Mother Baby

Question 1

How do you straighten the auditory canal of a patient under 3 yo?

Answer 1

To straighten the auditory canal, the pinna should be pulled downward and back, instead of upward and back.

Question 2

What is the recommended weight gain for pregnant women with a BMI between 20-25?

Answer 2

The recommended weight gain for women with an average BMI is 11.5 to 16 kg, or roughly 25 to 35 lb. This amount is sufficient to ensure that the fetus is adequately nourished.

Question 3

What are complications related to vacuum-assist birth?

Answer 3

Perineal, vaginal, or cervical laceration

Question 4

A newborn’s car seat should be at what angle?

Answer 4

45 degrees

Question 5

The baby’s car seat should be rear facing until what age?

Answer 5

Until 2 years old or until reaching the age and weight the car seat manufacturer recommends

Question 6

At what height should the retainer clip of a car seat be placed?

Answer 6

At the level of the baby’s armpits

Question 7

What position should the nurse place the mother during an umbilical prolapse?

Answer 7

Knee-chest position

Question 8

What is an indication for an emergency cesarean birth on a fetal monitoring strip?

Answer 8

late or variable decelerations

Question 9

What is the expected reference temperature for a newborn?

Answer 9

36.5° C to 37.5° C
(97.7° F to 99.5° F)

Question 10

How should a client prevent discomfort with engorgement?

Answer 10

The client should place ice packs on the breasts to reduce swelling and relieve the pain caused by engorgement.

The client should wear a tight-fitting, supportive bra or breast binder to decrease the discomfort caused by engorgement.

Question 11

Why do newborns receive vitamin K?

Answer 11

Newborns are deficient in vitamin K and should receive it following birth because this deficiency can lead to bleeding.

Question 12

What are signs of abruptio placentae?

Answer 12

A client who has abruptio placentae can experience persistent uterine contractions, board-like abdomen, and dark red vaginal bleeding.

Question 13

Bright red vaginal bleeding may be a sign of what?

Answer 13

Placenta previa

Question 14

What is Naegele’s Rule?

Answer 14

Subtract 3 months, add 7 days to the client’s last menstrual period date

Question 15

At what frequency should new foods be introduced to a 6-month-old infant?

Answer 15

The parents should introduce new foods one at a time over 3 to 5 days to identify potential food allergies.

Question 16

What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate?

Answer 16

To prevent seizures in a client who has preeclampsia

Question 17

What is the purpose of administering terbutaline?

Answer 17

To decrease contractions during preterm labor

Question 18

Complications of severe preeclampsia

Answer 18

HELLP

Hemolysis
Elevated lipid enzymes
Low platelet count

Question 19

Dystocia

Answer 19

4 P’s

Powers
Passageway
Passenger
Psych

Question 20

APGAR

Answer 20

Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effort

Question 21

GTPAL

Answer 21

Gravida
Term
Preterm
Abortions (SAB, TAB)
Living children

Question 22

Veal Chop

Answer 22

Relates to fetal heart rate

Variable decels –> cord compression
Early decels –> head compression
Accelerations –> O2
Late decels –> Placental utero insufficiency

Question 23

Placenta previa or abruptio placenta?

Bright red, painless

Answer 23

Placenta previa

Question 24

Placenta previa or abruptio placenta?

Premature separation of placenta

Answer 24

Abruptio placenta

Question 25

T/F: Use of witch hazel compresses can reduce edema.

Answer 25

True

Question 26

T/F: The nurse should offer a warm sitz bath to a client who reports unrelieved episiotomy pain.

Answer 26

False. During the first 24 hr, ice packs and cool water sitz baths are used. They reduce edema and promote comfort.

Question 27

T/F: For breast engorgement, fresh cabbage leaves placed inside the breast can help alleviate associated pain.

Answer 27

True

Question 28

T/F: The nurse should apply lotion to the newborn's skin twice daily if they are receiving phototherapy.

Answer 28

False. The nurse should avoid applying lotions or ointments to the skin during phototherapy because they absorb heat and can cause burns.

Question 29

Which medication should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of meperidine?

Answer 29

Naloxone. Meperidine used to relieve severe pain.

Question 30

What action will the client need to complete prior to an amniocentesis?

Answer 30

Empty the bladder.

Question 31

Post vacuum-assisted delivery, what are manifestations of cerebral irritation?

Answer 31

Listlessness and poor sucking

Question 32

T/F: Endometriosis increases the risk of developing ovarian cancer.

Answer 32

True

Question 33

What is raloxiphine used to treat?

