Neurology W3 Flashcards
vestibular, peripheral nerves, mental disorders
1
Q
What are the causes of dizziness?
A
Cardiovascular, neurological, visual, psychogenic, cervicogenic, medications, vestibular
These causes can overlap and may require careful assessment to determine the underlying issue.
2
Q
What is the function of the vestibular system?
A
Gaze stabilization, postural stabilization, spatial awareness
The vestibular system plays a critical role in balance and orientation.
3
Q
What are the components of the vestibular system?
A
Semicircular canals, otolith organs, cranial nerves
Each component has specific functions related to balance and spatial orientation.
4
Q
What is the primary function of the semicircular canals?
A
Stimulate vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR), detect rotational movements
The semicircular canals are essential for maintaining gaze stability during head movements.
5
Q
How many semicircular canals are there and what do they detect?
A
Three canals: Horizontal (rotation around a vertical axis), Anterior (sagittal plane rotation), Posterior (frontal plane)
Each canal is oriented to detect specific types of head movements.
6
Q
What are the otolith organs responsible for?
A
*Detect acceleration and deceleration in linear planes
*sense static head position.
The otolith organs help in understanding head position relative to gravity.
7
Q
What is the function of the saccule within the otolith organs?
A
Detects vertical plane motion and tilting of the head forwards/backwards
Saccule plays a key role in detecting changes in vertical movement.
8
Q
What are cranial nerves?
A
12 pairs of nerves emerging from the brain and brainstem
Cranial nerves are essential for various sensory and motor functions.
9
Q
What is the pneumonic to remember the cranial nerves’ order?
A
Only one of the two athletes felt very good victorious and healthy
This pneumonic helps to recall the names of cranial nerves in sequence.
10
Q
What does the pneumonic ‘Some Say Money Matters, But My Brother Says Big Boobs Matter More’ represent?
A
Sensory, Motor, Both classification of cranial nerves
Each word’s first letter indicates the function of the corresponding cranial nerve.
11
Q
What is the function of the Olfactory nerve (CN I)?
A
Smell
Damage can cause anosmia, the inability to detect smells.
12
Q
What is the function of the Optic nerve (CN II)?
A
Vision (acuity & field of vision)
Damage can lead to various types of vision loss.
13
Q
What is assessed with the Oculomotor nerve (CN III)?
A
Extraocular eye movements, pupil size & reactivity, convergence
Issues can lead to diplopia and ptosis.
14
Q
What is the primary function of the Trochlear nerve (CN IV)?
A
Superior oblique - eye movement (down and inward)
Dysfunction may cause difficulty looking downwards.
15
Q
What are the three branches of the Trigeminal nerve (CN V)?
A
V1 (ophthalmic), V2 (maxillary), V3 (mandibular)
This nerve is responsible for sensation and motor functions in the face.
16
Q
What is the main function of the Abducens nerve (CN VI)?
A
eye movements - lateral (lateral rectus)
Damage can result in inability to abduct the eye.
17
Q
What functions does the Facial nerve (CN VII) serve?
A
Facial expression, taste (anterior 2/3 of tongue), eyelid and lip closure
Damage can lead to drooping of the face and difficulty with expression.
18
Q
What is the function of the Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)?
A
Hearing, equilibrium, gaze stability
Dysfunction can lead to balance problems and vertigo.
19
Q
What is the primary role of the Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)?
A
Gag reflex, swallowing, phonation, taste (posterior 1/3 of tongue)
Damage can impair swallowing and taste.
20
Q
What are the functions of the Vagus nerve (CN X)?
A
Gag reflex (motor), swallowing (motor), speech, parasympathetic control
It affects multiple organ systems including heart and digestive tract.
21
Q
What is the function of the Spinal Accessory nerve (CN XI)?
A
Shoulder movement and head rotation (upper trapezius and SCM)
Damage can cause inability to shrug the shoulder or turn the head.
22
Q
What is the role of the Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)?
A
Muscles of the tongue
Damage can result in dysarthria and deviation of the tongue.
23
Q
What is the Vestibular ocular reflex (VOR)?
A
Maintains stable vision during head movement by producing eye movements in the direction opposite to head movement.
24
Q
What happens to VOR with unilateral and bilateral vestibular loss?
A
It becomes deficient.
