Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PCE > MSK W2 > Flashcards

MSK W2 Flashcards

UE conditions

1
Q

what is the first step in the Canadian Cspine rules?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is step 2 in the Canadian Cspine rules?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is step 3 in the Canadian Cspine rules?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Whiplash Associated Disorder (WAD)?

A

Abrupt acceleration-deceleration injury to the cervical spine.

Commonly occurs in motor vehicle accidents or contact sports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the acute signs and symptoms of Whiplash Associated Disorder.

A
  • Decreased ROM
  • Pain
  • Increased tone in cervical spinal muscles
  • Headaches
  • Jaw pain
  • Neurological symptoms depending on grade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What factors can affect chronic symptoms of Whiplash Associated Disorder?

A
  • Psycho/Emotional Trauma
  • Pending monetary gain (litigation)
  • Pre-existing injury
  • Pre-injury level of fitness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If there is a disc herniation of C5/C6, what nerve root is anticipated to be affected and what are the expected findings?

A

C6 nerve root
*myotomal = elbow flexion, wrist ext weakness
*dermatomal = lateral elbow
*DTR = biceps brachii or brachioradialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the definition for Cervicogenic Headaches?

A

Disorder of the cervical spine involving bony, disc, and/or soft tissue elements.

Often originates from the atlanto-occipital and upper cervical joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify the hallmark signs of Frozen Shoulder (Adhesive Capsulitis).

A
  • Pain – dull, diffuse often occuring at the deltoid insertion
  • Muscle atrophy
  • Limited ROM (ER > Abduction > IR)
  • Loss of arm swing during gait
  • difficulty with overhead activities or dress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three stages of Frozen Shoulder?

A
  • Freezing
  • Frozen
  • Thawing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens with an Anterior Disc Displacement in the TMJ?

A

The condyle is blocked by the disc and unable to roll and slide forward (lock jaw).

Can be chronic (reduce on its own) or acute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are common signs of Temporomandibular Myofascial Pain?

A
  • Tenderness of Masseter, Temporalis, Medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, suboccipitals
  • Pain or tenderness of the jaw
  • Difficulty chewing
  • Locking of the joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main treatment approach for Shoulder Instability?

A
  • Stabilization exercises of scapula
  • Strengthening adductors and internal rotators
  • Postural education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should be avoided in the treatment of Impingement Syndrome?

A

Immobilizing the arm in a sling, as it could lead to adhesive capsulitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Colles Fracture?

A

Fracture to the distal radius, often associated with a FOOSH injury.

Characterized by a linear transverse fracture of the distal radius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the risk factors for a Scaphoid Fracture?

A
  • FOOSH injury
  • Commonly occurs in young and elderly
  • More prevalent in females with osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False: There are specific risk factors that make one more likely to experience a scaphoid fracture.

A

False

There are no specific risk factors or diseases associated with scaphoid fractures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the typical treatment approach for a scaphoid fracture?

A
  • Initially casting or surgery
  • Use of wrist guard when returning to activities involving falling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the WAD red flags to look out fot?

A

Bilateral arm numbness and tingling in arms, signs of concussion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the role of education in the treatment of Frozen Shoulder?

A

Reduce frustration and encourage patient compliance; teach home exercise program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What WAD grade is assigned for no complaint about the neck and no physical signs?

A

Grade 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What WAD grade is assigned for a neck complaint of stiffness, pain, or tenderness only with no physical signs?

A

Grade I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What WAD grade involves a neck complaint with MSK signs such as decreased ROM and point tenderness, but no neurological signs?

A

Grade II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What WAD grade includes a neck complaint with peripheral neurological signs but no fracture or dislocation?

