt and adhere to ___________ - screening passengers, bags, cargo, and aircraft must carry Armed Security Officer (ASO).
DCA Access Standard Security Program (DASSP)
