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Stuff Idk > Pharmocology > Flashcards

Pharmocology Flashcards

1
Q

What are manifestations of heparin toxicity?

A

blood in urine, bruising, hematomas, hypotension, tachycardia

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2
Q

What instructions should the nurse include in the teaching of beclomethasone for the treatment of asthma?

A

The client should rinse their mouth after using beclomethasone, a glucocorticoid inhaler, to prevent oropharylngeal candidiasis and hoarseness.

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3
Q

What is the concern of taking aspirin with warfarin?

A

Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can potentiate the action of warfarin.

Pt should avoid taking aspirin bc it increases the risk for bleeding

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4
Q

What causes a cholinergic crisis?

A

Excess amount of cholinesterase inhibitor, such as neostigmine

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5
Q

What med is used in a cholinergic crisis?

A

Atropine, an anticholinergic agent

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6
Q

What medication interacts with calcium gluconate?

A

Calcium gluconate can cause hypercalcemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity

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7
Q

What is filgrastim used for?

A

Stimulates bone marrow to produce neutrophils

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8
Q

On an EKG, what indicates hypokalemia?

A

Presence of U-waves
Flattene/inverted T-waves

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9
Q

On an EKG, what indicates hyperkalemia?

A

Tall, tended T-waves

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10
Q

When taking lithium, what OTC med should be d/c?

A

Ibuprofen. Most NSAIDs can significantly increase lithium levels

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11
Q

What med is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?

A

Acetylcysteine. Can prevent severe injury when given orally or by IV infusion within 8 to 10 hours

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12
Q

What are adverse effects of mannitol?

A

Heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Nurse should recognize lung crackles as indicator of potential complication and stop infusion

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13
Q

What test must be done before a patient obtains a refill of tretinoin?

A

Pregnancy test, bc tretinoin has teratogenic effects

Client must have two negative pregnancy tests for the initial prescription and one negative test before monthly refills

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14
Q

What are the AEs of donepezil?

A

Bronchoconstriction, dyspepsia, diarrhea, and dizziness are caused by increase in acetylcholine levels

Contact provider if dyspnea occurs dt bronchoconstriction

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15
Q

What causes late decelerations on an external FHR monitor?

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

Place client in side-lying/lateral position

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16
Q

What is a common AE of neostigmine?

A

Miosis (pupillary constriction) due to excessive muscarinic stimulation

Bradycardia
Urinary urgency
Increased salivation

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17
Q

What are normal potassium levels?

A

3.5-5 mEq/L

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18
Q

What are normal hemoglobin levels?

A

14-18 g/dL for male
12-16 g/dL for female

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19
Q

What are normal platelet levels?

A

150,000-400,000/mm^3

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20
Q

What is an indication for sucralfate?

A

Peptic ulcer disease

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21
Q

What is the MOA of sucralfate?

A

Forms a protective barrier over ulcers

Sucralfate, a mucosal protectant, forms a gel-like substance that coats the ulcer, creating a barrier to hydrochloric acid and pepsin

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22
Q

What are normal calcium levels?

A

9.0-10.5 mg/dL

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23
Q

What are normal levels for magnesium?

A

1.3-2.1 mEq/L

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24
Q

What are normal digoxin levels?

A

0.8 to 2 ng/mL

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25
Q

What is the indication for oxybutynin?

A

urinary incontinence

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26
Q

What are AEs of oxybutynin?

A

dry mouth
blurred vision
dry eyes

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27
Q

What is the MOA of oxybutynin and therefore its AEs?

A

anticholinergic agent

dry mouth
blurred vision-increased intraocular pressure
dry eyes
mydriasis-pupil dilation

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28
Q

What class drug is gentamicin?

A

Aminoglycosides. Can manifest as tinnitus and deafness

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29
Q

What are AEs of gentamicin?

A

twitching
flaccid paralysis
tinnitus
deafness
inflammation of liver and spleen

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30
Q

What is the antidote to reverse benzodiazepines?

A

flumazenil

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31
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate, used to reverse an elevated aPTT

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32
Q

What is the nursing instruction for taking ergotamine to treat migraine headaches?

