MSK summary oestology

Question 1

what is blounts disease

Answer 1

growth arrest of medial tibial physis of unknown pathology

break like protrusion on xray

Question 2

when do refer genu valgum?

Answer 2

> 8cm intramalleolar distance at age 11

Question 3

3 causes of intoeing

Answer 3

femoral neck anteversion (W position)
internal tibial torsion (most resolve by 6)
metatarsus adduction (foot bends medially)

Question 4

what causes flat feet

Answer 4

tibialis posterior tendond forms medial arch of foot

Question 5

what to do for flexible flat feet

Answer 5

due to genealised ligamentous laxity

calf tightness assessment

Question 6

what causes rigid flat feet

Answer 6

tarsal coalilation

Question 7

what does volkmans law describe and what does it mean?

Answer 7

scoliosis

increased pressure across an epiphyseal plate inhbits growth

Question 8

what is spondylothesis

Answer 8

stress fracture of the isthmus of the vertebral arch

if heels, may elongate and produce spondylothesis

Question 9

which grading is used for spondylothesis

Answer 9

meterding

Question 10

which vertebrae are affected by cauda equina

Answer 10

C7/T1

Question 11

what is adult osteomyelitis

Answer 11

inflammation of bone and medullary cavity (usually in long bones)

Question 12

should you treat osteomyelitis empirracly?

Answer 12

no

Question 13

how to treat staph aureus

Answer 13

fluclox

Question 14

how to treat staph epidermms

Answer 14

vancomycin

Question 15

how to treat strep pyrogens

Answer 15

doxycyclin

Question 16

how to treat gram negative

Answer 16

clindamycin

Question 17

anaerobes

Answer 17

metronidazole

Question 18

what is chronic osteomyelitis and where does it start?

Answer 18

untreated acute OM
- starts in axial skeleton with haematogenous spread from pulmonary or urinary infections or from infections of intervertebral discs

Question 19

gold standard for haematogenous OM

Answer 19

bone biopsy

Question 20

what is vertebral TB also called

Answer 20

potts disease

Question 21

how to treat prosthetic joint infection

Answer 21

vancomycin

Question 22

what is xray sign of septic arthritis

Answer 22

reappearing joint space

Question 23

features of tetanus

Answer 23

spastic paralysis
4 days incubation period
lock jae -> muscle spasm

Question 24

what is spondylosis

Answer 24

intervertebral disc loses water content with age

- less cushioning + increased pressure on facet joints –> secondary OA

Question 25

what is an acute disc tear

Answer 25

occurs in outer annulus fibrosis after lifting a heavy object pain worse on coughing if a disc tears - nucleus pulposis can herniate -> impinge on exiting nerve root -> reduced power in myotomal area

Question 26

which levels controll urinarion and defaecation?

Answer 26

S4 + 5

Question 27

what are the symptoms of cervical spondylosis

Answer 27

slow onset stiffness in neck -> radiates to shoulders + occiput

Question 28

what are the loaf muscles

Answer 28

opponens pollicis abductor pollicis brevis flexor pollicis brevis

Question 29

what is osteogenesis perfecta

Answer 29

brittle bone disease

Question 30

which muscles are affected in ERBs palsy

Answer 30

loss of motor innervation in deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, biceps and brachialis muscles - internal rotation of humerus

Question 31

which levels are affected in erbs palsy

Answer 31

C5 + C6

Question 32

which levels are affected in klumpkes palsy

Answer 32

C8 +T1

Question 33

when does transient synovitis of the hip occur

Answer 33

after URTI | 2-10 year old boys

Question 34

how to treat transient S of hip

Answer 34

NSAIDS

Question 35

what is perthes?

Answer 35

idiopathic osetochondriits of femoral head | active boys 4-9

Question 36

what happens in SUFE?

Answer 36

overweight boys | slips inferiorly in relation to femoral neck

Question 37

treatmnet for SUFE

Answer 37

pin femoral head

Question 38

features of club foot

Answer 38

ankle plantar felxion, supination of forefoot, varum alignment of forefoot

Question 39

treatment for club foot

Answer 39

ponsenti technique (5-6 weeks)

Question 40

what is the most common cause of acquired flat foot

Answer 40

tibialis posterior dysfunction

Question 41

where is the pain in TPD

Answer 41

medial malleolus

Question 42

who gets TPD

Answer 42

obese middle aged women diabetes steroid injury

Question 43

what is plantar fascitis

Answer 43

start up pain after rest | swelling + fullness of plantar medial aspect of heel

Question 44

what test do you do for plantar fascitis

Answer 44

tinnels test for baxters nerve

Question 45

GS of hallux rigidus

Answer 45

arthrodesis

Question 46

what happens in mortons neuroma

Answer 46

degenerative fibrosis of digital nerve near its bifurcation

Question 47

what are the symptoms of morton neurome

Answer 47

burning and tingling in toes

Question 48

test for mortons neuroma

Answer 48

mulders click test

Question 49

symptoms of tendoachilles tendinosis

Answer 49

pain, morning stiffness | eases with heat and walking

Question 50

symptoms of tendo achilles rupture

Answer 50

sudden deceleration with resisted calf contraction

Question 51

test for tendo achilles rupture

Answer 51

positive calf squeeze - simmonds test

Question 52

what is the difference between stable and unstable ankle fractures?

