MSK

Question 1

What are major functions of bone?

Answer 1

Support
Protection
Movement
Hormone Production
Blood Cell Formation
Triglyeride Fat Storage
Mineral and growth factor storage

Question 2

What are part of axial skeleton?

Answer 2

Skull
Vertebral column
Rib cage

Question 3

What are parts of appendicular skeleton?

Answer 3

Upper limbs
Lower limbs
Girdles

Question 4

What types of bone shapes are there?

Answer 4

Long bones - shaft and 2 ends
Short bones - roughly cube shaped
Flat bones - thin flattened and curved
Irregular bones - complicated shapes

Question 5

Which bones undergo intramembranous ossification?

Answer 5

Cranial bones
Clavicle

‘flat bones’

Question 6

When does intramembranous ossification occur?

Answer 6

In utero - before 8 weeks

Question 7

Which bones undergo endochondral ossification

Answer 7

All bones below head (except classification)

Question 8

when does endochondral ossification occur?

Answer 8

Around 2 months in utero

Question 9

Which hormones regulate bone growth

Answer 9

hypothamalamus affects anterior pituitary gland

this secretes growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone and LH/FSH

T3 and T4 and calcitonin from thyroid gives negative feedback to stop secretion.

Question 10

How much % of bone mass is recycled every week

Answer 10

5-7%

Means who new skeleton every 7-10 years

Question 11

What are common causes of fractures?

Answer 11

Trauma
Osteoporosis
Overuse

Question 12

What are symptoms of fracture?

Answer 12

Swelling/tenderness
Bruising
Deformity

Question 13

What is treatment for broken bone?

Answer 13

Cast/Immobilsation
Brace
Traction
External Fixation 
ORIF

Question 14

What is buckle fracture

Answer 14

When 2 bones driven into each other

Question 15

What are salter Harris fractures?

Answer 15

Involving the growth plate

SALT ER
Type 1. Separated growth plate
2. Above growth plate
3. Lower than growth plate
4. Through growth plate
5. Erasure of growth plate (pressed together)

Question 16

What are consequences of Salter Harris fracture?

Answer 16

Growth arrest and deformity - but not all physeal injuries have same risk of injury.

Question 17

Which are most common salter Harris fracture?

Answer 17

type 2. 74% of all physeal fractures

Question 18

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

Answer 18

A defect where collagen is missing reduced or of low quality. Therefore not enough support for the minerals in the bone. Makes it weak and easy to fracture.

There are different types which determine how severe it is. e.g. OI type 2 may fracture in utero - most severe - may be life threatening

Type 1 mild

Type 3 severe

Question 19

What are signs and symptoms of OI?

Answer 19

Range from mild to severe.

Fratures may occur easily -

Sclera of eyes may be blue coloured

Hypermobile joints

Poor dentistry

Bowing/altered bones

Hearing problems

Question 20

How is OI diagnosed?

Answer 20

X-rays used to check bones

DEXA carried out to check bone density

No definitive test except genetic testing.

Question 21

How is OI treated?

Answer 21

With pamidronate and zoledronic acid infusion.

Both type of bisphosphonate - prevents loss of bone mass.

Vit D may be given.

Question 22

What is developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Answer 22

Hip instability which ranges from mild acetabular dysplasia to dislocation.

The hip socket is shallow and so the femoral head may slip in and out.

Question 23

What is occurrence of DDH?

Answer 23

1-3% of newborns.

80% in girls.

Question 24

How is DDH diagnosed?

Answer 24

Ultrasound up to 4.5 months.

X-rays as child older.

Clinically, limited hip abduction when hip is flexed to 90 degree.

Question 25

What are causes of DDH?

Answer 25

Breach presentation

Connective tissue laxity.
Large for gestational age
Multiple pregnancy

Risks include family history.

Question 26

What is treatment of DDH?

Answer 26

dynamic flextion-abduction othosis called pavlik harness or splinting.

Or spica cast.

If late then may need pelvis osteotomy.

Question 27

What is consequence of DDH

Answer 27

possible premature degenerative joint disease.