A

Grade III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What WAD grade indicates a neck complaint with confirmed fracture or dislocation via medical imaging?
Grade IV
26
Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?
Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)
27
What is the function of the masseter muscle?
Closes the jaw and clenches teeth
28
What is the role of the lateral pterygoid muscle?
Assists in depressing the mandible and chewing
29
What does the medial pterygoid muscle do?
Functions for elevation and protraction of the lower jaw
30
What does the three finger test assess in relation to TMJD?
ROM of the joint - Jaw should be able to open three finger widths
31
How many joints are in the shoulder complex?
Four joints (acromioclavicular, glenohumeral, scapulothoracic, sternoclavicular)
32
Name the four joints of the shoulder complex.
* Glenohumeral joint * Acromioclavicular joint * Sternoclavicular joint * Scapulothoracic joint
33
What type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?
Saddle joint
34
What is passive ROM?
Movement produced entirely by an external force with little to no muscle contraction
35
What are indications for passive ROM?
* Active is contraindicated * Acute inflamed tissue * Patient unable to move
36
What is the goal of passive ROM exercises?
Maintain joint and connective tissue mobility
37
What is active ROM?
Movement produced by active contraction of the muscle crossing that joint
38
When is active ROM indicated?
When the patient can actively contract the muscle and move a segment
39
What are the goals of active ROM?
Same as passive ROM, with additional benefits of active muscle contraction
40
What is active-assistive ROM?
A type of ROM where assistance is provided manually or mechanically
41
What muscles do scapular stabilization exercises target?
Focus on middle and lower fibers of trapezius and serratus anterior
42
What does the serratus punch exercise involve?
Using a TheraBand to pull forwards causing scapular protraction
43
What is the role of the trapezius in scapular movement?
Agonist in retraction and elevation of the scapula
44
What is a Bankart lesion?
Avulsion # of gleniod with anterior/inferior capsule ligament involvement | often occurs with anterior shoulder dislocations
45
What is a Hill Sachs lesion?
compression fracture of posterior/lateral humerus | posterior humeral head hits glenoid as the shoulder dislocates
46
What is the common symptom of a Pancoast tumor?
Severe pain in shoulder region radiating toward the axilla and scapula
47
What do you expect to see with inferior scapular winging?
Inferior dysfunction = prominence of inferior angle, tilting of scapula in sagittal plane
48
What causes scapular dyskinesia?
An alteration or deviation in the normal resting or active position of the scapula
49
What are the components of elbow extension?
* Distal movement of the radius on ulna * Abduction of ulna relative to humerus * Pronation of ulna relative to humerus
50
What is bursitis?
Inflammation of the bursa, small sacs that lubricate surfaces and facilitate movement
51
What are common causes of bursitis?
* Overuse * Direct injury/trauma * Gout * Infection
52
What is the primary treatment goal for tennis elbow in the acute phase?
Control pain/inflammation
53
What should be avoided in early stages of the treatment of tennis elbow?
Gripping and wrist extension
54
What does the term 'fracture' refer to?
A structural break in the continuity of a bone or joint surface
55
What are common precautions post fractures?
no stretch or resistive forces around fracture site until bone has radiologically healed * no compression or shear force * use protection and follow WB precautions
56
What should an exercise program for a patient with an olecranon fracture include?
Gentle ROM exercises and avoid stress on the fracture site
57
List the carpal bones from proximal to distal, lateral to medial.
* Scaphoid * Lunate * Triquetrum * Pisiform * Trapezium * Trapezoid * Capitate * Hamate
58
what would be a positive thomas test for TFL?
when the hip is abducted, pt is able to acheive full hip ext.
59
What 3 muscles does the modified thomas test assess?
TFL, rectus femoris and Iliopsoas
60
what is the purpose of the modifed thomas test?
to investigate the cause of reduced hip extension (normal range is 15-20 deg)
61
what is the sign of the buttock used to test for?
serious gluteal pathology ie. RONFISS
62