25
What are the three spinal tracts involved in autonomic postural control?
* Lateral vestibulospinal
* Medial vestibulospinal
* Reticulospinal
26
What is the function of the lateral vestibulospinal tract?
Maintain posture in limbs and trunk via extensors.
27
What is the function of the medial vestibulospinal tract?
Coordinates head and neck movements.
28
What does the reticulospinal tract modulate?
Muscle tone and aids in posture and locomotion.
29
Define vertigo.
The subjective experience of nystagmus (room spinning around you).
30
What condition is associated with vertigo?
Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV).
31
What is dizziness?
A sensation of being off balance, unsteady, with a discrepancy between right and left side.
32
What is oscillopsia?
Blurred vision due to objects in vision jumping/oscillating.
33
What is nystagmus?
Involuntary, rapid, and repeated movement of the eyes.
34
What is Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)?
Displacement of otoconia crystals from otolith organs.
35
Where are otoconia crystals most often displaced into during BPPV?
Posterior semicircular canal.
36
What brings on symptoms of BPPV?
* Brief transient vertigo
* Looking up/down
* Rolling to that side in bed
* Sitting to supine
* Bending forward to pick something up
37
What is the Dix-Hallpike maneuver used for?
To test for BPPV.
38
What is the positive test result for the Dix-Hallpike maneuver?
Presence of transient nystagmus.
39
What are contraindications to the Dix-Hallpike maneuver?
* Arthritis (RA)
* Vertebral artery insufficiency
* 5D’s (dizziness, diplopia, dysphagia, dysarthria, drop attacks)
* Cervical spine instability
* VBI (vestibular insufficiency)
* Arnold-Chiari malformation
* Acute whiplash
* Prolapsed IV disc with radiculopathy
* Cervical myelopathy
40
What is the treatment for BPPV in the posterior canal?
Epley maneuver.
41
What are the causes of Unilateral vestibular loss?
* Infection (vestibular neuritis, labyrinthitis)
* Disease (Meniere’s)
* Trauma
* BPPV
42
What characterizes Meniere’s disease?
* Episodes of vertigo
* Progressive unilateral nerve deafness
* Low frequency hearing loss
* Tinnitus
* Sense of pressure in the ears
#footnote disease of the inner ear due to overaccumulation of endolymph
43
What is Acoustic Neuroma?
Benign growth forming on the cells of CN VIII.
44
What are the acute signs and symptoms of Unilateral vestibular loss?
* Spontaneous nystagmus away from the affected ear
* Reduced VOR
* Vertigo
* Dizziness
* Oscillopsia
* Imbalance
45
What is the HINTS exam used for?
To differentiate between peripheral and central vestibular disorders.
46
What are the components of the HINTS exam?
* Head impulse test
* Nystagmus observation
* Test of skew
47
What does a positive head impulse test indicate?
peripheral cause of vestibular disorder; negative = potentially central.
48
What does vertical or bidirectional nystagmus indicate?
Central disorder.
49
What does a positive test of skew indicate?
98% specific for central disorder.
50
What are the causes of Bilateral vestibular loss?
* Toxicity
* Bilateral vestibular infections
* Vestibular neuropathy
* Otosclerosis
51
What is the presentation of Bilateral vestibular loss?
Very poor balance with no sensation of dizziness.
52
What are central vestibular disorders caused by?
* TIA
* Stroke
* Head injury
* Brain tumor
* MS
53
What are red flags for central vestibular disorders?
* Direction changing nystagmus
* Inconsistency in test results
54
What is the treatment for central vestibular disorders based on?
Neuroplasticity.
55
What is Cervicogenic Dizziness (CGD)?
Clinical syndrome of dizziness + neck pain.
56
What is the diagnosis for Cervicogenic Dizziness?
Diagnosis of exclusion.
57
What are the signs and symptoms of Cervicogenic Dizziness?
* Neck pain
* Dizziness associated with cervical spine position/movement
* Reduced cervical ROM
* Sometimes headache
58
What is the difference between non-vertiginous dizziness and vertigo?
Non-vertiginous dizziness is floating, unsteady, lightheaded; vertigo is the world moving around you or you feel like you are moving.
59
What is Acoustic Neuroma also known as?
Vestibular Schwannoma.
