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Stuff Idk > Mother Baby > Flashcards

Mother Baby Flashcards

1
Q

How do you straighten the auditory canal of a patient under 3 yo?

A

To straighten the auditory canal, the pinna should be pulled downward and back, instead of upward and back.

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2
Q

What is the recommended weight gain for pregnant women with a BMI between 20-25?

A

The recommended weight gain for women with an average BMI is 11.5 to 16 kg, or roughly 25 to 35 lb. This amount is sufficient to ensure that the fetus is adequately nourished.

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3
Q

What are complications related to vacuum-assist birth?

A

Perineal, vaginal, or cervical laceration

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4
Q

A newborn’s car seat should be at what angle?

A

45 degrees

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5
Q

The baby’s car seat should be rear facing until what age?

A

Until 2 years old or until reaching the age and weight the car seat manufacturer recommends

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6
Q

At what height should the retainer clip of a car seat be placed?

A

At the level of the baby’s armpits

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7
Q

What position should the nurse place the mother during an umbilical prolapse?

A

Knee-chest position

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8
Q

What is an indication for an emergency cesarean birth on a fetal monitoring strip?

A

late or variable decelerations

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9
Q

What is the expected reference temperature for a newborn?

A

36.5° C to 37.5° C
(97.7° F to 99.5° F)

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10
Q

How should a client prevent discomfort with engorgement?

A

The client should place ice packs on the breasts to reduce swelling and relieve the pain caused by engorgement.

The client should wear a tight-fitting, supportive bra or breast binder to decrease the discomfort caused by engorgement.

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11
Q

Why do newborns receive vitamin K?

A

Newborns are deficient in vitamin K and should receive it following birth because this deficiency can lead to bleeding.

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12
Q

What are signs of abruptio placentae?

A

A client who has abruptio placentae can experience persistent uterine contractions, board-like abdomen, and dark red vaginal bleeding.

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13
Q

Bright red vaginal bleeding may be a sign of what?

A

Placenta previa

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14
Q

What is Naegele’s Rule?

A

Subtract 3 months, add 7 days to the client’s last menstrual period date

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15
Q

At what frequency should new foods be introduced to a 6-month-old infant?

A

The parents should introduce new foods one at a time over 3 to 5 days to identify potential food allergies.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate?

A

To prevent seizures in a client who has preeclampsia

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17
Q

What is the purpose of administering terbutaline?

A

To decrease contractions during preterm labor

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18
Q

Complications of severe preeclampsia

A

HELLP

Hemolysis
Elevated lipid enzymes
Low platelet count

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19
Q

Dystocia

A

4 P’s

Powers
Passageway
Passenger
Psych

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20
Q

APGAR

A

Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effort

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21
Q

GTPAL

A

Gravida
Term
Preterm
Abortions (SAB, TAB)
Living children

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22
Q

Veal Chop

A

Relates to fetal heart rate

Variable decels –> cord compression
Early decels –> head compression
Accelerations –> O2
Late decels –> Placental utero insufficiency

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23
Q

Placenta previa or abruptio placenta?

Bright red, painless

A

Placenta previa

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24
Q

Placenta previa or abruptio placenta?

Premature separation of placenta

A

Abruptio placenta

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25
Q

T/F: Use of witch hazel compresses can reduce edema.

A

True

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26
Q

T/F: The nurse should offer a warm sitz bath to a client who reports unrelieved episiotomy pain.

A

False. During the first 24 hr, ice packs and cool water sitz baths are used. They reduce edema and promote comfort.

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27
Q

T/F: For breast engorgement, fresh cabbage leaves placed inside the breast can help alleviate associated pain.

A

True

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28
Q

T/F: The nurse should apply lotion to the newborn’s skin twice daily if they are receiving phototherapy.

A

False. The nurse should avoid applying lotions or ointments to the skin during phototherapy because they absorb heat and can cause burns.

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29
Q

Which medication should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of meperidine?

A

Naloxone. Meperidine used to relieve severe pain.

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30
Q

What action will the client need to complete prior to an amniocentesis?

A

Empty the bladder.

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31
Q

Post vacuum-assisted delivery, what are manifestations of cerebral irritation?

A

Listlessness and poor sucking

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32
Q

T/F: Endometriosis increases the risk of developing ovarian cancer.