A

Take one tablet immediately after onset of aura or headache

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33
Q

What medication is administered during anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine to induce vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

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34
Q

What are AEs of tamoxifen?

A

Menstrual irregularities
Hot flashes
Bruising
N/V

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35
Q

What is the MOA of tamoxifen?

A

Antiestrogen medication that works by blocking estrogen receptors

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36
Q

What is the indication for bupropion?

A

Aid to quit smoking

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37
Q

What are the AEs of bupropion?

A

Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant, has stimulant properties, which can result in agitation, tremors, mania, and insomnia

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38
Q

What medication interferes with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

A

Carbamazepine. Causes an accelerated inactivation of oral contraceptives bc of its action on hepatic medication-metabolizing enzymes

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39
Q

What is the generic name for Narcan?

A

Naloxone

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40
Q

What is the indication for nitroglycerin?

A

Angina pain

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41
Q

How does one avoid tolerance to nitroglycerin transdermal patches?

A

Take patch off right after evening meal.

Medication-free time of 12 to 14 hours before applying a new patch

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42
Q

What is the indication for acetazolamide?

A

Glaucoma

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43
Q

What are AEs of acetazolamide?

A

Paresthesia, tingling of extremities
Diarrhea
Weight loss
Polyuria

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44
Q

What helps to minimize the risk of oral candidiasis and dysphonia when taking inhaled corticosteroids?

A

Using a spacer and rinsing the mouth after inhalation

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45
Q

When should a newborn receive their first DTaP vaccine?

A

2 months

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46
Q

What is a medication used for UTIs?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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47
Q

What is a contraindication for taking ciprofloxacin?

A

Tendonitis, dt risk of tendon rupture

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48
Q

What medication prevents delirium tremens?

A

Chlordiazepoxide

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49
Q

Delirium tremens is a severe effect of what condition?

A

Acute alcohol withdrawal

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50
Q

What is the MOA of digoxin?

A

Slows the conduction rate through the SA and AV nodes, thereby decreasing the HR.

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51
Q

What is the indication for raloxifene?

A

Postmenopausal osteoporosis

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52
Q

What are AEs of raloxifene?

A

Hot flashes
Swelling or redness in calf
SOB

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53
Q

What is the indication for alendronate?

A

Osteoporsis

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54
Q

What is the teaching for taking alendronate?

A

Take medication in AM before eating to increase absorption
Drink an 8 oz glass of water with each tablet
Avoid lying down after taking this medication

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55
Q

What actions should the nurse take when a client develops malignant hyperthermia?

A

Infuse iced IV fluids
Provide 100% oxygen
Place a cooling blanket on client
Administer IV dantrolene

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56
Q

What medication is used during malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

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57
Q

What class of drug is neostigmine?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor, used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers

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58
Q

What is the indication for pramipexole?

A

Parkinson’s disease

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59
Q

What are AEs of pramipexole?

A

Hallucinations within 9 months of initial dose

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60
Q

What nurse teaching is included for taking levaodopa/carbidopa?

A

Take medication with food to reduce GI effects

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61
Q

What medications are indicated for absence seizures?

A

ethosuximide
valproic acid
lamotrigine

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62
Q

What instructions are given to a patient taking oxcarbazepine for partial seizures?

A

“Use cause if given a prescription with a diuretic medication” (risk for hyponatremia)
“Consider using alternate form of contraception if using oral contraceptives”
“Avoid driving until you see how med affects you”
“Notify provider if you develop skin rash”

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63
Q

What kind of med is diltiazem?

A

CCB

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64
Q

What lab value should be monitored when taking statins?

A

Statins can cause rhabdo, so creatinine kinase levels may rise.

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65
Q

What is the indication for clozapine?

A

Schizophrenia

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66
Q

What lab value should be monitored when taking clozapine?

A

Total cholesterol, bc clozapine caan cause hyperlipidemia

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67
Q

What is the indication for fluoxetine?

A

Depression.

Fluoxetine also suppresses platelet aggregation. Clients should take tylenol instead of ibuprofen for headaches

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68
Q

What are AEs of haloperidol (antipsychotic neuroleptic med)?

A

Extrapyramidal manifestations such as dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, and akathisia.