60
What is the common age range for Acoustic Neuroma?
Common later in life, 50-60 years.
61
What is the treatment duration for sensorimotor mismatch exercises?
8-12 weeks.
62
What is a Peripheral Neuropathy?
Injury to peripheral nerve that may be due to injury or illness
63
What is the most common cause of Peripheral Neuropathy?
Diabetes
64
List the types of Peripheral Neuropathies.
* Mononeuropathy
* Mononeuritis
* Polyneuropathy
* Autonomic neuropathy
* Neuritis
65
What is Bell’s Palsy?
Peripheral nerve injury to the Facial Nerve (CN VII)
66
What are the functions of CN VII?
* Muscles of facial expression
* Dampens vibrational sound (Stapedius muscle of inner ear)
* Taste (ant aspect of tongue)
* Tears & salivation
67
What are the causes of Bell’s Palsy?
* Unknown
* Idiopathic
* Tumor
* Traumatic (e.g., Dental work)
* Viral infection (e.g., Latent herpes virus)
68
What are the clinical manifestations of Bell's Palsy?
* Unilateral facial paralysis
* Unable to smile, scrunch forehead, raise eyebrows, puff cheeks
* Drooping of corner of mouth
* Drooling
* Drooping of corner of eye
* "Crocodile tears"
* Eyelid won’t close
* Dry eyes
* No taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue
69
What are the treatments for Bell's Palsy?
* Corticosteroids
* Facial muscle exercises
* Muscle stimulation (poor evidence)
* Pain management: Heat
* Protect eye with eye drops
70
Compare UMNL and LMNL causing facial paralysis.
* LMNL ➔ entire ipsilateral face droops
* UMNL ➔ contralateral face droops but forehead is spared
71
What is Diabetic Neuropathy?
Peripheral nerve disorder in diabetes that occurs without any other cause for neuropathy
72
What causes Diabetic Neuropathy?
* Chronic metabolic disturbance affects nerve and Schwann cells
* Hyperglycemia leads to abnormal micro-circulation
* Loss of both myelinated and unmyelinated axons
73
What are the presenting signs of Diabetic Neuropathy?
* Symmetrical distal pattern
* Sensory nerve damage
* Broad sensory deficits
* Neuropathic pain (20% of those with diabetic neuropathy)
* Autonomic nerve damage
* Motor nerve damage (rarer)
74
What is the treatment for Diabetic Neuropathy?
* Control hyperglycemia
* Education on skin care
75
What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?
Chronic pain condition believed to be the result of dysfunction in central or peripheral nervous system
76
What are typical features of CRPS?
* Changes in the color and temp of the skin
* Intense burning pain
* Skin sensitivity
* Sweating
* Swelling
* Stiffness
77
What are the stages of CRPS?
* Stage 1 (0-3 mo): Puffy swelling, redness, warmth, stiffness, allodynia
* Stage 2 (3-6 mo): Increased pain and stiffness, firm edema, cyanosis, atrophy
* Stage 3 (6 mo plus): Tight, smooth, glossy, cool, pale skin, stiffness and contractures
78
What are the types of Peripheral Nerve Injuries?
* Neurapraxia
* Axonotmesis
* Neurotmesis
79
What is Neurapraxia?
Transient disruption with good prognosis as swelling resolves
80
What is Axonotmesis?
Disruption of axon with myelin sheath still intact; may cause paralysis of nerve
81
What is Neurotmesis?
Completely severed axon and sheath; will cause paralysis of nerve
82
What is Wallerian Degeneration?
Process that occurs when a nerve fiber is injured but myelin sheath is still intact - axon and myelin sheath are disintegrated in a distal to proximal fashion below the level of the injury
83
describe how a peripheral nerve regenerates.
Distal end of the nerve fiber proximal to the lesion sends out sprouts attracted by growth factors produced by cells in the distal myelin sheath
84
What is Segmental Demyelination?
Focal degeneration of the myelin sheath with sparing of the axon
85
What is Cerebral Palsy?
Non progressive lesion of the brain that occurs before the age of 2
86
What are the causes of Cerebral Palsy?
* Prenatal conditions
* Perinatal conditions
* Postnatal conditions that result in anoxia, hemorrhage or brain damage
87
What is Periventricular Leukomalacia?
