Pharmocology Flashcards
(222 cards)
1
Q
What are manifestations of heparin toxicity?
A
blood in urine, bruising, hematomas, hypotension, tachycardia
2
Q
What instructions should the nurse include in the teaching of beclomethasone for the treatment of asthma?
A
The client should rinse their mouth after using beclomethasone, a glucocorticoid inhaler, to prevent oropharylngeal candidiasis and hoarseness.
3
Q
What is the concern of taking aspirin with warfarin?
A
Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can potentiate the action of warfarin.
Pt should avoid taking aspirin bc it increases the risk for bleeding
4
Q
What causes a cholinergic crisis?
A
Excess amount of cholinesterase inhibitor, such as neostigmine
5
Q
What med is used in a cholinergic crisis?
A
Atropine, an anticholinergic agent
6
Q
What medication interacts with calcium gluconate?
A
Calcium gluconate can cause hypercalcemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity
7
Q
What is filgrastim used for?
A
Stimulates bone marrow to produce neutrophils
8
Q
On an EKG, what indicates hypokalemia?
A
Presence of U-waves
Flattene/inverted T-waves
9
Q
On an EKG, what indicates hyperkalemia?
A
Tall, tended T-waves
10
Q
When taking lithium, what OTC med should be d/c?
A
Ibuprofen. Most NSAIDs can significantly increase lithium levels
11
Q
What med is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?
A
Acetylcysteine. Can prevent severe injury when given orally or by IV infusion within 8 to 10 hours
12
Q
What are adverse effects of mannitol?
A
Heart failure and pulmonary edema.
Nurse should recognize lung crackles as indicator of potential complication and stop infusion
13
Q
What test must be done before a patient obtains a refill of tretinoin?
A
Pregnancy test, bc tretinoin has teratogenic effects
Client must have two negative pregnancy tests for the initial prescription and one negative test before monthly refills
14
Q
What are the AEs of donepezil?
A
Bronchoconstriction, dyspepsia, diarrhea, and dizziness are caused by increase in acetylcholine levels
Contact provider if dyspnea occurs dt bronchoconstriction
15
Q
What causes late decelerations on an external FHR monitor?
A
uteroplacental insufficiency
Place client in side-lying/lateral position
16
Q
What is a common AE of neostigmine?
A
Miosis (pupillary constriction) due to excessive muscarinic stimulation
Bradycardia
Urinary urgency
Increased salivation
17
Q
What are normal potassium levels?
A
3.5-5 mEq/L
18
Q
What are normal hemoglobin levels?
A
14-18 g/dL for male
12-16 g/dL for female
19
Q
What are normal platelet levels?
A
150,000-400,000/mm^3
20
Q
What is an indication for sucralfate?
A
Peptic ulcer disease
21
Q
What is the MOA of sucralfate?
A
Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
Sucralfate, a mucosal protectant, forms a gel-like substance that coats the ulcer, creating a barrier to hydrochloric acid and pepsin
22
Q
What are normal calcium levels?
A
9.0-10.5 mg/dL
23
Q
What are normal levels for magnesium?
A
1.3-2.1 mEq/L
24
Q
What are normal digoxin levels?
A
0.8 to 2 ng/mL
25
What is the indication for oxybutynin?
urinary incontinence
26
What are AEs of oxybutynin?
dry mouth
blurred vision
dry eyes
27
What is the MOA of oxybutynin and therefore its AEs?
anticholinergic agent
dry mouth
blurred vision-increased intraocular pressure
dry eyes
mydriasis-pupil dilation
28
What class drug is gentamicin?
Aminoglycosides. Can manifest as tinnitus and deafness
29
What are AEs of gentamicin?
twitching
flaccid paralysis
tinnitus
deafness
inflammation of liver and spleen
30
What is the antidote to reverse benzodiazepines?
flumazenil
31
What is the antidote for heparin?
Protamine sulfate, used to reverse an elevated aPTT
32
What is the nursing instruction for taking ergotamine to treat migraine headaches?
Take one tablet immediately after onset of aura or headache
33
What medication is administered during anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine to induce vasoconstriction and bronchodilation
34
What are AEs of tamoxifen?
Menstrual irregularities
Hot flashes
Bruising
N/V
35
What is the MOA of tamoxifen?
Antiestrogen medication that works by blocking estrogen receptors
36
What is the indication for bupropion?
Aid to quit smoking
37
What are the AEs of bupropion?
Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant, has stimulant properties, which can result in agitation, tremors, mania, and insomnia
38
What medication interferes with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
Carbamazepine. Causes an accelerated inactivation of oral contraceptives bc of its action on hepatic medication-metabolizing enzymes
39
What is the generic name for Narcan?
Naloxone
40
What is the indication for nitroglycerin?
Angina pain
41
How does one avoid tolerance to nitroglycerin transdermal patches?
Take patch off right after evening meal.
Medication-free time of 12 to 14 hours before applying a new patch
42
What is the indication for acetazolamide?
Glaucoma
43
What are AEs of acetazolamide?
Paresthesia, tingling of extremities
Diarrhea
Weight loss
Polyuria
44
What helps to minimize the risk of oral candidiasis and dysphonia when taking inhaled corticosteroids?
Using a spacer and rinsing the mouth after inhalation
45
When should a newborn receive their first DTaP vaccine?
2 months
46
What is a medication used for UTIs?
Ciprofloxacin
47
What is a contraindication for taking ciprofloxacin?
Tendonitis, dt risk of tendon rupture
48
What medication prevents delirium tremens?
Chlordiazepoxide
49
Delirium tremens is a severe effect of what condition?
Acute alcohol withdrawal
50
What is the MOA of digoxin?
Slows the conduction rate through the SA and AV nodes, thereby decreasing the HR.
51
What is the indication for raloxifene?
Postmenopausal osteoporosis
52
What are AEs of raloxifene?
Hot flashes
Swelling or redness in calf
SOB
53
What is the indication for alendronate?
Osteoporsis
54
What is the teaching for taking alendronate?
Take medication in AM before eating to increase absorption
Drink an 8 oz glass of water with each tablet
Avoid lying down after taking this medication
55
What actions should the nurse take when a client develops malignant hyperthermia?
Infuse iced IV fluids
Provide 100% oxygen
Place a cooling blanket on client
Administer IV dantrolene
56
What medication is used during malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
57
What class of drug is neostigmine?
Cholinesterase inhibitor, used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers
58
What is the indication for pramipexole?
Parkinson's disease
59
What are AEs of pramipexole?
Hallucinations within 9 months of initial dose
60
What nurse teaching is included for taking levaodopa/carbidopa?
Take medication with food to reduce GI effects
61
What medications are indicated for absence seizures?
ethosuximide
valproic acid
lamotrigine
62
What instructions are given to a patient taking oxcarbazepine for partial seizures?
"Use cause if given a prescription with a diuretic medication" (risk for hyponatremia)
"Consider using alternate form of contraception if using oral contraceptives"
"Avoid driving until you see how med affects you"
"Notify provider if you develop skin rash"
63
What kind of med is diltiazem?
CCB
64
What lab value should be monitored when taking statins?
Statins can cause rhabdo, so creatinine kinase levels may rise.
65
What is the indication for clozapine?
Schizophrenia
66
What lab value should be monitored when taking clozapine?
Total cholesterol, bc clozapine caan cause hyperlipidemia
67
What is the indication for fluoxetine?
Depression.
Fluoxetine also suppresses platelet aggregation. Clients should take tylenol instead of ibuprofen for headaches
68
What are AEs of haloperidol (antipsychotic neuroleptic med)?
Extrapyramidal manifestations such as dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, and akathisia.
69
What is the indication for amitriptyline?
Depression
70
What is the MOA of docusate sodium?
Docusate sodium is a surfactant that softens stool by reducing surface tension, allowing water to penetrate more easily into the stool.
71
What are AEs of prils (Ace inhibitors)?
Enalapril improves cardiac functioning in clients who have heart failure and can cause hyperkalemia due to potassium retention by the kidneys.
Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that has several cardiovascular adverse effects including hypotension, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias.
72
What are indications of digoxin toxicity?
monitor for and report yellow-tinged vision, which is a sign of digoxin toxicity. Other manifestations of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, and fatigue. As the digoxin levels increase, the client can experience cardiac dysrhythmias.
73
What is administered if magnesium is too high?
Calcium gluconate
74
What are manifestations of aspirin toxicity?
Tinnitus is a manifestation of aspirin toxicity, also called salicylism. Other manifestations include sweating, headache, and dizziness.
75
What are normal WBC?
5,000 to 10,000/mm^3
76
What are normal carbamazepine levels?
5 to 12 mcg/mL
77
What is a normal 24-hour urine glucose level?
50-300mg/day
78
What are normal calcium levels?
