Other W1 Flashcards
obesity - modalities (163 cards)
1
Q
What is the formula for calculating BMI?
A
BMI = weight (kg)/height (m2)
2
Q
What is abdominal obesity an independent predictor of?
A
Morbidity and mortality
3
Q
What is the BMI classification for Healthy weight?
A
18.5 – 24.9
4
Q
What is the BMI classification for Overweight?
A
25 - 29.9
5
Q
What is the BMI classification for Obese?
A
30 - 39.9
6
Q
What is the BMI classification for Morbidly Obese?
A
> 40
7
Q
What is consistently linked with poorer health outcomes?
A
Low fitness level
8
Q
What is the most important risk factor for mortality?
A
Low fitness level
9
Q
List three health risks associated with obesity.
A
- Cardiovascular disease
- Type 2 diabetes
- Cancer
10
Q
What are some causes of obesity?
A
- Excess calorie intake
- Psych/environmental factors
- Genetic factors
- Endocrine and metabolic disorders
11
Q
What are the main treatment options for obesity?
A
- Lifestyle modifications
- Behavior therapy
- Pharmacology
- Surgery
12
Q
What is the recommended exercise program for obesity?
A
Moderate intensity 40-60%, 5-7 days/week, 45-60 mins
13
Q
What precautions should be taken during exercise for obese patients?
A
- Cautious of hyperthermia
- Risk of orthopedic injury
- Ensure hydration
14
Q
What is the normal weight gain during pregnancy?
A
20-30 lbs
15
Q
What postural changes occur during pregnancy?
A
- Increased cervical & lumbar lordosis
- Increased thoracic kyphosis
- Increased foot pronation
16
Q
What are absolute contraindications to exercise in pregnancy?
A
- Restrictive lung disease
- Multiple gestation with risk of preterm labor
- Persistent 2nd or 3rd trimester bleeding
- Placenta previa after 26 weeks
- Pregnancy-induced hypertension
- Ruptured membranes
17
Q
What are relative contraindications for exercise during pregnancy?
A
- Diabetes
- Thyroid disease
- History of precipitous labor
18
Q
What is the safe level of exertion during pregnancy exercise?
A
60-70% of HR max
19
Q
What maternal heart rate should not exceed during exercise?
A
140 bpm
20
Q
What is the recommended positioning during pregnancy to improve circulation?
A
Left side-lying
21
Q
What is the restriction for lifting after a cesarean?
A
No lifting > 10-15 lbs for 6 weeks
22
Q
What is diastasis recti abdominis?
A
Separation of the rectus abdominis muscle at the linea alba >2.5 cm
23
Q
What is a common incidence rate of diastasis recti?
A
~50%
24
Q
How to test for diastasis recti?
A
Palpate for a separation of rectus abdominis while patient brings up their head
25
What is placenta previa?
Placenta is in a position below the fetus
26
What is preeclampsia?
Acute HTN after 24 weeks gestation
27
What are pelvic floor disorders?
Due to stretching, can lead to organ prolapse
28
List types of pelvic floor disorders.
* Cystocele
* Rectocele
* Uterine prolapse
29
What is the management for pelvic floor disorders?
Pelvic floor muscle exercises
30
What is a common symptom of SI joint dysfunction?
Pain with sitting, walking, or standing
31
What is carpal tunnel syndrome during pregnancy attributed to?
Fluid retention/hormone changes and poor lifting technique
32
What is gestational diabetes?
Abnormal blood glucose readings in pregnancy
33
What are common signs of a direct hernia?
Round swelling near pubis, typically painless
34
What characterizes an indirect hernia?
Protrudes through the deep inguinal ring, pain with straining
35
What is a sports hernia (pubalgia)?
Deep, sharp pain in the groin or lower abdominal region
36
What are developmental reflexes?
Reflex actions that originate in the central nervous system in response to particular stimuli
37
Who exhibits developmental reflexes?
Normal infants but not neurologically intact adults
38
What inhibits developmental reflexes?
Development of the frontal lobes as a child develops
39
When does the rooting reflex typically appear?
28 weeks of gestation to 3 months
40
What is the response of the rooting reflex?
Turning of head to side of stimulus with mouth open
41
What is the normal age range for the Moro reflex?
28 weeks of gestation to 5 months
42
Describe the response of the Moro reflex.
Child opens arms (abduction) then brings them back to chest (horizontal adduction); cry
43
When does the sucking reflex appear?
28 weeks of gestation to 5 months
44
What triggers the sucking reflex?
Roof of mouth is touched
45
What is the age range for the plantar grasp reflex?