Most common ischemic brain injury in premature babies characterized by damage to the white matter near the lateral ventricles - often occurs due to lack of blood flow
88
List the risk factors for Cerebral Palsy.
* Older mom
* Low birth weight/small for gestational age
* Invitro fertilization (IVF)
* Abnormal placenta attachment
* Blood type incompatibility
* Prematurity
* Low Apgar score
* Decreased brain O2 supply
* Anoxia
89
What are the types of Cerebral Palsy?
* Spastic
* Ataxic
* Athetoid
* Dystonic
* Hypotonic
90
What is Spastic Cerebral Palsy?
Spasticity present with velocity dependent resistance to muscle stretch
91
What is Ataxic Cerebral Palsy?
Caused by cerebellar damage, leading to coordination problems
92
What is Athetoid Cerebral Palsy?
Caused by damage to basal ganglia, characterized by uncontrolled writhing movements of extremities and oral muscles.
fluctuating muscle tone both hyper and hypotonia
93
What is Dystonic Cerebral Palsy?
Caused by damage to basal ganglia, leading to long sustained involuntary movements and postures
94
What are common medical management strategies for Cerebral Palsy?
* Baclofen pump
* Dorsal rhizotomy
* Botox
* Serial casting
* Tendon release
* Osteotomy
95
What is Down Syndrome?
Genetic disorder caused by the presence of part or all of a third copy of chromosome 21
96
What are signs of cervical instability in Down Syndrome?
* Neck pain
* Cervical ROM changes
* Neurological manifestations
97
What is Spina Bifida?
Neural tube defect resulting in vertebral and/or spinal cord malformation
98
What are the risks factors for development of Spina Bifida?
* Decreased maternal folic acid
* Infection
* Exposure to teratogens (alcohol)
99
What are the types of Spina Bifida?
* Spina Bifida Occulta
* Spina Bifida Cystica
* Meningocele
* Myelomeningocele
100
What is Hydrocephalus?
Abnormal accumulation of CSF within the brain
101
What are early warning signs of Hydrocephalus?
* Irritability
* Changes in sleep patterns
* Changes in appetite and weight
102
What are common functional outcomes for T12 level Spina Bifida myelomeningocele?
Mostly wheelchair-bound
103
What is Erb’s Palsy?
Injury to C5-C6 (Upper trunk of brachial plexus) causing loss of elbow flexors and wrist extensors
104
What is the typical position seen in Erb’s Palsy?
Arm adducted, internally rotated, elbow extended, and forearm pronated
105
What is the treatment for Erb's Palsy?
* Immobilization initially
* Gentle ROM
* Play exercises
* Prevent contractures
106
How is C4 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?
Resisted shoulder shrugs/elevation
107
What is the C5 myotome?
Resisted shoulder abduction
108
How is C6 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?
Resisted elbow flexion or wrist extension
109
How is C7 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?
Resisted elbow extension or wrist flexion
110
How is C8 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?
Resisted thumb extension or finger flexion
111
How is T1 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?
Fingers abduction or adduction
112
How is L1-L2 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?
Resisted hip flexion
113
How is L3 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?
Resisted knee extension
114
How is L4 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?
Resisted foot dorsiflexion
115
How is L5 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?
Resisted great toe extension
116
How is S1 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?
Resisted plantar flexion or hip extension
117
How is S2 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?
Resisted knee flexion
118
What region does C4 dermatome cover?
Over the AC Joint
119
What region does C5 dermatome cover?
On lateral side of antecubital fossa just proximal to the elbow joint
120
What region does C6 dermatome cover?
On dorsal surface of the thumb
121
What region does C7 dermatome cover?
On the dorsal surface of the proximal middle phalanx
122
What region does C8 dermatome cover?
On the dorsal surface of the proximal little phalanx
123
What region does T2 dermatome cover?
At the apex of the axilla
124
What region does T4 dermatome cover?
At the mid clavicular line at the level of the nipples
125
What region does T10 dermatome cover?
Located at level of the umbilicus
126
What region does L1 dermatome cover?
Inguinal line
127
What region does L2 dermatome cover?
Medial upper thigh
128
What region does L3 dermatome cover?
Medial knee
129
What region does L4 dermatome cover?