How do you perform a sign of the buttoc test?
SLR in supine, at end range pt's knee is flexed to see if more hip flexion can be obtained. Positive finding would be pain or limited range, along with other gluteal or hip findings.
63
what is the thompson test of the ankle?
Used to assess for achilles tear by squeezing the calf muscle.
64
Describe Apley's test for the knee.
pt is laying in prone; therapits fixes thigh with knee bent to 90deg and rotates the tibia internally and externally with either distraction or compression. Pain with distraction = ligamentous pain with compression = meniscal
65
What is the set up of a Mcmurray test for the medial meniscus?
valgus stress + External (lateral) rotation - extend the knee
66
What is the main cause of dislocations?
Usually result of ligamentous, muscular or capsular instability
67
What are the signs and symptoms (S/S) of dislocations?
Increased range of motion (ROM), soft end feel, +/- pain
68
What test assesses scapular stability?
Wall push up
69
What is the anterior apprehension test used for?
To assess anterior glenohumeral instability and possible hx of dislocation
70
What is the relocation test?
Push glenohumeral head posteriorly
71
What does the sulcus sign indicate?
Inferior glenohumeral instability
72
What are the complications associated with shoulder dislocations?
* Rotator cuff tears * Axillary nerve damage * labels tears
73
What does TUBS stand for in dislocation types?
Traumatic onset, Unidirectional anterior, Bankart lesion, Surgery
74
What is the mechanism of injury (MOI) for TUBS?
ABD/ER
75
What is a Bankart lesion?
Tear of anteroinferior Glenn’s labrum - can also be a bony banker lesion with Avulsion fracture of the glenoid rim
76
What are the signs of a Bankart lesion?
* Clicking * Apprehension * Deep vague pain
77
What is a SLAP lesion?
Superior labrum lesion anterior to posterior (where bicep tendon attaches)
78
What is a common cause of pain in throwers?
SLAP lesion (repeated overhead pullback and forward acceleration)
79
What is a Hill-Sachs lesion?
Compression fracture of posterior/lateral humeral head
80
What is AMBRI?
Atraumatic, Multidirectional, Bilateral shoulder findings, Rehab appropriate, Inferior capsule shift
81
What is the epiphysis?
End of long bone (where joint is)
82
What is the diaphysis?
Shaft of long bone
83
What are the types of fractures?
* Spiral * Transverse/oblique * Compression/crush * Comminuted * Greenstick * Avulsion * Impact
84
What is a Colles fracture?
Distal radius fracture with dorsal subluxation of distal segment
85
What is the healing time for adults with fractures?
10-18 weeks
86
Where is avascular necrosis likely to occur?
High rate in some areas, particularly proximal femur, 5th MT, scaphoid, proximal humerus
87
What defines good posture?
State of muscular and skeletal balance protecting against injury or deformity
88
What is the plumb line?
Line of gravity
89
Where is the center of gravity located?
Slightly anterior to S2
90
What is anticipatory postural control?
Pre-tuning sensory and motor systems based on previous experience
91
What is postural pain syndrome?
Pain from mechanical stress due to prolonged faulty posture
92
What is postural dysfunction?
Adaptive shortening of soft tissues and muscle weakness from prolonged poor postural habits
93
What are the types of scoliosis?
* Structural * Functional
94
What is the normal range of scoliosis degrees?
5-7 degrees is considered normal
95
What is the treatment for scoliosis of 15 degrees or less?
Exercises
96
What type of postural fault is exaggerated lumbar lordosis?
Anterior pelvic tilt with excessive hyperextension of lumbar spine
97
What muscles are short in exaggerated lumbar lordosis?
* Erector spinae * Hip flexors
98
What is the neutral sitting position?
Equal weight bearing on ischial tuberosities with level ASIS's and PSIS's
99
What are the important landmarks at T2?
Superior angle of scapula
100
What dermatome corresponds to T4?
Nipple level
101
What is Genu Recurvatum?
Knee hyperextension
102
What are common postural positions?
* Forward head posture * Excessive cervical lordosis * Exaggerated thoracic kyphosis
103
What is the effect of a posterior pelvic tilt?
Reduction of the natural lumbar curvature
104
What is a common cause of Genu Valgus?
Knee joint alignment issues
105
What is the effect of tight abdominals in posterior pelvic tilt?
Contributes to reduced lumbar curvature

PCE (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions