MSK extra Flashcards

(106 cards)

1
Q

Adults have __% cortical bone, __% trabecular bone.

A

80
20

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2
Q

PTH acts on the kidney to increase reabsorption of calcium within the ________ tubule of the nephron and to increase phosphate secretion in the ________ tubule of the nephron.

A

Distal
Proximal

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3
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency leads to soft bones

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4
Q

What is the precursor of a skeletal cell?

A

Satellite cell

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5
Q

Osteoclasts bind to the bone matrix via which receptors?

A

Integrin

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6
Q

What is the main component of bone ECM?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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7
Q

Premature osteocyte death occurs in…

A

osteoporosis.

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8
Q

Where do osteocytes reside?

A

Lacunae

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9
Q

Red bone marrow is found in which type of bone?

A

Flat

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10
Q

Prostate metastasis causes _________ lesions whereas renal and thyroid metastasis cause ________ lesions.

A

Sclerotic

Osteolytic

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11
Q

When is the popeye sign present?

A

Long head of biceps rupture proximally

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12
Q

What is a common cause of swelling and knee pain in kids?

A

Osgood-Schlatter’s disease

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13
Q

Stress fractures are obvious and easily seen by Xrays. T/F

A

False

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14
Q

In a suspected spinal injury, what is the best way to open the airawy?

A

Jaw thrust

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15
Q

Match these foot injuries to their associations:

  1. Lisfranc injury
  2. metatarsal base stress fracture
  3. Calcaneal fracture

A. Ballet
B. Football or RTA
C. Fall from height

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
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16
Q

Describe chondrosarcomas

A

Osteolytic and worse at night

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17
Q

The leg is _________ rotated in a posterior hip dislocation.

A

internally

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18
Q

What does Gustilo-Anderson assess?

A

Soft tissue injury
Wound size
Vascular injury

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19
Q

How do fat embolisms present?

A

Breathlessness
Confusion
Rash

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20
Q

Where does Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre occur?

A

Mandible

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21
Q

C perfringes 🧔🏾‍♀️

A

Gas 💨

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22
Q

Common fibular nerve

A

Common peroneal nerve

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23
Q

Olecranon

A

Ulnar cup

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24
Q

List carpal tunnel treatment in order of step up therapy.