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69
Q

What is the indication for amitriptyline?

A

Depression

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70
Q

What is the MOA of docusate sodium?

A

Docusate sodium is a surfactant that softens stool by reducing surface tension, allowing water to penetrate more easily into the stool.

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71
Q

What are AEs of prils (Ace inhibitors)?

A

Enalapril improves cardiac functioning in clients who have heart failure and can cause hyperkalemia due to potassium retention by the kidneys.

Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that has several cardiovascular adverse effects including hypotension, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias.

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72
Q

What are indications of digoxin toxicity?

A

monitor for and report yellow-tinged vision, which is a sign of digoxin toxicity. Other manifestations of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, and fatigue. As the digoxin levels increase, the client can experience cardiac dysrhythmias.

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73
Q

What is administered if magnesium is too high?

A

Calcium gluconate

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74
Q

What are manifestations of aspirin toxicity?

A

Tinnitus is a manifestation of aspirin toxicity, also called salicylism. Other manifestations include sweating, headache, and dizziness.

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75
Q

What are normal WBC?

A

5,000 to 10,000/mm^3

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76
Q

What are normal carbamazepine levels?

A

5 to 12 mcg/mL

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77
Q

What is a normal 24-hour urine glucose level?

A

50-300mg/day

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78
Q

What are normal calcium levels?

A

9.0-10.5mg/dL

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79
Q

What is the indication for hydroxyurea?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia

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80
Q

What is normal RBC levels?

A

4.7-6.1 for males
4.2-5.4 for females

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81
Q

What is the indication for disulfiram?

A

The nurse should administer disulfiram as an aversion therapy to assist with maintaining abstinence from alcohol.

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82
Q

What are normal digoxin levels?

A

0.8 to 2 ng/mL

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83
Q

What condition is contraindicated with propanolol?

A

Asthma. Propranolol is an adrenergic antagonist which blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing bronchoconstriction and leading to serious airway resistance and possibly respiratory arrest.

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84
Q

What sensory deficit should the nurse look out for when administering gentamycin?

A

Impaired hearing.

Gentamicin is ototoxic and can cause irreversible changes to the client’s hearing. The nurse can help minimize ototoxicity by monitoring serum trough levels and notifying the provider if they exceed expected levels.

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85
Q

What are AEs of phenytoin?

A

Insomnia, hypotension and bradycardia

Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of gum tissues. The nurse should instruct the client to brush and floss their teeth frequently and perform gum massage.

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86
Q

What can cause red man syndrome?

A

Rapid IV infusion of vancomycin can result in red man syndrome. Manifestations include flushing, hypotension, and tachycardia.

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87
Q

What causes serotonin syndrome?

A

Serotonin syndrome is a life-threatening effect that can be caused by the combination of an MAOI (selegiline) and an SSRI (fluoxetine). Manifestations include disorientation, incoordination, fever, hyperreflexia, and tremors.

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88
Q

What are the manifestations of serotonin syndrome?

A

disorientation, incoordination, fever, hyperreflexia, and tremors

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89
Q

What is xerostomia?

A

dry mouth

90
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Hives

91
Q

What are normal creatinine levels?

A

0.5 to 1 mg/dL

92
Q

What medications are used for active TB?

A

Isoniazid (INH)
Ethambutol (Myambutol)

93
Q

What clinical manifestation is indicative of ocular toxicity with ethambutol (Myambutol)?

A

The most commonly reported toxic reaction to normal therapeutic doses of ethambutol is ocular toxicity as evidenced by visual disturbances. Examples include changes of color vision (especially red and green) and loss of visual acuity. Treatment with ethambutol should be stopped immediately if ocular toxicity develops.

94
Q

Can you drink alcohol when taking BuSpar (buspirone)?

A

Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication used to treat anxiety, but is different from benzodiazepines because of the fact that it is not a CNS depressant. Because of this, buspirone does not interfere with CNS depressants, such as benzodiazepines, alcohol, or barbiturates, and it is acceptable to have 1 to 2 alcoholic beverages each week.

95
Q

What is the indication for BuSpar (buspirone)?