Answer 52

stable - no medial malleolus frcature / deltoid rupture

Question 53

which surface has the thickest hyaline cartialge in the body

Answer 53

retropatellar

Question 54

which OA is realted to genu varum

Answer 54

medial

Question 55

symtpoms of an extensor mechanism rupture

Answer 55

fall onto flexed knee with quads contraction | unable to straight leg raise + palpable gap

Question 56

ages for quads / patellar rupture

Answer 56

quads >40 | patellar <40

Question 57

which menisci is more concave

Answer 57

medial

Question 58

which menisci is more fixed

Answer 58

medial

Question 59

which menisci has the most stress

Answer 59

medial

Question 60

which menisci tears wont heal

Answer 60

radial

Question 61

what may you develop with a bucket handle tear

Answer 61

fixed flexion deformity

Question 62

which stress for MCL resist

Answer 62

valgus

Question 63

which stress does LCL resist

Answer 63

varus

Question 64

what does ACL resits

Answer 64

anteiror subluxation of tibia + internal rotation of tibia in extension

Question 65

what does PCL resist

Answer 65

posterior subluxation of the tibia ie anteiror subluxation of the femur and hypertension of the knee

Question 66

does MCL heal well

Answer 66

yes

Question 67

which way do patellars dislocate

Answer 67

laterally

Question 68

what happens in a femeroacetabular impingement syndrome?

Answer 68

damage to labrum and tears, damage to cartilage and OA

Question 69

symtpoms of femeroacetabular impingement syndrome

Answer 69

activity related groin pain difficulty sitting c sign positive

Question 70

treatment for AVN

Answer 70

bisphosphonates

Question 71

what are the 2 groups of people who get idiopathic transient osteonecroiss of the hip?

Answer 71

middle aged men and pregnant women in 3rd trimester

Question 72

cause of trochanteric bursitis

Answer 72

repetitive trauma casued by iliotibial band tract over trochanteric bursitis

Question 73

what does a hanging rope sign on xray suggest?

Answer 73

ANV lytic zone

Question 74

what is arthroplasty

Answer 74

reshaping of a joint - can be used to remove diseased joint

Question 75

what is excision / resection arthroplasty

Answer 75

removal of bone + cartilage of one or both sides of bone

Question 76

what is arthrodesis

Answer 76

surgical stiffening or fusion of a joint in the postiion of function alleviates pain but reduced function

Question 77

when is an osteotomy used?

Answer 77

in early arthritis of knee and hip

Question 78

where is a mucous cyst seen

Answer 78

DIP joints

Question 79

what is the test for dequervains

Answer 79

finklesteins test = thumb into fist

Question 80

what happens in tendinosis and what causes it?

Answer 80

degeneration of collagen + ECM | due to MMPs

Question 81

which groups get rotator cuff pathology?

Answer 81

athletes and painters

Question 82

symptoms of biceps tendinopathy

Answer 82

pain in anterior shoudler radiating to elbow | aggregated by pronation and elbow flexion

Question 83

which way do shoulders dislocate?

Answer 83

anterior most common §

Question 84

what is a bankart lesions?

Answer 84

detachment of glenoid labrum capsule

Question 85

what is a hill sachs lesion

Answer 85

posterior humeral head impacts on the anterior glenoid producing an impaction fracture of the posterior head

Question 86

what happens in an olecranon fracutre?

Answer 86

fall onto elbow and contraction of triceps muscle

Question 87

what is a monteggia fracture

Answer 87

fracture of ulnar with dislocation of radial head at elbow

Question 88

what is a galezzia fracture

Answer 88

fracture of radius with dislocation of ulnar @ radioulnar joint

Question 89

what is a colles fracture

Answer 89

wrist extended

Question 90

what is a smiths fracutre

Answer 90

wrist flexed - unstable

Question 91

what is a bartons fracture

Answer 91

intraarticlaur fracture of distal radius involving dorsal or volar rim, where carpal bones sublux with the dispalced rim fragment

Question 92

which fracture is shaped like a kidney bean?

Answer 92

scaphoid fracture

Question 93

what is myosittis ossificans

Answer 93

abnormal calcification of a muscle haematoma eg trauma | not painful

Question 94

what does supraspinus do

Answer 94

initiation of abdction

Question 95

what does subscapularis do

Answer 95

internal rotator

Question 96

what causes roattor cuff tear

Answer 96

jerk arm eg bus

Question 97

what are the sympotms of frozen shoulder?

Answer 97

progressive pain + stiffness in shoulder 40-60 degrees | loss of external rotation

Question 98

xray light bulb sign =

Answer 98

posterior shoudler disloaction

Question 99

slowest healing bone in body

Answer 99

tibia