A

Splint
Steroids
Surgery

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25
Greenstick fracture
Incomplete fracture caused by bending
26
Buckle/torus fractures
Bulging impaction fracture
27
Aneurysms are always…
pulsatile and expansile.
28
What is sudeck's atrophy?
Complex regional pain syndrome Hot Shiny Painful to light touch Red Post op
29
List some risk factors for trigger finger
Female 50-60 Diabetes Dominant hand
30
Do steroids increase risk of AVN?
Yes
31
How should sudeck's atrophy be treated?
Conservatively with amytriptyline
32
How are undisplaced intracapsular fractures treated?
Internal fixation with hip screws
33
What is commonly fractured in tennis players?
Hamate
34
What does garden classification describe?
Intracapsular hip fractures
35
Cipro
Quino
36
How do Lisfranc injuries occur?
Twisting
37
What is the advantage of a plaster back slab?
Allows room for swelling
38
What sorts of conditions should ESR be monitored in?
Inflammatory Malignancy
39
What’s the best investigation for ligaments?
MRI
40
What is the capitellum?
Elbow ball bone
41
How do capitellum fractures present?
Lateral tenderness with inability to extend
42
What is Lipohaemarthrosis?
Blood and fat in joint fractures
43
What do scaphoid fractures have a high risk of?
AVN
44
What does Ewing’s sarcoma cause?
Fever Fatigue
45
Does osteochondritis dessicans cause swelling?
Yes because of repetitive strain
46
In this condition, trauma causes circumferential calcification with a lucent centre.
Myositis ossificans
47
What is the investigation for septic joints?
Arthrocentesis
48
Fracture above joint worse than fracture below joint. T/F
True
49
What is the grind test for?
Arthritis
50
How is post-operative osteomyelitis treated?
Remove fixations
51
Where does the sural nerve provide sensation?
Lateral leg
52
Carbamazepine increases the risk of…
osteoporosis.
53
What is Osgood-schlatter's disease?
Pain over the tibial tuberosity due to over-exertion in children
54
What is specific to acute cord compression?
Hyperreflexia
55
Which fracture is at the first metacarpal base?
Bennet
56
The ulnar nerve travels posterior to the ________ epicondyl.
medial
57
Suspect an ankle fracture with tenderness over the ________ or an inability to ________.
malleolus weight bear
58
Does plantar fasciitis get better or worse throughout the day?
Better
59
What does spine wedging indicate?
Osteoporosis
60
The psoas muscle is responsible for flexion and…
external rotation.
61
Does apoptosis occur in necrosis?
No
61
Which muscles does Trendelenburg test?
Gluteus medius and minimus Drops to opposite side
62
What is FOOSH most likely to break?
Distal radius
63
Coxa
Hip
64
Which muscle does Froment’s test test?
Adductor pollicis
65
CN __ innervates the tongue and passes theough the submandibular gland.
IX
65
The axillary artery and vein travel closely by the…
pec minor and brachial plexus.
66
What is the most common cause of osteolytic bone metastasis in children?
Neuroblastoma 🚀
67
The ulnar artery is right next to which bone?
Pisiform
67
🙁3
ACL
67
Where does the rectus abdominis lie?
Rectal sheath
68
Which muscle attaches to the fibrous elbow capsule?
Brachialis
69
What is the spinous process formed by?
2 laminae
70
The dorsalis pedis artery is a direct continuation of the…
anterior tibial artery.
71
ALP in osteomalacia is…
high.
71
The sternal angle is at the lower border of the T_ vertebra.
4
72
Which bursitis can cause tibia pain?
Pes anserinus
72
Aspirin interferes with methotrexate to cause…
bone marrow toxicity.
73
What does the trapezius do to the scapula?
Upwards rotation
73
In SLE ANA is more ________ and anti-dsDNA is more _________.
sensitive specific
74
Which finger is not a point of attachment for the palmar interossei?
🖕
75
Which third of the clavicle is most likely to fracture?
Middle
75
What happens in osteopetrosis?
Overgrowth and sclerosis from osteoblast dysfunction
76
What does vitamin D deficiency impair?
Mineralisation
77
What joins to the proximal radial head?
Capitulum
78
TEN can be caused by allopurinol. How does it present?
🥵pyrexia ❣️tachycardia 🩸skin separation
79
The hyoid bone is at C_.
3
80
What does RA increase risk of?
CVD
81
The tibialis anterior tendon passes by the ________ malleolus.
medial
82
What is most superficial tummy?
External oblique aponeurosis Rectus sheath
82
Name a GI side effect of methotrexate
Hepatotoxicity
83
What delivers blood supply to the scaphoid?
Dorsal carpal branch (to the tubercle distally)
84
Is obesity a risk factor for osteoporosis?
No
85
Azathioprine inhibits _______ synthesis.
purein
86
Chloramphename causes…
constipation.
86
What scan is done before DEXA?
FRAX
86
Rickets has excess of mineralized osteoid. T/F
False. Rickets has excess of non-mineralized osteoid
87
What is Sjogren's a complication of?
Rheumatoid arthritis
88
Pseudogout can result from ______ hyperparathyroidism.
primary
89
What is azathioprine metabolised to?
mercaptopurine
90
Chlorphenamine mechanism of action
H1 receptor antagonist
90
What is fibrillin
glycoprotein
91
The leg is __ternally rotated for anterior hip dislocations.
ex
92
What is a side effect of azathioprine?
Pancreatitis (vomiting, diarrhoea)
93
Describe Ca, phosphate, PTH and ALP levels in osteoporosis
Normal
94
Which substance causes gout?
Monosodium urate