A

Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication used to treat anxiety, but is different from benzodiazepines because of the fact that it is not a CNS depressant.

96
Q

What is the indication for betamethasone?

A

Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid used in the prevention of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.

97
Q

What is the indication for thiamine?

A

To prevent Wernicke syndrome (caused by lack of vitamin B1, often seen in alcohol abuse)

98
Q

What is an adverse effect of cyclophosphamide?

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

99
Q

What is the indication for cyclophosphamide?

A

Neuroblastoma

100
Q

How can the nurse prevent hemorrhagic cystitis when administering cyclophosphamide?

A

Maintain hydration with liberal fluid intake

101
Q

What is the indication for chlorpromazine?

A

Antipyschotic medication to decrease hallucinations and other manifestations of schizophrenia

102
Q

What is the indication of clonidine?

A

Clonidine is an indirect-acting antiadrenergic agent used for hypertension, severe pain, and attention deficit disorder

103
Q

What is a common adverse effect of clonidine?

A

Dry mouth, or xerostomia
Constipation
Dry eyes
Rashes

104
Q

What adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for when taking estradiol?

A

Hypertension
Headaches
Swelling and tenderness of an extremity
Fluid retention
Genitourinary candidiasis

105
Q

What are manifestations of digoxin toxicity?

A

Nausea, bradycardia, visual changes, anorexia, abdominal pain, muscle weakness, diarrhea

106
Q

What is used to counteract an opiate overdose?

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

107
Q

What is used to counteract a cholinesterase inhibitor overdose, such as neostigmine?

A

Atropine

108
Q

What is the peak of an albuterol metered-dose inhaler?

A

Take 15 min prior to exercise to promote bronchodilation.

The medication’s effects begin immediately, peak in 60 to 90 min, and can last for up to 5 to 6 hr.

109
Q

What medication might a child with autism spectrum disorder be prescribed?

A

SSRI to improve mood and reduce anxiety.

110
Q

T/F: A nurse with a client taking risperidone for their schizophrenia should implement fall precautions.

A

True. Risperidone can cause orthostatic hypotension and dizziness, which can lead to falls. Therefore, the nurse should initiate fall precautions for the client.

111
Q

What is the antidote for hyperkalemia?

A

Calcium gluconate

112
Q

T/F: Increased thirst is an adverse effect of lithium.

A

True. An increase in thirst is a manifestation of lithium toxicity. The nurse should instruct the client to report increased thirst, vomiting, diarrhea, coarse hand tremors, incoordination, ECG changes, and sedation.

113
Q

T/F: Cough is an adverse effect of captopril.

A

True. The client can develop a cough due to a buildup of bradykinin in the lungs.

114
Q

Disulfiram is taken by a client daily for abstinence maintenance. What is an AE of disulfiram?

A

Hepatotoxicity

115
Q

What is a contraindication for the MMR vaccine?

A

Pregnancy or possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks

116
Q

Red Man Syndrome is an AE of which antibiotic therapy?

A

Vancomycin.

Red Man Syndrome or an infusion reaction that results in rashes, flushing, tachycardia and hypotension can occur as an adverse reaction.

117
Q

What are contraindications to salicylate acid therapy?

A

-Third trimester pregnancy
-Thrombocytopenia
-Adolescents with chickenpox

118
Q

T/F: Patients with asthma can take propanolol.

A

False. Clients with asthma should avoid Beta2 Blockade agents such as propranolol. Bronchoconstriction can occur. Clients with asthma should be administered a beta1selective agent.

119
Q

What lab value should be monitored when evaluating therapeutic effect of warfarin?

A

PT

120
Q

What lab value should be monitored when evaluating therapeutic effect of heparin?

A

aPTT

121
Q

What alerts the nurse of digitalis toxicity?

A

Anorexia, fatigue and weakness are signs of potential digitalis toxicity.

GI effects of digitalis toxicity include anorexia, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.

CNS effects include fatigue, weakness, vision changes (diplopia, blurred vision, yellow-green or white halos around objects).

Bradycardia is also commonly noted in digitalis toxicity.

122
Q

What should be monitored with prescribing HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (atorvastatin)?

A

Liver function tests

123
Q

What is the indication for isosorbide mononitrate?

A

long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks

124
Q

When should the client take montelukast?

A

Once daily at bedtime

125
Q

T/F: Nitroglycerin does not directly effect lung function.

A

True

126
Q

What is an AE of metoclopramide?

A

EPS symptoms

127
Q

What are side effects of methyldopa (used for HTN)?

A

dizziness, hypotension, drowsiness, dry mouth

128
Q

What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/mL

129
Q

What is the MOA of omeprazole (used for the treatment of GERD)?

A

PPI that reduces stomach acid

130
Q

What medication is used for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Fludrocortisone. Monitor for HTN and edema

131
Q

What class of drug is benzonatate?

A

Antitussive. Cause cause sedation and dizziness

132
Q

T/F: An increased RR is a manifestation of lidocaine toxicity.

A

False. Lidocaine is used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. A decreased respiratory rate is a manifestation of lidocaine toxicity.

133
Q

What medication can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Haloperidol.

Manifestations: extreme muscle stiffness, sudden increase in temperature, diaphoresis, dysrhythmias, and fluctuations in blood pressure

134
Q

What are manifestations of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

extreme muscle stiffness, sudden increase in temperature, diaphoresis, dysrhythmias, and fluctuations in blood pressure

135
Q

What medication can interact with St. John’s wort?

A

St. John’s wort interacts with many medications and can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with cocaine, amphetamines, and antidepressants, such as citalopram

136
Q

What medications can St. John’s wort decrease the effective of?

A

decreases effectiveness of birth control pills, warfarin, cyclosporine, digoxin, calcium channel blockers, steroids, HIV protease inhibitors, and some chemotherapy agents.

137
Q

What medication can cause agranulocytosis?

A

Methimazole (for hyperthyroidism)

138
Q

What happens when you take both lispro insulin and pramlintide?

A

The nurse should monitor the client for manifestations of hypoglycemia for 3 hr after administering pramlintide.

Pramlintide does not cause hypoglycemia. However, when combined with insulin, hypoglycemia can occur within 3 hr of administration. The client should take pramlintide before meals along with lispro insulin.

139
Q

T/F: Depressed deep tendon reflexes are a symptom of hyperkalemia.

A

False. Indication of hypokalemia.

140
Q

What is the indication for glipizide?

A

administer glipizide, a sulfonylurea, to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus to control blood glucose levels and decrease hemoglobin A1C levels.

141
Q

What is the indication for sitagliptin?

A

administer sitagliptin, a gliptin, to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus to control blood glucose levels and decrease hemoglobin A1C levels.

142
Q

What is the indication for losartan?

A

administer losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, to a client who has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus to slow the progression of nephropathy.

143
Q

What is the indication for ibandronate?

A

Osteoporosis

144
Q

How is ibandronate (med for osteoporosis) taken?

A

on the same date each month to maintain therapeutic medication levels.

145
Q

What disease process is a contraindication for neostigmine (a cholinesterase inhibitor for myasthenia gravis)?

A

Neostigmine increases gastric secretions which would further exacerbate the peptic ulcer disease, thereby increasing the risk for erosion and perforation

146
Q

What is the indication for isoniazid?

A

Tuberculosis

147
Q

When is a patient with tuberculosis deemed not infectious?

A

After three consecutive negative sputum cultures. However, the client should continue the antibiotic treatment for 6 to 12 months.

148
Q

What is an adverse effect of taking simavastin to correct plasma lipid levels?

A

An adverse effect of simvastatin is hepatotoxicity, indicated by an elevated ALT, aspartate aminotransferase, or lactic dehydrogenase level.

Clients who take simvastatin should have regular screenings of liver function to monitor for hepatotoxicity.

149
Q

What is the MOA of leuprolife for prostate cancer?

A

Leuprolide treats prostate cancer by decreasing the production of testosterone. It causes an initial increase in testosterone, which results in desensitization and a subsequent decrease in testosterone production.

150
Q

What medication increases a client’s risk for impotence?

A

Finasteride (for male pattern baldness)

151
Q

What drug class is bumetanide?

A

Loop diuretic

152
Q

What is a potential AE of taking garlic and warfarin concurrently?