Medial malleolus
130
What region does L5 dermatome cover?
Dorsum of the foot at the third MTP joint
131
What region does S1 dermatome cover?
Lateral calcaneus
132
What region does S2 dermatome cover?
Posterior knee
133
What region does S3 dermatome cover?
Over the ischial tuberosity
134
What region do S4-S5 dermatomes cover?
Perineum (skin tissue between the genitals)
135
What is the purpose of neurodynamic testing?
To examine the neurological structures for adaptive shortening and inflammation of the neural structures
136
What finding is inspected with neurodynamic testing?
The neuromeningeal system, with tension potentially affecting ROM in the trunk and extremities
137
What are mechanisms of injury related to neural mobility?
* Adverse posture
* Direct Trauma
* Extremes of motions
* Electrical injury
* Compression/ischemia
138
What is the straight leg raise used for?
To stress the sciatic nerve and exert caudal traction on the nerve roots of L4-S2
139
What occurs between 30-70 degrees of straight leg raise?
The spinal nerve and their dural sleeves are stretched
140
What is the crossed straight leg raise?
SLR that causes pain in the contralateral leg but not when the contralateral leg is tested, indicative of a large disc protrusion
141
What does the slump test detect?
Adverse nerve root tension
142
What does the prone knee bend stretch?
The femoral nerve using hip extension and knee flexion
143
What does the upper limb tension test assess?
Brachial plexus tension through an ordered sequence of movements
144
What is the sequence for testing the median nerve?
* Shoulder girdle depression
* Humeral abduction to 110 degrees
* Forearm supination
* Elbow, wrist, and finger extension
145
What is the sequence for testing the radial nerve (ULTT)?
* Shoulder girdle depression
* Humeral abduction and internal rotation
* Forearm pronation
* Elbow extension
* Wrist and finger/thumb flexion
146
What is the sequence for testing the ulnar nerve (ULTT)?
* Shoulder girdle depression
* Humeral abduction
* Forearm pronation
* Elbow flexion
* Wrist extension
147
What does the cervical plexus serve?
The head, neck, and shoulders
148
What does the brachial plexus serve?
The chest, shoulders, arms, and hands
149
What does the lumbar plexus serve?
The back, abdomen, groin, thighs, knees, and calves
150
What does the sacral plexus serve?
The pelvis, buttocks, genitals, thighs, calves, and feet
151
What muscles are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve?
* Peroneus Brevis
* Peroneus Longus
152
What is the sensory area of the superficial peroneal nerve?
Anterolateral lower leg and dorsum of foot and big toe (except web space innervated by deep peroneal branch)
153
What movements are weakened by superficial peroneal nerve injury?
Eversion (may have mild eversion due to Peroneus Tertius innervation) and plantar flexion (minimally weakened)
154
What muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve?
* Tibialis Anterior
* EHL
* EDL
* Peroneus Tertius
155
What is the sensory area of the deep peroneal nerve?
Web space between big toe
156
What movements are affected by deep peroneal nerve injury?
Dorsiflexion, toe extension, and inversion (still have Tib Post to help with this movement)
157
What is Klumke’s Palsy?
Injury to C8, T1 (Lower trunk of brachial plexus) causing weakness of wrist & finger (4 & 5) flexors and intrinsic muscles of hand
| claw hand
158
What causes carpal tunnel syndrome?
Compression induced ischemia and segmental demyelination of median nerve in the palmar aspect of the wrist
159
What structures does the carpal tunnel contain?
* Flexor pollicis longus
* FDS
* FDP
* median nerve
160
What are common causes of carpal tunnel syndrome?
* Anterior dislocation of lunate
* Tenosynovitis of the flexor tendons
* Direct trauma
* Obesity
* Pregnancy
* Fracture
* Occupational demands
* Overuse
161
What are signs and symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?
* Sensory changes in median nerve distribution (excluding palm)
* Night time numbness
* Thenar atrophy
* Weakness of opponens pollicis muscle
* Paresthesia of palmar surface of thumb, index, and middle fingers
* Pain distally
162
What does the Wright Test or Allen’s Maneuver assess?
Thoracic outlet syndrome by palpating radial pulse while abducting arm
163
What is the Military Brace Test for?