9.0-10.5mg/dL
79
What is the indication for hydroxyurea?
Sickle Cell Anemia
80
What is normal RBC levels?
4.7-6.1 for males
4.2-5.4 for females
81
What is the indication for disulfiram?
The nurse should administer disulfiram as an aversion therapy to assist with maintaining abstinence from alcohol.
82
What are normal digoxin levels?
0.8 to 2 ng/mL
83
What condition is contraindicated with propanolol?
Asthma. Propranolol is an adrenergic antagonist which blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing bronchoconstriction and leading to serious airway resistance and possibly respiratory arrest.
84
What sensory deficit should the nurse look out for when administering gentamycin?
Impaired hearing.
Gentamicin is ototoxic and can cause irreversible changes to the client's hearing. The nurse can help minimize ototoxicity by monitoring serum trough levels and notifying the provider if they exceed expected levels.
85
What are AEs of phenytoin?
Insomnia, hypotension and bradycardia
Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of gum tissues. The nurse should instruct the client to brush and floss their teeth frequently and perform gum massage.
86
What can cause red man syndrome?
Rapid IV infusion of vancomycin can result in red man syndrome. Manifestations include flushing, hypotension, and tachycardia.
87
What causes serotonin syndrome?
Serotonin syndrome is a life-threatening effect that can be caused by the combination of an MAOI (selegiline) and an SSRI (fluoxetine). Manifestations include disorientation, incoordination, fever, hyperreflexia, and tremors.
88
What are the manifestations of serotonin syndrome?
disorientation, incoordination, fever, hyperreflexia, and tremors
89
What is xerostomia?
dry mouth
90
What is urticaria?
Hives
91
What are normal creatinine levels?
0.5 to 1 mg/dL
92
What medications are used for active TB?
Isoniazid (INH)
Ethambutol (Myambutol)
93
What clinical manifestation is indicative of ocular toxicity with ethambutol (Myambutol)?
The most commonly reported toxic reaction to normal therapeutic doses of ethambutol is ocular toxicity as evidenced by visual disturbances. Examples include changes of color vision (especially red and green) and loss of visual acuity. Treatment with ethambutol should be stopped immediately if ocular toxicity develops.
94
Can you drink alcohol when taking BuSpar (buspirone)?
Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication used to treat anxiety, but is different from benzodiazepines because of the fact that it is not a CNS depressant. Because of this, buspirone does not interfere with CNS depressants, such as benzodiazepines, alcohol, or barbiturates, and it is acceptable to have 1 to 2 alcoholic beverages each week.
95
What is the indication for BuSpar (buspirone)?
Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication used to treat anxiety, but is different from benzodiazepines because of the fact that it is not a CNS depressant.
96
What is the indication for betamethasone?
Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid used in the prevention of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.
97
What is the indication for thiamine?
To prevent Wernicke syndrome (caused by lack of vitamin B1, often seen in alcohol abuse)
98
What is an adverse effect of cyclophosphamide?
Hemorrhagic cystitis
99
What is the indication for cyclophosphamide?
Neuroblastoma
100
How can the nurse prevent hemorrhagic cystitis when administering cyclophosphamide?
Maintain hydration with liberal fluid intake
101
What is the indication for chlorpromazine?
Antipyschotic medication to decrease hallucinations and other manifestations of schizophrenia
102
What is the indication of clonidine?
Clonidine is an indirect-acting antiadrenergic agent used for hypertension, severe pain, and attention deficit disorder
103
What is a common adverse effect of clonidine?
Dry mouth, or xerostomia
Constipation
Dry eyes
Rashes
104
What adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for when taking estradiol?
Hypertension
Headaches
Swelling and tenderness of an extremity
Fluid retention
Genitourinary candidiasis
105
What are manifestations of digoxin toxicity?
Nausea, bradycardia, visual changes, anorexia, abdominal pain, muscle weakness, diarrhea
106
What is used to counteract an opiate overdose?
Naloxone (Narcan)
107
What is used to counteract a cholinesterase inhibitor overdose, such as neostigmine?
Atropine
108
What is the peak of an albuterol metered-dose inhaler?
Take 15 min prior to exercise to promote bronchodilation.
The medication's effects begin immediately, peak in 60 to 90 min, and can last for up to 5 to 6 hr.
109
What medication might a child with autism spectrum disorder be prescribed?
SSRI to improve mood and reduce anxiety.