A

Increased ecchymosis

153
Q

What condition is a contraindication for taking sumatriptan (for migraine headaches)?

A

Coronary artery disease

154
Q

What lab tests should be monitored when taking gentamicin?

A

Creatinine, BUN, and urine output for a client who is receiving gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic.

Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside that has both nephrotoxic and ototoxic adverse effects.

155
Q

What is the indication for bethanechol?

A

Nonobstructive urinary retention

156
Q

What are AEs of taking aspirin?

A

A client who takes aspirin can have an increased risk for bleeding because aspirin suppresses platelet aggregation.

The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report indications of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, black, tarry stools or blood in urine.

157
Q

What is an important patient education item for taking hydroxychloroquine?

A

The nurse should instruct the client that she will need to have eye exams every 6 months by an ophthalmologist.

Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal damage that can eventually lead to blindness.

158
Q

What is the indication for colesevelam?

A

Hyperlipidemia

159
Q

What are AEs of colesevelam?

A

constipation and dyspepsia

160
Q

T/F: Ibuprofen can reduce pain, inflammation, and fever.

A

True

161
Q

T/F: Ibuprofen can cause the patient to have constipation.

A

True

162
Q

T/F: Hypertension is a contraindication for receiving lorazepam.

A

False. Hypotension is a contraindication for receiving lorazepam.

Also, glaucoma, sleep apnea, and hepatic/renal failure

163
Q

What drug class is promethazine?

A

First-generation antihistamine

164
Q

AEs of promethazine

A

Sedation/somnolence
Urinary retention
Hyperglycemia

165
Q

What physiological changes in older adults can alter the effect of medications?

A

Decrease gastric acidity
Delayed gastric emptying
Decrease stores of body water
Increased body fat

166
Q

What are signs of methadone toxicity?

A

difficulty breathing, extreme tiredness, blurred vision, and confusion

167
Q

What rate should digoxin be adminsitered?

A

Over 5 minutes to reduce risk of toxicity

168
Q

What is wrong with this prescription: Morphine 5.0mg IV every 4 hr as needed for pain

A

The nurse should identify that the right dose of medication should be clarified with the provider. A trailing zero is prohibited because it can lead to medication administration errors.

169
Q

How often should intravenous tubing be replaced for a patient with a PICC?

A

Every 24 hours

170
Q

T/F: Cirrhosis is a contraindication for administering omeprazole.

A

True

171
Q

Side effects of anastrozole

A

Muscle and joint paint

172
Q

Which medication should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of meperidine?

A

Naloxone

173
Q

What is raloxiphine used to treat?

A

Osteoporosis

174
Q

T/F: CCB increases a patient’s risk of heart failure.

A

True

175
Q

What is a complication of ACE medications?

A

Can cause angioedema

176
Q

What is a contraindication for using Beta Blockers?

A

Cause use with asthma

177
Q

What type of drugs are contraindicated with alpha agonists?

A

Anticoagulants

178
Q

What antidysrhythmic drug fits the description:
Indication: HR above 50
SE: Flushing, bronchospasms
Note: Must give quickly bc of short 1/2 life

A

Adenosine

179
Q

What antidysrhythmic drug fits the description:
Indication: Vfib or unstable VT
SE: Bradycardia, pulmonary complications
Note: Monitor respirations, do NOT give with heparin

A

Amiodorone

180
Q

What antidysrhythmic drug fits the description:
Indication: HR before 60
Note: Monitor urine output, assess HR

A

Atropine

181
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Interferes with clotting

A

Anticoagulant

182
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Heparin

A

Anticoagulant

183
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Clopidogrel

A

Anti-platelet

184
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Supplements increase bleeding risk

A

Anticoagulant

185
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Ecchymosis and tarry stools may indicate prolonged bleeding.

A

Anti-platelet

186
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Arterial

A

Anti-platelet

187
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Venous

A

Anticoagulant

188
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Warfarin

A

Anticoagulant

189
Q

Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
ASA

A

Anti-platelet

190
Q

What class of drug is ateplace/reteplace?

A

Thrombolytics (dissolved clots)

191
Q

Ototoxicity is a SE of what drug?