28 weeks of gestation to 9 months
46
What is the response for the plantar grasp reflex?
Toe flexion
47
What is the normal age range for the stepping reflex?
38 weeks of gestation to 2 months
48
What is the response of the stepping reflex?
Reciprocal flexion/extension of legs (stepping motions)
49
What is the age range for the palmar grasp reflex?
0-4 months
50
What is the response of the palmar grasp reflex?
Flexion of fingers causing strong grip
51
When does the Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex (ATNR) appear?
0-6 months
52
What is the response of the ATNR?
Arm and leg on face side are extended, arm and leg on scalp side are flexed (fencing position)
53
What is the Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex (TLR)?
In supine position, body and extremities are held in extension; in prone position, held in flexion
54
What is the age range for the Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex (STNR)?
6-9 months
55
What is the response of the STNR when the head is in flexion?
Arms are flexed and legs are extended
56
What is the Babinski reflex?
Fanning of toes and extension of great toe when stroking lateral aspect of the sole
57
What is the age range for the Babinski reflex?
1-2 years
58
What is postural control?
The control of the body’s position in space to obtain stability and orientation
59
What are the components of the development of postural control?
* Early reflexes
* Development of postural reactions
* Refinement of postural control and balance reactions throughout childhood
60
What are righting reactions?
To create efficient alignment of body parts
61
What are equilibrium reactions?
Fine postural changes to maintain alignment
62
What are protective reactions?
Automatic response to protect oneself from a fall using the arms
63
What is hypotonia?
Often seen in children with delayed motor development, Down syndrome, CP
64
What are some features of hypotonia?
* Muscles appear floppy/soft
* Use of wide BOS for stability
* Tendency to lean against things for support
65
What is hypertonia?
May be caused by spasticity, rigidity, dystonia or a combination
66
What are some features of hypertonia?
* Stiff looking extremities
* Decreased selective movement
67
What are the typical motor milestones for 0-3 months?
* Develop ability to control head in all positions
* Random kicking in supine
* Head right and reflex stepping
68
What is the typical development for 4-5 months?
* Pelvis and legs stabilize in prone
* Good head control in supported sitting
* Can weight bear if supported in standing
69
What is a key development milestone at 7 months?
Should be able to sit unsupported
70
What is the major milestone at 8-9 months?
Ease of movement
71
What is the grasp development progression?
* 5-6 months: Palmar Grasp
* 7-8 months: Raking Grasp
* 8-9 months: Radial Digital Grasp
* 10-12 months: Pincer Grasp
72
What is the Apgar assessment?
System used to perform an evaluation of an infant’s physical condition
73
What factors are assessed in the Apgar score?
* Heart rate
* Respiratory effort
* Muscle tone
* Reflex response
* Color
74
What is a typical Apgar score?
7-10
75
What is normal respiratory rate (RR) for newborns?
RR = ~60
76
What respiratory changes occur from 3-6 months?
Slight increase in TV, so RR goes down a bit; RR = 30-60
77
What are common respiratory issues in children with neuromuscular disorders?
* Ineffective cough
* Poor chest structure
* Inability to take deep breaths
78
What is bronchiolitis?
Lower respiratory tract infection usually caused by Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
79
What is bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
Chronic lung disease in newborns, can be mild, moderate or severe
80
What is Hirschsprung’s disease?
Constipation in an infant caused by absent ganglion cells in large intestine
81
What are the symptoms of Osgood Schlatter’s?
Mild and intermittent knee pain on the anterior surface of the proximal tibia
82
What is the treatment for Osgood Schlatter’s?
Decrease loading of the knee by the quads muscle/tendon
83
What is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?
Slippage of the overlying epiphysis (growth plate) on the femur
84
What is the typical age range for Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?
Most often seen between the ages of 10-16 years old
85
What is a Salter Harris fracture?
A fracture that involves the growth plate of a bone
86
What does the mnemonic 'SALTER' help to remember?
The first five types of Salter Harris fractures
87
What is the typical presentation of Legg-Calve-Perthes?
Mild hip, knee or groin pain, pain exacerbated by hip/leg movement
88
What are Salter Harris fractures?
A fracture that involves the growth plate of a bone
89
How many types of Salter Harris fractures are there?
There are 9 types - 5 common
90
What does 'I – S' in the SALTER mnemonic stand for?
Slip (separated or straight across). Fracture of the cartilage of the growth plate
91
What does 'II – A' in the SALTER mnemonic indicate?
Above. The fracture lies above the growth plate, or Away from the joint
92
What does 'III – L' in the SALTER mnemonic refer to?