To assess thoracic outlet syndrome by palpating radial pulse while drawing the shoulder down and back
164
What is double crush syndrome?
Nerve irritability that develops symptoms at other areas along its course as well as at the primary site
165
What is the treatment for thoracic outlet syndrome?
* Regain normal muscle length
* Improve endurance in postural muscles
* Patient education on posture
166
What is schizophrenia?
Psychotic disorder with fragmented thoughts, bizarre ideas, and withdrawal.
167
What are common signs and symptoms of schizophrenia?
Experience hallucinations, delusions, grandiose thought, altered sense of self, negative symptoms like depression, low energy, low motivation, reclusiveness, and paranoia.
168
True or False: Schizophrenia is the same as multiple personality disorder.
False
169
What is paranoia?
Psychotic disorder characterized by delusions of persecution and suspicion.
170
What are anxiety disorders?
Includes panic disorders/attacks, PTSD, phobias, and OCD.
171
What is psychopathy?
Antisocial personality disorder characterized by behavior patterns lacking moral and ethical standards.
172
What characterizes clinical depression?
Feelings of sadness or helplessness, low drive for activity or achievement, withdrawal, fatigue, and weight loss.
173
What are the symptoms of bipolar disorder?
Extreme mood changes, cycles between mania and depression.
174
Define mania in the context of bipolar disorder.
Periods of great excitement, euphoria, delusions, and overactivity.
175
Define depression in the context of bipolar disorder.
Fatigue, withdrawal, feelings of worthlessness, often excessive sleep.
176
What is dementia?
General term for loss of memory and other mental abilities severe enough to interfere with daily life.
177
What is Alzheimer's Disease?
Most common type of dementia, accounting for 60-80% of cases.
178
What are early symptoms of Alzheimer's Disease?
Difficulty remembering recent conversations, names, or events; apathy and depression.
179
What are hallmark abnormalities in Alzheimer's Disease?
Deposits of beta-amyloid (plaques) and twisted strands of tau (tangles).
180
What is Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB)?
Dementia characterized by memory loss, thinking problems, sleep disturbances, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonian features.
181
What causes Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome?
Severe deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B-1), often due to alcohol misuse.
182
What is the main symptom of Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome?
Severe memory problems with relatively unaffected thinking and social skills.
183
What are the goals of neurorehabilitation?
Maintain participation, activity, body structure and function; prevent complications; encourage neuroplasticity; adapt to impairments.
184
What does neuroplasticity require?
Task-specific practice and intervention paired with behavior.
185
What is receptive aphasia?
Able to verbalize but cannot comprehend verbal commands.
186
What is expressive aphasia?
Able to understand instructions but cannot verbalize.
187
Define anosognosia.
Lack of awareness or denial of a neurologic defect or illness.
188
What is astereognosis?
Inability to identify held objects in the absence of language or sensory loss.
189
Define hypertonia.
Increased muscle readiness perceived as excessively stiff and taut.
190
What is hypotonia?
Diminished resting muscle tone and decreased ability to generate voluntary muscle force.
191
What is spasticity?
Velocity-dependent increase in stretch reflexes with exaggerated tendon jerks.
192
Define rigidity.
Increased resistance to passive movement that does not vary with speed.
193
What is dystonia?
Hyperkinetic movement disorder with involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal postures.
194
What is athetosis?
Hyperkinetic disorder characterized by slow, writhing movements of the distal extremities.
195
Define chorea.
Hyperkinetic movement disorder with involuntary, random, quick jerking movements.
196
What is ataxia?
Failure of muscular coordination resulting from cerebellar lesions.
197
What does dysdiadochokinesia refer to?
Impaired ability to perform rapid, alternating movements.
198
What is dysmetria?
Overshooting or undershooting the intended goal.
199
What does proprioception test?
Patient's ability to determine direct position sense.
200
What is graphesthesia?
Ability to recognize written symbols on the skin.
201
Define hyperpathia.
Everything feels sharp.
202
What is neuropathy?
Disease of nerves characterized by deteriorating neural function.
203
What is diaschisis?
Sudden loss of function in a portion of the brain connected to a damaged area.
204
What does myelopathy refer to?
Pathology of the spinal cord, characterized by complete spinal cord compression
205
What is fasciculation?
Twitching of muscle fibers in a single motor neuron unit.