A

True

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33
Q

What is raloxiphine used to treat?

A

Osteoporosis

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34
Q

T/F: You want an empty bladder for an ultrasound.

A

False. You need a full bladder for an ultrasound.

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35
Q

A negative contraction stress test does not have what kind of decelerations?

A

Negative test has no late decelerations

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36
Q

What is GTPAL?

A

Gravida
Term
Preterm
Abortion
Living

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37
Q

What is protein in the urine is indicative of?

A

Preeclampsia

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38
Q

When is Neural Tube Defect screening done?

A

16-18 weeks

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39
Q

When is group B strep screening done?

A

35 weeks

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40
Q

When is diabetes screening done?

A

28 weeks

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41
Q

What foods are a source of B12?

A

Liver, yogurt, eggs, milk

Only found in animal products

42
Q

T/F: Sudden weight gain can be indicative of preeclampsia.

A

True

43
Q

What are symptoms of severe preeclampsia?

A

CNS irritability
Liver involvement
Oliguria

44
Q

What are grape-like clusters caused by rapid uterine growth called?

A

Hydatidiform moles

45
Q

T/F: Placenta previa will present with a board-like abdomen with dark red bleeding.

A

False. Abruptio placenta will present with a board-like abdomen with dark red bleeding.

Placenta previa will present with painless, bright red bleeding.

46
Q

What is the priority action for a client who is in active labor preparing for an epidural?

A

Infuse an isotonic IV bolus

47
Q

T/F: A client who is in the transitional phase of labor reports lightheadedness and tingling hands. The nurse should instruct the client to breathe into her cupped hands.

A

True.

48
Q

What are tocolytics?

A

Medication that can slow down the labor.

indomethacin and nifedipine

49
Q

What medication augment labor?

A

Oxytocin

50
Q

T/F: For a client who is breastfeeding, the client should avoid giving the infant a bottle at night.

A

True, bc this causes nipple confusion

51
Q

T/F: For a client who is 2 hours postpartum, two perineal pads saturated since delivery is normal.

A

False. 1 saturated pad in 2 hours is better. Two pads in two hours is too much!

52
Q

How many veins and arteries are on the umbilical cord of a newborn?

A

Two arteries, one vein (AVA)

53
Q

What are symptoms of menopause?

A

Hot flashes/night sweats
Palpitations
Vaginal atrophy
Osteoporosis

54
Q

What vitamin helps with absorption of calcium?

A

D3

55
Q

When are APGAR scores calculated?

A

one and five minutes after delivery

56
Q

What are the stages of labor?

A

Early/latent (dilation until 3cm)
Active (dilation from 3 to 7cm)
Transition (dilation from 7 to 10cm)

57
Q

T/F: Prematurely born infants are at greatest risk for necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC).

A

True. Preterm birth places a newborn at risk for NEC. This could be due to lack of oxygen during delivery and a weakened immune system

58
Q

T/F: Lithium poses few risks to the fetus in the second and third trimester.

A

True. Lithium crosses the placenta and is associated with teratogenic effects in the first trimester. During the second and third trimesters, the benefits may outweigh the risks in a client who has bipolar disorder.

59
Q

A patient with an IUD reports abrupt, sharp, lower abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. What finding is most liking?

A

Ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy is a risk increased by IUDs. This manifests as unilateral lower quadrant pain that can occur with or without bleeding.

60
Q

What is quickening?

A

Sensation of fluttering movements or motions the client can feel.

61
Q

What is Goodell sign?

A

Softening of the cervix that the provider can detect upon examination.

Probable examples of pregnancy.

62
Q

What is Ballottement?

A

Sensation of a flating object within the uterus. Detected by provider gently pushing upward on cervix and waiting for a rebound sensation.

Probable examples of pregnancy.

63
Q

What are examples of presumptive signs of pregnancy?

A

Fatigue
N/V
Breast changes
Amenorrhea
Urinary frequency
Quickening

64
Q

What are examples of probable signs of pregnancy?

A

Goodell, Hegar, Chadwick signs
Ballottement
Positive pregnancy test

65
Q

What are examples of positive signs of pregnancy?

A

Ultrasound visualization of fetus
Auscultation of fetal heart tones
Palpation of fetal parts

66
Q

T/F: As a foley catheter is being inserted, the nurse should instruct the patient to breathe slowly through their mouth.