Answer 33

Osteoporosis

Question 34

T/F: You want an empty bladder for an ultrasound.

Answer 34

False. You need a full bladder for an ultrasound.

Question 35

A negative contraction stress test does not have what kind of decelerations?

Answer 35

Negative test has no late decelerations

Question 36

What is GTPAL?

Answer 36

Gravida Term Preterm Abortion Living

Question 37

What is protein in the urine is indicative of?

Answer 37

Preeclampsia

Question 38

When is Neural Tube Defect screening done?

Answer 38

16-18 weeks

Question 39

When is group B strep screening done?

Answer 39

35 weeks

Question 40

When is diabetes screening done?

Answer 40

28 weeks

Question 41

What foods are a source of B12?

Answer 41

Liver, yogurt, eggs, milk Only found in animal products

Question 42

T/F: Sudden weight gain can be indicative of preeclampsia.

Answer 42

True

Question 43

What are symptoms of severe preeclampsia?

Answer 43

CNS irritability Liver involvement Oliguria

Question 44

What are grape-like clusters caused by rapid uterine growth called?

Answer 44

Hydatidiform moles

Question 45

T/F: Placenta previa will present with a board-like abdomen with dark red bleeding.

Answer 45

False. Abruptio placenta will present with a board-like abdomen with dark red bleeding. Placenta previa will present with painless, bright red bleeding.

Question 46

What is the priority action for a client who is in active labor preparing for an epidural?

Answer 46

Infuse an isotonic IV bolus

Question 47

T/F: A client who is in the transitional phase of labor reports lightheadedness and tingling hands. The nurse should instruct the client to breathe into her cupped hands.

Answer 47

True.

Question 48

What are tocolytics?

Answer 48

Medication that can slow down the labor. indomethacin and nifedipine

Question 49

What medication augment labor?

Answer 49

Oxytocin

Question 50

T/F: For a client who is breastfeeding, the client should avoid giving the infant a bottle at night.

Answer 50

True, bc this causes nipple confusion

Question 51

T/F: For a client who is 2 hours postpartum, two perineal pads saturated since delivery is normal.

Answer 51

False. 1 saturated pad in 2 hours is better. Two pads in two hours is too much!

Question 52

How many veins and arteries are on the umbilical cord of a newborn?

Answer 52

Two arteries, one vein (AVA)

Question 53

What are symptoms of menopause?

Answer 53

Hot flashes/night sweats Palpitations Vaginal atrophy Osteoporosis

Question 54

What vitamin helps with absorption of calcium?

Answer 54

D3

Question 55

When are APGAR scores calculated?

Answer 55

one and five minutes after delivery

Question 56

What are the stages of labor?

Answer 56

Early/latent (dilation until 3cm) Active (dilation from 3 to 7cm) Transition (dilation from 7 to 10cm)

Question 57

T/F: Prematurely born infants are at greatest risk for necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC).

Answer 57

True. Preterm birth places a newborn at risk for NEC. This could be due to lack of oxygen during delivery and a weakened immune system

Question 58

T/F: Lithium poses few risks to the fetus in the second and third trimester.

Answer 58

True. Lithium crosses the placenta and is associated with teratogenic effects in the first trimester. During the second and third trimesters, the benefits may outweigh the risks in a client who has bipolar disorder.

Question 59

A patient with an IUD reports abrupt, sharp, lower abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. What finding is most liking?

Answer 59

Ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy is a risk increased by IUDs. This manifests as unilateral lower quadrant pain that can occur with or without bleeding.

Question 60

What is quickening?

Answer 60

Sensation of fluttering movements or motions the client can feel.

Question 61

What is Goodell sign?

Answer 61

Softening of the cervix that the provider can detect upon examination. Probable examples of pregnancy.

Question 62

What is Ballottement?

Answer 62

Sensation of a flating object within the uterus. Detected by provider gently pushing upward on cervix and waiting for a rebound sensation. Probable examples of pregnancy.

Question 63

What are examples of presumptive signs of pregnancy?

Answer 63

Fatigue N/V Breast changes Amenorrhea Urinary frequency Quickening

Question 64

What are examples of probable signs of pregnancy?

Answer 64

Goodell, Hegar, Chadwick signs Ballottement Positive pregnancy test

Question 65

What are examples of positive signs of pregnancy?

Answer 65

Ultrasound visualization of fetus Auscultation of fetal heart tones Palpation of fetal parts

Question 66

T/F: As a foley catheter is being inserted, the nurse should instruct the patient to breathe slowly through their mouth.