A

Vancomycin/Gentamycin

192
Q

What lab values should be checked when giving vancomycin?

A

BUN/Creatinine

193
Q

Drugs ending in -lam and -pam are for short or long term use?

A

Short

194
Q

Zolpiden tartrate is for short or long term use?

A

Short.
Zolpiden tartrate (Ambien)

195
Q

What drug class is contraindicated with Parkinson’s meds?

A

MAOIs

196
Q

Cholestyramine, Colestipol, and Colesevelam are all part of what drug class?

A

Bile acid sequestrant

197
Q

Why are bile acid sequestrants used to treat MI?

A

Bile acid sequestrants lower LDL by binding bile acids in the intestines, reducing their reabsorption and reducing cholesterol production in the liver

198
Q

What drug class is amitriptyline?

A

Tricyclic antidepressant.

Side effects: constipation, xerostomia, mydriasis, blurred vision, urinary hesitancy, orthostatic hypotension, impotence, tremor, sweating, confusion, somnolence

199
Q

What is xerostomia?

A

Dry mouth

200
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

Dilated pupils

201
Q

What is benztropine used for?

A

Used to treat parkinsonism manifestations, such as shuffling gait

202
Q

Ergotamine is administered to treat what condition?

A

Migraine headaches.

203
Q

Allopurinol is used to treat what condition?

A

Gout

204
Q

What medication is a contraindication to cefrriaxone?

A

Piperacillin (penicillin)

205
Q

T/F: Prednisone can lead to osteoporosis and stress fractures.

A

True. Prednisone can cause demineralization of the bones leading to those things.

206
Q

Which of the following drugs are NSAIDS?

Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Aspirin
Acetaminophen

A

Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Aspirin

Acetaminophen is an analgesic and does not affect blood coagulation and does not increase risk of GI bleed (unlike others)

207
Q

What kinda of drug is amphotericin B?

A

Antifungal medication, but it can cause nephrotoxicity.

208
Q

What lab value should be monitored when taking amphotericin B?

A

Because this drug can cause nephrotoxicity, creatine should be monitored every 3 to 4 days.

209
Q

What lab value indicates a therapeutic effect of filgrastim?

A

Neutrophil count.

Filgrastim increases neutrophil production. Given to treat neutropenia and reduce the risk of infection for clients receiving chemotherapy or for clients who have undergone bone marrow transplant.

210
Q

What medication is nephrotoxic and ototoxic?

A

Gentamicin. Can cause impaired hearing and proteinuria d/t nephrotoxicity. Can also cause oliguria and hematuria.

211
Q

Why is metoclopramide contraindicated with clients who have intestinal obstruction?

A

Metoclopramide reduces n/v by increasing gastric motility and promoting gastric emptying.

212
Q

Why is aspirin contraindicated for children who have a viral infection?

A

Due to risk of developing Reye’s syndrome

213
Q

What kind of drug is amantadine?

A

Antiparkinsonian medication.

Used to treat extrapyramidal manifestations that can occur with chlorpromazine therapy.

214
Q

What should the RN monitor the client for administering clopidogrel?

A

Clopidogrel is an antithrombotic medication. Should monitor for coffee ground emesis, black tarry stools, ecchymosis, and any indication of bleeding

215
Q

What lab values should be monitored when taking valproic acid?

A

PTT (Valproic acid can alter coagulation)
AST and ALT

216
Q

What diagnostic test should be done before starting a client on amitriptyline to treat depression?

A

ECG bc amitriptyline can cause tachycardia and ECG changes.

217
Q

T/F: Phenazopyridine can cause client’s urine to turn a reddish-orange color.

A

True. Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic used to relieve pain and burning during urination.

218
Q

T/F: Doxycycline should be take on an empty stomach.

A

True. Food reduces the absorption of this medication.

219
Q

T/F: A client with a moderate illness without fever is contraindicated for receiving all vaccines.

A

True

220
Q

Insulin glulisine has an onset of action of _____.

A

15 minutes

221
Q

T/F: Low blood pressure is a common AE of QT medication.

A

False. Bradycardia is a common AE of QT medication.

222
Q
A

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