Lower. The fracture is below the growth plate in the epiphysis
93
What does 'IV – TE' in the SALTER mnemonic describe?
Through Everything. The fracture is through the metaphysis, growth plate & epiphysis
94
What does 'V – R' in the SALTER mnemonic signify?
Rammed (crushed). The growth plate has been crushed
95
What is the goal of PT treatment after a Salter Harris fracture?
Restore ROM and strength once fracture has healed
96
What percentage of growth plate fractures heal without long term deficits?
Approximately 85%
97
What is the most common complication of Salter Harris fractures?
A leg length discrepancy
98
What are the types of Electro-physical Agents?
* Electrical Stimulation
* Thermal
* Non Thermal
99
Name three forms of Electrical Stimulation.
* Transcutaneous Electrical
* Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation (NMES)
* Interferential Current (IFC)
100
What is the purpose of Pain Relief?
To manage pain, often using analgesics, though long-term use can be detrimental.
101
What is Pain?
Pain is felt as a result of the brain's response to electrical and chemical changes in the body due to damage.
102
Fill in the blank: Pain signals are picked up by _______ in nerve endings.
[sensory receptors]
103
What are the general contraindications for Electrical Stimulation?
* Active deep vein thrombosis or thrombophlebitis
* Haemorrhagic Conditions
* Local Malignancy
* Local Infection
104
True or False: Electrical Stimulation can be applied to recently radiated tissues.
False
105
List three specific contraindications for Electrical Stimulation.
* Areas causing malfunction of electronic devices
* Pregnant women's low back or abdomen
* Infected tissues or tuberculosis
106
What should TENS not be applied to?
* Areas with impaired sensory awareness
* Persons with cognition or communication impairments
107
What are some contraindications for Continuous or Pulsed Ultrasound?
* Pregnant women's low back or abdomen
* Regions of known or suspected malignancy
* Actively bleeding tissue
108
Fill in the blank: Low Level Laser Therapy should not be applied to _______.
[tissues infected with tuberculosis]
109
What conditions should Superficial Heat not be applied to?
* Large areas in pregnant women
* Regions of known or suspected malignancy
* Infected tissues or tuberculosis
110
True or False: Cryotherapy can be applied to persons with Raynaud’s disease.
False
111
What should not be prescribed for persons with cognition or communication problems?
Home cold-therapy programs
112
List three preparations needed before applying Electro-physical Agents.
* Explain modality
* Clear Contraindications
* Gain consent
113
What is the importance of a Skin Test?
To assess the patient's response to electrical, thermal, or non-thermal stimuli.
114
What should be done to the equipment before starting treatment?
Check Equipment: Leads, Electrodes, Plus Switches
115
Fill in the blank: After treatment, it is important to observe the area for _______.
[adverse effects]
116
What documentation should be completed after treatment?
* Chart parameters
* Area treated
* Contraindications cleared
117
What is Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)?
The only type of stimulation that the patient can utilize 24 hours a day to assist in relieving pain.
118
What is the concept of pain gating?
Non-painful input closes the gates to painful input, preventing pain sensation from traveling to the CNS.
119
What does the gate control theory suggest?
Collaterals of large sensory fibers activate inhibitory interneurons that modulate pain transmission.
120
What is the primary mechanism of conventional TENS?
Segmental (pain gating).
121
Fill in the blank: Conventional TENS is primarily used for ______ pain.
acute
122
Fill in the blank: Acupuncture-like TENS is primarily used for ______ pain.
chronic
123
What frequency range is used in conventional TENS?
80-150 Hz
124
What is the pulse width for conventional TENS?
~60 microsec
125
What sensation is desired in acupuncture-like TENS?
Strong, comfortable twitch.
126
What is the frequency range used in acupuncture-like TENS?
~10 Hz
127
What is Interferential Current (IFC)?
Two sinusoidal waves of alternating current that interfere with one another in tissues.
128
What is the frequency of the waves used in IFC?
~4000 Hz
129
What are the therapeutic uses of IFC?
Pain, edema, increases blood flow, muscle stimulation.
130
What is Functional Electrical Stimulation (FES) used for?
Treatment of disuse atrophy, increasing ROM, re-educating muscle, managing spasticity.
131
Who benefits from Functional Electrical Stimulation?
Individuals with CNS conditions like stroke, MS, SCI, CP, PD, TBI.
132
Who cannot benefit from Functional Electrical Stimulation?
LMNL, peripheral nerve lesions, motor neuron disease, GBS, polio.
133
What is Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation?
The use of electrical stimulation to generate an action potential in a nerve leading to contraction of skeletal muscle.
134
What are the side effects of Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation?