Answer 66

False. The nurse should instruct the client to bear down as the foley is being inserted.

Question 67

T/F: Administration of spinal anesthetic medications can cause maternal hypotension that results in fetal hypoxia, a cause of fetal bradycardia.

Answer 67

True

Question 68

What type of dressing is used for the sac before a myelomeningocele repair?

Answer 68

A moist, sterile, nonadhesive dressing

Question 69

T/F: Dark brown vaginal discharge is an expected finding who a client who has a hydatidiform mole.

Answer 69

True.

Question 70

For a client with severe pre-eclampsia, what is the most accurate assessment to determine a client's fluid and electrolyte status?

Answer 70

Daily weight

Question 71

T/F: Uterine fibroids increase the risk for postpartum hemorrhage.

Answer 71

True

Question 72

What is the purpose of betamethasone?

Answer 72

Betamethasone stimulates fetal lung maturity. Used during preterm labor to prevent respiratory depression.

Question 73

What is the purpose of methylergonovine?

Answer 73

Stimulate uterine contractions for a client who is experiecing postpartum hemorrhage

Question 74

What is the purpose of poractant alfa?

Answer 74

It is a synthetic lung surfactant for preterm newborns who are experiencing respiratory distress

Question 75

Should the client have a full or empty bladder for abdominal ultrasounds?

Answer 75

Full, to help lift uterus out of the pelvis during examination

Question 76

When are nonstress tests done?

Answer 76

26 weeks of gestation

Question 77

Is it normal for clients to have a feeling of warmth while receiving magnesium sulfate infusions?

Answer 77

Yes.

Question 78

For clients with Rh-negative blood, when should they receive the Rh0 immune globulin?

Answer 78

28 weeks of gestation and within 72 hr if the client's newborn is Rh-positive

Question 79

What is polyhydramnios?

Answer 79

Presence of excessive amniotic fluid surrounding the unborn fetus

Question 80

What are expected findings of a client with polyhydramnios?

Answer 80

Gastrointestinal malformations and neurologic disorders

Question 81

What is oligohydramnios?

Answer 81

Volume of amniotic fluid less than 300mL during third trimester of pregnancy and occurs when there is a renal system dysfunction or obstructive uropathy

Question 82

Excess progestin levels in combination OCs can cause what condition?

Answer 82

Depression Weight gain Acne dt strong androgenic effects

Question 83

Progestin deficiency in combination OCs can cause what condition?

Answer 83

Amenorrhea

Question 84

For a client prescribed DMPA, when should the RN schedule the first dose?

Answer 84

At 6 weeks postpartum Second dose administered 3 months after first dose

Question 85

T/F: Infants have longer intestinal tracts.

Answer 85

True

Question 86

T/F: Infants have less extracellular fluid.

Answer 86

False. Infants have larger fluid volume and more rapid water loss

Question 87

T/F: Clients who have neural tube defects are at risk for latex allergy.

Answer 87

True

Question 88

How much weight loss is expect of a lactating client?

Answer 88

2.2lbs each month

Question 89

How much weight loss is expect of a non-lactating client?

Answer 89

0.5 to 0.9kg (1.1 to 2lb) each week

Question 90

How often should diaphragms be replaced?

Answer 90

Every 2 years

Question 91

What structure expels the ovum?

Answer 91

The Graffian follicle expels the mature ovum

Question 92

What is normal bilirubin levels for a newborn?

Answer 92

4 to 6mg/dL

Question 93

What is normal glucose levels for newborns?

Answer 93

40-60mg/dL

Question 94

What factors can put mothers at risk for uterine atony?

Answer 94

Magnesium sulfate infusion Distended bladder Prolonged labor

Question 95

What are manifestations of biliary atresia in infants?

Answer 95

Yellowing sclerae Abdominal distention Dark urine Acholic or gray stools Difficult metabolizing fats (poor weight gain)

Question 96

What are contraindications for OCs?

Answer 96

Liver disease Breast cancer Thrombophlebitis

Question 97

T/F: A client who has had a past cesarean delivery cannot receive misoprostol.

Answer 97

True. Misoprostol can cause uterine tachysystole, and therefore can cause uterine rupture for clients with hx of cesarean delivery

Question 98

What is the expected range of head circumference for a newborn?

Answer 98

32 to 36.8cm

Question 99

What is the expected weight of a newborn?

Answer 99

2500 to 4000 grams

Question 100

What is the expected respiratory rate of a newborn?

Answer 100

30 to 60 respirations/min