110
T/F: A nurse with a client taking risperidone for their schizophrenia should implement fall precautions.
True. Risperidone can cause orthostatic hypotension and dizziness, which can lead to falls. Therefore, the nurse should initiate fall precautions for the client.
111
What is the antidote for hyperkalemia?
Calcium gluconate
112
T/F: Increased thirst is an adverse effect of lithium.
True. An increase in thirst is a manifestation of lithium toxicity. The nurse should instruct the client to report increased thirst, vomiting, diarrhea, coarse hand tremors, incoordination, ECG changes, and sedation.
113
T/F: Cough is an adverse effect of captopril.
True. The client can develop a cough due to a buildup of bradykinin in the lungs.
114
Disulfiram is taken by a client daily for abstinence maintenance. What is an AE of disulfiram?
Hepatotoxicity
115
What is a contraindication for the MMR vaccine?
Pregnancy or possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
116
Red Man Syndrome is an AE of which antibiotic therapy?
Vancomycin.
Red Man Syndrome or an infusion reaction that results in rashes, flushing, tachycardia and hypotension can occur as an adverse reaction.
117
What are contraindications to salicylate acid therapy?
-Third trimester pregnancy
-Thrombocytopenia
-Adolescents with chickenpox
118
T/F: Patients with asthma can take propanolol.
False. Clients with asthma should avoid Beta2 Blockade agents such as propranolol. Bronchoconstriction can occur. Clients with asthma should be administered a beta1selective agent.
119
What lab value should be monitored when evaluating therapeutic effect of warfarin?
PT
120
What lab value should be monitored when evaluating therapeutic effect of heparin?
aPTT
121
What alerts the nurse of digitalis toxicity?
Anorexia, fatigue and weakness are signs of potential digitalis toxicity.
GI effects of digitalis toxicity include anorexia, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.
CNS effects include fatigue, weakness, vision changes (diplopia, blurred vision, yellow-green or white halos around objects).
Bradycardia is also commonly noted in digitalis toxicity.
122
What should be monitored with prescribing HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (atorvastatin)?
Liver function tests
123
What is the indication for isosorbide mononitrate?
long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks
124
When should the client take montelukast?
Once daily at bedtime
125
T/F: Nitroglycerin does not directly effect lung function.
True
126
What is an AE of metoclopramide?
EPS symptoms
127
What are side effects of methyldopa (used for HTN)?
dizziness, hypotension, drowsiness, dry mouth
128
What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?
10-20 mcg/mL
129
What is the MOA of omeprazole (used for the treatment of GERD)?
PPI that reduces stomach acid
130
What medication is used for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency?
Fludrocortisone. Monitor for HTN and edema
131
What class of drug is benzonatate?
Antitussive. Cause cause sedation and dizziness
132
T/F: An increased RR is a manifestation of lidocaine toxicity.
False. Lidocaine is used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. A decreased respiratory rate is a manifestation of lidocaine toxicity.
133
What medication can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Haloperidol.
Manifestations: extreme muscle stiffness, sudden increase in temperature, diaphoresis, dysrhythmias, and fluctuations in blood pressure
134
What are manifestations of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
extreme muscle stiffness, sudden increase in temperature, diaphoresis, dysrhythmias, and fluctuations in blood pressure
135
What medication can interact with St. John's wort?
St. John's wort interacts with many medications and can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with cocaine, amphetamines, and antidepressants, such as citalopram
136
What medications can St. John's wort decrease the effective of?
decreases effectiveness of birth control pills, warfarin, cyclosporine, digoxin, calcium channel blockers, steroids, HIV protease inhibitors, and some chemotherapy agents.
137
What medication can cause agranulocytosis?
Methimazole (for hyperthyroidism)
138
What happens when you take both lispro insulin and pramlintide?
The nurse should monitor the client for manifestations of hypoglycemia for 3 hr after administering pramlintide.
Pramlintide does not cause hypoglycemia. However, when combined with insulin, hypoglycemia can occur within 3 hr of administration. The client should take pramlintide before meals along with lispro insulin.
139
T/F: Depressed deep tendon reflexes are a symptom of hyperkalemia.
False. Indication of hypokalemia.
140
What is the indication for glipizide?
administer glipizide, a sulfonylurea, to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus to control blood glucose levels and decrease hemoglobin A1C levels.
141
What is the indication for sitagliptin?
administer sitagliptin, a gliptin, to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus to control blood glucose levels and decrease hemoglobin A1C levels.