A

False. The nurse should instruct the client to bear down as the foley is being inserted.

67
Q

T/F: Administration of spinal anesthetic medications can cause maternal hypotension that results in fetal hypoxia, a cause of fetal bradycardia.

A

True

68
Q

What type of dressing is used for the sac before a myelomeningocele repair?

A

A moist, sterile, nonadhesive dressing

69
Q

T/F: Dark brown vaginal discharge is an expected finding who a client who has a hydatidiform mole.

A

True.

70
Q

For a client with severe pre-eclampsia, what is the most accurate assessment to determine a client’s fluid and electrolyte status?

A

Daily weight

71
Q

T/F: Uterine fibroids increase the risk for postpartum hemorrhage.

A

True

72
Q

What is the purpose of betamethasone?

A

Betamethasone stimulates fetal lung maturity. Used during preterm labor to prevent respiratory depression.

73
Q

What is the purpose of methylergonovine?

A

Stimulate uterine contractions for a client who is experiecing postpartum hemorrhage

74
Q

What is the purpose of poractant alfa?

A

It is a synthetic lung surfactant for preterm newborns who are experiencing respiratory distress

75
Q

Should the client have a full or empty bladder for abdominal ultrasounds?

A

Full, to help lift uterus out of the pelvis during examination

76
Q

When are nonstress tests done?

A

26 weeks of gestation

77
Q

Is it normal for clients to have a feeling of warmth while receiving magnesium sulfate infusions?

A

Yes.

78
Q

For clients with Rh-negative blood, when should they receive the Rh0 immune globulin?

A

28 weeks of gestation and within 72 hr if the client’s newborn is Rh-positive

79
Q

What is polyhydramnios?

A

Presence of excessive amniotic fluid surrounding the unborn fetus

80
Q

What are expected findings of a client with polyhydramnios?

A

Gastrointestinal malformations and neurologic disorders

81
Q

What is oligohydramnios?

A

Volume of amniotic fluid less than 300mL during third trimester of pregnancy and occurs when there is a renal system dysfunction or obstructive uropathy

82
Q

Excess progestin levels in combination OCs can cause what condition?

A

Depression
Weight gain
Acne dt strong androgenic effects

83
Q

Progestin deficiency in combination OCs can cause what condition?

A

Amenorrhea

84
Q

For a client prescribed DMPA, when should the RN schedule the first dose?

A

At 6 weeks postpartum

Second dose administered 3 months after first dose

85
Q

T/F: Infants have longer intestinal tracts.

A

True

86
Q

T/F: Infants have less extracellular fluid.

A

False. Infants have larger fluid volume and more rapid water loss

87
Q

T/F: Clients who have neural tube defects are at risk for latex allergy.

A

True

88
Q

How much weight loss is expect of a lactating client?

A

2.2lbs each month

89
Q

How much weight loss is expect of a non-lactating client?

A

0.5 to 0.9kg (1.1 to 2lb) each week

90
Q

How often should diaphragms be replaced?

A

Every 2 years

91
Q

What structure expels the ovum?

A

The Graffian follicle expels the mature ovum

92
Q

What is normal bilirubin levels for a newborn?

A

4 to 6mg/dL

93
Q

What is normal glucose levels for newborns?

A

40-60mg/dL

94
Q

What factors can put mothers at risk for uterine atony?

A

Magnesium sulfate infusion
Distended bladder
Prolonged labor

95
Q

What are manifestations of biliary atresia in infants?

A

Yellowing sclerae
Abdominal distention
Dark urine
Acholic or gray stools
Difficult metabolizing fats (poor weight gain)

96
Q

What are contraindications for OCs?

A

Liver disease
Breast cancer
Thrombophlebitis

97
Q

T/F: A client who has had a past cesarean delivery cannot receive misoprostol.

A

True. Misoprostol can cause uterine tachysystole, and therefore can cause uterine rupture for clients with hx of cesarean delivery

98
Q

What is the expected range of head circumference for a newborn?

A

32 to 36.8cm

99
Q

What is the expected weight of a newborn?

A

2500 to 4000 grams

100
Q

What is the expected respiratory rate of a newborn?

A

30 to 60 respirations/min

101
Q
A

Stuff Idk (9 decks)

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