MONITORING: RESP Side notes Flashcards

1
Q

Capnographs that may cause radiant heat

A

Mainstream

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2
Q

Oxygenated absorb light at

A

660nm

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3
Q

Deoxygenated absorb light at

A

960 nm

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4
Q

Mandatory respiratory monitors during GA

A

Pulse oximeter
Capnography
Inspired O2 analyzer
Disconnect alarm
(also direct visualization)

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5
Q

Beta angle is between phases III and

A

0 is usually about 90 degrees , may used to assess rebreathing.

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6
Q

Inspiratory valve failure indication of Co2

A

Widening of the B angle with an elevation of both phases 0/ I and III

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7
Q

An early sign of MH

A

Rapidly rising end-tidal CO2, carbon dioxide, if unresponsive to hyperventilation .

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8
Q

Oxygenation is most easily measured by

A

pulse oximetry.

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9
Q

Things that my results in falsely low saturation reading

A

Methylene blue
Indocyanine green
Indigo carmine
Isolsulfan blue.

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10
Q

Best location for esophageal probe is

A

Lower third of the esophagus

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11
Q

Correlates well with core temperature

A

Tympanic membrane.
Esophageal probe.

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12
Q

Which phase of the capnography correlates with alveolar equillibrium (or alveolar gas plateau)?

A

End of phase III.

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13
Q

During GA, ETCO2/PACO2 gradient is

A

5-10 mmHg

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14
Q

Exhausted CO2/ incompetent expiratory valve will show on the monitor as

A

Tracing not going back to baseline

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15
Q

Slow rate of rise in CO2 waveform indicates

A

COPD
Obstructed ETT

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16
Q

If inspired CO2 does not return to zero, 2 possible caues.

A

Incompetent expiratory valve in ventilator
Exhausted Co2 absorbent.

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17
Q

What determines the extent of intrapleural pressure 2nd to PEEP?

A

Pulmonary compliance

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18
Q

PPV settings (CPAP and PEEP)

A

increase intrathoracic pressure . Pulmonary compliance determines the extent of this pressure. Small changes in pressure cause large change in lung volume

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19
Q

The maximum setting of CPAP expiratory pressure without the use of artificial airway is

A

15 cm H2O

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20
Q

Expiratory pressure > 15cm H2) require

A

artificial airway du to the risk of gastric regurgitation and aspiration.

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21
Q

The major effect of PEEP on the lungs is to

A

Increased FRC

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22
Q

The goal of PEEP is to

A

Improve the patient’s arterial oxygenation

23
Q

Employing PEEP elevated the

A

FRC and TV to a value greater than the closing capacity to result in improved compliance and a degree of resolution of ventilation /perfusion mismatch and the degree of pulmonary shunting.

24
Q

The constant pressure from PEEP or CPAP act to

A

Stabilize and maintain expansion of the alveoli

25
When excess PEEP is added (greater than 20cm H2O) Which negative effects occur
Pneumomediastinum Subcutaenous emphysema Pneumoretroperitoneum Pneumopericardium
26
Excessive PEEP and WOB
Increased by reducing lung compliance and increasing dead-space ventilation
27
Ventilatory component that increase the risk of barotrauma
Young age Vent setting with high RR , there is stacking of breaths Increase TV 10-15ml/kg
28
Which of the following is the highest circuit pressure generated during an INSPIRATORY cycle?
PEAK INSPIRATORY PRESSURE (PIP)
29
PIP is an indication of
Dynamic compliance of the lungs
30
Is there any contraindications to analyzing anesthetic gases during any procedure requiring inhalational anesthesia?
NO
31
Gases measured by standard OR gas analyzers include
Oxygen Nitrogen Anesthetic agent
32
Which oxygen analyzer is self -calibrating?
Paramagnetic
33
Which statement is true regarding pulse oximetry? (A) Pulse oximetry artifact is due to excessive
ambient light, motion, and methylene ,blue dye.
34
In the normal capnograph, what does Phase III indicate?
Alveolar gas plateau
35
What causes an increased end-tidal carbon dioxide?
CNS depression
36
Where is the best location to monitor blood pressure or patients undergoing right shoulder arthroscopy in the beach chair position?
LUE
37
Which oxygen analyzer works by using the oxygen molecules’ unique attraction into magnetic fields?
Paramagnetic oxygen sensor
38
Which o the following minimizes Phase I temperature loss?
Forced air warming
39
What is the maximum allowable current leakage in the operating room?
10 MicroAm
40
What monitor alarms when a high current ow to the ground exists?
Line isolation monitor
41
What humidity levels are appropriate or the operating room?
50-55%
42
During in usion o multiple units o packed red blood cells, what temperature is needed to avoid hypothermia?
(A) 37°C
43
Which principle included in radiation safety?
(A) Time (B) Distance (C) Shielding
44
What nerve injury may result rom prolonged pressure involving bag mask ventilation?
(A)Trigeminal and Facial nerves
45
What does an “a” wave represent in a CVP tracing?
Atrial contraction
46
When comparing sites or placement o a central venous catheter, which site carries the greatest risk or pneumothorax?
Subclavian vein
47
What results when stimulating the ulnar nerve?
Contraction of the adductor pollicis
48
Rationale: Recovery rom neuromuscular blockade is observed in the
orbicularis oculi prior to the adductor pollicis when using peripheral nerve stimulation.
49
Range: Mean right atrial pressure
(1-10);
50
Mean pulmonary artery pressure
(10-20);
51
Pulmonary artery occlusive pressure range
5-15
52
When monitoring central venous pressure (CVP), what causes the loss o “a” waves?
Atrial fibrillation
53
Following intubation you are unable to palpate the tracheal tube cu in the sternal notch. T e breathing bag compliance is decreased. Breath sounds are unilateral. Where is the endotracheal tube most likely positioned?
Bronchus
54
What is your greatest concern when in ating the pulmonary artery balloon?
Pulmonary artery rupture