142
What is the indication for losartan?
administer losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, to a client who has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus to slow the progression of nephropathy.
143
What is the indication for ibandronate?
Osteoporosis
144
How is ibandronate (med for osteoporosis) taken?
on the same date each month to maintain therapeutic medication levels.
145
What disease process is a contraindication for neostigmine (a cholinesterase inhibitor for myasthenia gravis)?
Neostigmine increases gastric secretions which would further exacerbate the peptic ulcer disease, thereby increasing the risk for erosion and perforation
146
What is the indication for isoniazid?
Tuberculosis
147
When is a patient with tuberculosis deemed not infectious?
After three consecutive negative sputum cultures. However, the client should continue the antibiotic treatment for 6 to 12 months.
148
What is an adverse effect of taking simavastin to correct plasma lipid levels?
An adverse effect of simvastatin is hepatotoxicity, indicated by an elevated ALT, aspartate aminotransferase, or lactic dehydrogenase level.
Clients who take simvastatin should have regular screenings of liver function to monitor for hepatotoxicity.
149
What is the MOA of leuprolife for prostate cancer?
Leuprolide treats prostate cancer by decreasing the production of testosterone. It causes an initial increase in testosterone, which results in desensitization and a subsequent decrease in testosterone production.
150
What medication increases a client's risk for impotence?
Finasteride (for male pattern baldness)
151
What drug class is bumetanide?
Loop diuretic
152
What is a potential AE of taking garlic and warfarin concurrently?
Increased ecchymosis
153
What condition is a contraindication for taking sumatriptan (for migraine headaches)?
Coronary artery disease
154
What lab tests should be monitored when taking gentamicin?
Creatinine, BUN, and urine output for a client who is receiving gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside that has both nephrotoxic and ototoxic adverse effects.
155
What is the indication for bethanechol?
Nonobstructive urinary retention
156
What are AEs of taking aspirin?
A client who takes aspirin can have an increased risk for bleeding because aspirin suppresses platelet aggregation.
The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report indications of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, black, tarry stools or blood in urine.
157
What is an important patient education item for taking hydroxychloroquine?
The nurse should instruct the client that she will need to have eye exams every 6 months by an ophthalmologist.
Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal damage that can eventually lead to blindness.
158
What is the indication for colesevelam?
Hyperlipidemia
159
What are AEs of colesevelam?
constipation and dyspepsia
160
T/F: Ibuprofen can reduce pain, inflammation, and fever.
True
161
T/F: Ibuprofen can cause the patient to have constipation.
True
162
T/F: Hypertension is a contraindication for receiving lorazepam.
False. Hypotension is a contraindication for receiving lorazepam.
Also, glaucoma, sleep apnea, and hepatic/renal failure
163
What drug class is promethazine?
First-generation antihistamine
164
AEs of promethazine
Sedation/somnolence
Urinary retention
Hyperglycemia
165
What physiological changes in older adults can alter the effect of medications?
Decrease gastric acidity
Delayed gastric emptying
Decrease stores of body water
Increased body fat
166
What are signs of methadone toxicity?
difficulty breathing, extreme tiredness, blurred vision, and confusion
167
What rate should digoxin be adminsitered?
Over 5 minutes to reduce risk of toxicity
168
What is wrong with this prescription: Morphine 5.0mg IV every 4 hr as needed for pain
The nurse should identify that the right dose of medication should be clarified with the provider. A trailing zero is prohibited because it can lead to medication administration errors.
169
How often should intravenous tubing be replaced for a patient with a PICC?
Every 24 hours
170
T/F: Cirrhosis is a contraindication for administering omeprazole.
True
171
Side effects of anastrozole
Muscle and joint paint
172
Which medication should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of meperidine?
Naloxone
173
What is raloxiphine used to treat?
Osteoporosis
174
T/F: CCB increases a patient's risk of heart failure.
True
175
What is a complication of ACE medications?
Can cause angioedema
176
What is a contraindication for using Beta Blockers?
Cause use with asthma
177
What type of drugs are contraindicated with alpha agonists?
Anticoagulants
178
What antidysrhythmic drug fits the description:
Indication: HR above 50
SE: Flushing, bronchospasms
Note: Must give quickly bc of short 1/2 life
Adenosine
179
What antidysrhythmic drug fits the description:
Indication: Vfib or unstable VT
SE: Bradycardia, pulmonary complications
Note: Monitor respirations, do NOT give with heparin
Amiodorone
180
What antidysrhythmic drug fits the description:
Indication: HR before 60
Note: Monitor urine output, assess HR
Atropine
181
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Interferes with clotting
Anticoagulant
182
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Heparin
Anticoagulant
183
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Clopidogrel
Anti-platelet
184
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Supplements increase bleeding risk
Anticoagulant
185
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Ecchymosis and tarry stools may indicate prolonged bleeding.