Rhabdomyolysis, ischemic colitis, inappropriate ICD discharge.
135
What is High Volt Pulsed Current commonly used for?
Pain management, decreased edema, increased wound healing, muscle stimulation.
136
What is galvanotaxis?
The ability to repel or attract cells based on polarity.
137
What is the primary effect of Shortwave Diathermy (SWD)?
Increased number of white cells, histocytes, and fibroblasts in a wound.
138
What are the principles of heat application?
In warm temp = vessel dilation; in cold temp = vasoconstriction.
139
What are Hydrocollator Packs used for?
Superficial heating of tissues.
140
What are the contraindications for Paraffin Wax Therapy?
Open wound, skin infection, defective skin sensation, ischemic conditions, skin allergy.
141
What is the purpose of a contrast bath?
Produces blood flow to tissues and sensory stimulation.
142
What are the therapeutic uses of cold application?
Recent injuries, inflammation, pain, muscle spasm, chronic edema.
143
What sensations are typically felt during an ice massage?
Cold, burning, aching, numbness.
144
What is the recommended treatment time for ice massage?
Until the patient experiences analgesia or numbness, usually 5-10 minutes.
145
What is the recommended treatment time for Hydrocollator Packs?
20 mins
146
Fill in the blank: The application of PSWT is claimed to restore the cell membrane potential to their ______ values.
normal
147
What is the frequency used for wound healing with High Volt Pulsed Current?
50-100 Hz
148
What is the primary purpose of ice massage?
To control pain, edema, or inflammation.
## Footnote
Ice massage is typically applied until the patient experiences analgesia or reported numbness.
149
What sensations does a patient usually feel during an ice massage?
* Cold
* Burning
* Aching
* Numbness
## Footnote
These sensations occur sequentially during the massage.
150
What is the recommended duration for applying cold therapy?
5-15 minutes, no longer!
## Footnote
It's essential to check the skin at 1 minute and 5 minutes for potential cold urticaria.
151
What are the thermal effects of heat application?
* Decreased pain
* Decreased muscle spasm
* Increased joint range of motion
* Analgesic effects
* Tissue deformity
## Footnote
Heat stimulates the sympathetic nervous system.
152
What are the contraindications for heat and cold application?
Refer to the specific chart provided.
## Footnote
Clear contraindications need to be observed before treatment.
153
How does ultrasound produce heat?
Through intensity, duration of exposure, and size of the area sonated.
## Footnote
Pulsed ultrasound is a non-thermal modality.
154
What are the four basic physiologic effects of ultrasound?
* Chemical Responses
* Biological Responses
* Mechanical Responses
* Thermal Effects
## Footnote
Cavitation is a key mechanical response where bubbles of gas are produced in tissues.
155
What is the importance of keeping the transducer head moving during ultrasound treatment?
To avoid uneven beam non-uniformity ratio and prevent 'bone burn'.
## Footnote
Tissues with high collagen absorb more ultrasound energy.
156
What is the difference between pulsed and continuous ultrasound?
Pulsed ultrasound has little thermal effects and is indicated for acute conditions, while continuous ultrasound is used for chronic conditions.
## Footnote
Pulsed ultrasound can be described by its mark-space ratio.
157
What are the frequency settings for ultrasound based on tissue depth?
* 1 MHz for deeper tissues
* 3 MHz for shallow tissues
## Footnote
1 MHz penetrates and absorbs deeper than 3 MHz.
158
What are the parameters for ultrasound treatment intensity?
* Acute: 0.1-0.5 w/cm²
* Subacute: 0.5-0.8 w/cm²
* Chronic: 1.0-2.5 w/cm²
## Footnote
Always keep the transducer head moving to maintain treatment effectiveness.
159
What are the three features of a laser?
* Monochromaticity
* Coherence
* Collimation
## Footnote
These features are essential for effective laser therapy.
160
What is the application technique for laser therapy?
* Contact: Grid or point
* Non-contact: scanning or grid
## Footnote
Safety glasses should be worn by both the patient and the therapist.
161
What is the recommended dose for acute and chronic laser therapy?
* Acute: 2 J per point
* Chronic: 4 J per point
## Footnote
These doses are based on WALT guidelines.
162
What is the duty cycle for a pulsed ultrasound with a mark-space ratio of 1:4?
20%
## Footnote
The duty cycle is the percentage of time the ultrasound is on compared to the total cycle time.
163
What should be done to prepare the skin before ultrasound treatment?
Clean, warm, and wet the skin; use gel.
## Footnote
Proper skin preparation is essential for effective ultrasound transmission.
