Multiple Choice

Question 1

What drug is used to treat severe Paget disease?

A) raloxifene
B) calcium/ vitamin D
C) bisphosphonate
D) teriparatide

Answer 1

C) bisphosphonate

Question 2

A patient should avoid tyramine if taking which class of antidepressant?

A) SNRI’s
B) MAOI’s
C) TCA’s
D) SSRI’s

Answer 2

B) MAOI’s

Question 3

Which class of medication has an increased incidence of sexual disfunction (impotence)?

A) SSRI
B) SNRI
C) MAOI
D) Benzo
E) Triptan

Answer 3

A) SSRI

Question 4

An adverse effect of pegloticase is anaphylaxis in 6.5% of patients. What medication should you give prior to IV administration?

A) antihistamine and H2 inhibitor
B) antihistamine and glucocorticoid
C) epinephrine and glucocorticoid
D) epinephrine and H2 inhibitor

Answer 4

B) antihistamine and glucocorticoid

Question 5

What regulates the release of PTH?

A) calcium
B) parathyroid hormone
C) vitamin D
D) calcitonin

Answer 5

A) calcium

Question 6

Which of the following is a non-stimulant drug sometimes used for ADHD?

A) methylphenidate (Ritalin)
B) lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse)
C) atomoxetine (Strattera)
D) modafinil (Provigil)

Answer 6

C) atomoxetine (Strattera)

Question 7

How long does it take to see the maximal response from an SSRI:

A) 6 weeks
B) 12 weeks
C) 1 week
D) 3 days
E) 3 weeks

Answer 7

B) 12 weeks

Question 8

The most common side effect of COX-2 Inhibitors (Coxibs) is:

A) headache
B) GI bleed
C) liver injury
D) dyspepsia

Answer 8

D) dyspepsia

Question 9

Which of the following medication classes are used to prevent migraines?

A) Beta-blockers
B) TCAs
C) Antiepileptics
D) Calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor antagonist
E) All of the above

Answer 9

E) All of the above

Question 10

What is the common suffix for beta blocker drug class?

A) -olol
B) -amil
C) -apine
D) -ramine

Answer 10

A) -olol

Question 11

Tizanidine and metaxalone have the have the potential to cause which adverse side effect:

A) nephrotoxicity
B) cardiac dysrhythmias
C) GI ulcerations
D) hepatic toxicity

Answer 11

D) hepatic toxicity

Question 12

Which drug class has a black box warning of “Increased risk of suicide, especially in children, adolescents, and young adults”.

A) Mood-stabilizing drugs
B) Hypnotics
C) Antidepressants
D) Central nervous system stimulants

Answer 12

C) Antidepressants

Question 13

Which of the following migraine medication has a black box warning of “fatal pancreatitis and hepatitis”…and “neural tube defects”?

A) Erenumab
B) Propanolol
C) Divalproex
D) Amitriptyline

Answer 13

C) Divalproex

Question 14

Many rheumatologist consider which DMARD as first choice in RA?

A) adalimumab
B) methotrexate
C) minocycline
D) hydroxychloroquine

Answer 14

B) methotrexate

Question 15

Atypical femoral fractures have been associated with bisphosphonate use. To decrease the chance of atypical femoral fractures, it's recommended that patients be reevaluated after \_\_\_\_ years of treatment.
A) 10
B) 5
C) 1
D) 3

Answer 15

B) 5

Question 16

Which of the DMARDs carries the risk of retinal damage?

A) methotrexate
B) hydroxychloroquine
C) leflunomide
D) abatacept

Answer 16

B) hydroxychloroquine

Question 17

Symptoms of withdrawal syndrome from SSRIs can be minimized by:

A) tapering the dose slowly
B) Switching to another class of medication
C) Taking it at a different time during the day

Answer 17

A) tapering the dose slowly

Question 18

What is the therapeutic range of lithium?

A) 0.6-0.8 mEq/L
B) 0.2-0.4 mEq/L
C) 1.2-1.4 mEq/L

Answer 18

A) 0.6-0.8 mEq/L

Question 19

To reduce methotrexate associated GI and liver toxicity, which supplement is recommended to be taken with methotrexate?

A) folic acid
B) calcium carbonate
C) vitamin D
D) Potassium

Answer 19

A) folic acid

Question 20

Dantrolene has a black box warning regarding:

A) nephrotoxicity
B) hepatotoxicity
C) status epilepticus
D) hypertensive crisis

Answer 20

B) hepatotoxicity

Question 21

According to current guidelines, which class of medications should be started first when a patient is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis to decrease disease progression?

A) DMARDs
B) Glucocorticoids
C) COX-2s
D) COX-1s

Answer 21

A) DMARDs

Question 22

Cyclobenzaprine is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant. An adverse effect to this medication is:

A) GI effects
B) Stimulant effects
C) anticholinergic effects
D) SSRI effects

Answer 22

C) anticholinergic effects

Question 23

Which of the following is an anticholinergic effect?

A) constipation
B) bradycardia
C) slurred speech

Answer 23

A) constipation

Question 24

What drug is first-line for prevention of chronic cluster headaches?

A) propanolol
B) verapamil
C) Ergotamine
D) lithium

Answer 24

B) verapamil

Question 25

Zoledronic acid, an IV bisphosphonate, has been associated with bone injury and most commonly what condition?

A) osteosarcoma
B) necrotizing fasciitis
C) atypical femur fractures
D) osteonecrosis of the jaw

Answer 25

D) osteonecrosis of the jaw

Question 26

Which RA drug has a black box warning of “numerous and potentially fatal toxicities of the bone marrow, lungs, and kidneys.”

A) adalimumab
B) sulfasalazine
C) anakinra
D) methotrexate

Answer 26

D) methotrexate

Question 27

Which of the following is a side effect of serotonin syndrome?

A) Hypertension
B) Hypothermia
C) Tachycardia
D) Change in vision
E) Delusions

Answer 27

A) Hypertension

Question 28

Carbamazepine has a black box warning associated with which condition?

A) Aplastic Anemia
B) Lupus
C) gingival hyperplasia
D) seizures

Answer 28

A) Aplastic Anemia