Anti-platelet
186
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Arterial
Anti-platelet
187
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Venous
Anticoagulant
188
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
Warfarin
Anticoagulant
189
Anticoagulant vs Anti-platelet:
ASA
Anti-platelet
190
What class of drug is ateplace/reteplace?
Thrombolytics (dissolved clots)
191
Ototoxicity is a SE of what drug?
Vancomycin/Gentamycin
192
What lab values should be checked when giving vancomycin?
BUN/Creatinine
193
Drugs ending in -lam and -pam are for short or long term use?
Short
194
Zolpiden tartrate is for short or long term use?
Short.
Zolpiden tartrate (Ambien)
195
What drug class is contraindicated with Parkinson's meds?
MAOIs
196
Cholestyramine, Colestipol, and Colesevelam are all part of what drug class?
Bile acid sequestrant
197
Why are bile acid sequestrants used to treat MI?
Bile acid sequestrants lower LDL by binding bile acids in the intestines, reducing their reabsorption and reducing cholesterol production in the liver
198
What drug class is amitriptyline?
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Side effects: constipation, xerostomia, mydriasis, blurred vision, urinary hesitancy, orthostatic hypotension, impotence, tremor, sweating, confusion, somnolence
199
What is xerostomia?
Dry mouth
200
What is mydriasis?
Dilated pupils
201
What is benztropine used for?
Used to treat parkinsonism manifestations, such as shuffling gait
202
Ergotamine is administered to treat what condition?
Migraine headaches.
203
Allopurinol is used to treat what condition?
Gout
204
What medication is a contraindication to cefrriaxone?
Piperacillin (penicillin)
205
T/F: Prednisone can lead to osteoporosis and stress fractures.
True. Prednisone can cause demineralization of the bones leading to those things.
206
Which of the following drugs are NSAIDS?
Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Aspirin
Acetaminophen
Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Aspirin
Acetaminophen is an analgesic and does not affect blood coagulation and does not increase risk of GI bleed (unlike others)
207
What kinda of drug is amphotericin B?
Antifungal medication, but it can cause nephrotoxicity.
208
What lab value should be monitored when taking amphotericin B?
Because this drug can cause nephrotoxicity, creatine should be monitored every 3 to 4 days.
209
What lab value indicates a therapeutic effect of filgrastim?
Neutrophil count.
Filgrastim increases neutrophil production. Given to treat neutropenia and reduce the risk of infection for clients receiving chemotherapy or for clients who have undergone bone marrow transplant.
210
What medication is nephrotoxic and ototoxic?
Gentamicin. Can cause impaired hearing and proteinuria d/t nephrotoxicity. Can also cause oliguria and hematuria.
211
Why is metoclopramide contraindicated with clients who have intestinal obstruction?
Metoclopramide reduces n/v by increasing gastric motility and promoting gastric emptying.
212
Why is aspirin contraindicated for children who have a viral infection?
Due to risk of developing Reye's syndrome
213
What kind of drug is amantadine?
Antiparkinsonian medication.
Used to treat extrapyramidal manifestations that can occur with chlorpromazine therapy.
214
What should the RN monitor the client for administering clopidogrel?
Clopidogrel is an antithrombotic medication. Should monitor for coffee ground emesis, black tarry stools, ecchymosis, and any indication of bleeding
215
What lab values should be monitored when taking valproic acid?
PTT (Valproic acid can alter coagulation)
AST and ALT
216
What diagnostic test should be done before starting a client on amitriptyline to treat depression?
ECG bc amitriptyline can cause tachycardia and ECG changes.
217
T/F: Phenazopyridine can cause client's urine to turn a reddish-orange color.
True. Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic used to relieve pain and burning during urination.
218
T/F: Doxycycline should be take on an empty stomach.
True. Food reduces the absorption of this medication.
219
T/F: A client with a moderate illness without fever is contraindicated for receiving all vaccines.
True
220
Insulin glulisine has an onset of action of _____.
15 minutes
221
T/F: Low blood pressure is a common AE of QT medication.
False. Bradycardia is a common AE of QT medication.
222
