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MYCO Flashcards

1
Q

Study of fungi

A

MYCOLOGY

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2
Q

fungi are
a. eukaryote
b. prokaryote

A

a. Eukaryote (have true nucleus)

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3
Q

characteristic of fungi that became the reason why nourishment must come from environment

A

Achlorophyllous (lack chlorophyll)

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4
Q

fungi are

a. anaerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate aerobes

A

c. obligate aerobes

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5
Q

fungi that said to inhabit water, soil and decaying organic debri

A

Saprophytic

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6
Q

fungi are said belong to plant kingdom without roots and stems

A

Thallophytes

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7
Q

composition of fungi’s cell wall

A

Chitin

*resembles keratin as to function (provides protection) but not as to composition

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8
Q

composition of fungi’s cell membrane

A

Ergosterol

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9
Q

required for fungi for growth

A

moisture (↑ humidity)

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10
Q

fungi are

a. fast growers
b. slow growers

A

b. slow growers

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11
Q

T/F

Fungi may exhibit monomorphism or dimorphism

A

T

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12
Q

Existing only as yeast or mold

A

Monomorphic

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13
Q

Existing either as yeast or mold

A

Dimorphic (temp. dependent)

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14
Q

2 BASIC MORPHOLOGICAL FORMS OF FUNGI

A

yeast
mold

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15
Q

Unicellular morph form of fungi

A

YEAST

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16
Q

Morph form of fungi that mostly reproduce asexually by budding

A

YEAST

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17
Q

colonies of yeast

A

moist creamy, opaque, pasty
(resembles bacterial colonies)

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18
Q

what is required for yeast ID

A

physiologic/biochem tests since most yeast spp. has similar microscopic and colonial morphology

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19
Q

morph form of fungi that grows at 37C

A

yeast

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20
Q

morph form of fungi that grows at room temp

A

mold

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21
Q

Multicellular, filamentous morph form of fungi

A

MOLD

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22
Q

colonies of mold

A

fluffy, cottony, woolly or powdery

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23
Q

fundamental microscopic unit of fungi

A

Hyphae

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24
Q

Function of hyphae

A

absorption of nutrients from environment

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25
Q

mass of countless hyphae

A

Mycelium

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26
Q

PARTS of mycelium

A

Vegetative mycelium (thallus)
Aerial mycelium (reproductive)

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27
Q

part of mycelium that penetrates the surface medium, absorbs nutrients

A

Vegetative mycelium (thallus)

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28
Q

part of mycelium that extends above the surface; contains fruiting bodies that produces spores

A

Aerial mycelium (reproductive)

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29
Q

structures for reproduction

A

spores

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30
Q

Types of Hyphae

A

Aseptate (coenocytic)
Septate

Spiral (coiled hyphae)
Nodular bodies
Racquet
Pectinate body
Favic chandelier/antler

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31
Q

no cross walls

A

Aseptate (coenocytic)

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32
Q

divided into cells by crosswalls

A

Septate

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33
Q

ex. of aseptated

A

Zygomycetes (group Zygomycota)

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34
Q

ex. of septated

A

All except Zygomycetes

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35
Q

Spirally coiled type of hyphae

A

Spiral (coiled hyphae)

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36
Q

type of hyphae with club-shaped areas

A

Racquet

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37
Q

Enlargement in the mycelium
that consists of closely twisted
hyphae

A

Nodular bodies

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38
Q

type of hyphae that is short, unilateral projections from hyphae; broken-comb like

A

Pectinate body

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39
Q

type of hyphae that is curved, freely branching; resembles antlers of the dee

A

Favic chandelier/antler

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40
Q

ex. of fungi with spiral or coiled hyphae

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

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41
Q

ex. of fungi with nodular bodies

A

Microsporum canis

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42
Q

ex. of fungi with racquet hyphae

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

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43
Q

ex. of fungi with pectinate body

A

Microsporum audouinii

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44
Q

ex. of fungi with Favic chandelier/antler

A

T. schoenleinii
T. violaceum

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45
Q

fungi that produces both sexual and asexual spores

A

Synanomorphs/polymorph (perfect fungi)

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46
Q

fungi that produces only 1 type of spores

A

Imperfect fungi

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47
Q

fungi that produces only SEXUAL spores

A

Teleomorph

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48
Q

fungi that produces only ASEXUAL spores

A

Anamorph

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49
Q

process of SEXUAL spores formation

A

meiosis; result of nuclear fusion

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50
Q

process of ASEXUAL spores formation

A

mitosis; without nuclear fusion

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51
Q

enumerate sexual spores

A

Ascospores
Basidiospores
Zygospores
Oospores

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52
Q

Spores formed within ASCUS (SAC-LIKE structure); Produced in a fixed number of 8

A

Ascospores

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53
Q

Spores formed within BASIDIUM (CLUB-SHAPED structure)

A

Basidiospores

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54
Q

Formed from the union of 2 undifferentiated/identical hyphal cells

A

Zygospores

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55
Q

Formed from the union of 2 differentiated/non-identical hyphal cells

A

Oospores

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56
Q

enumerate ASEXUAL spores

A

Conidia
Sporangiospores

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57
Q

asexual spores produced singly or in groups attached by specialized vegetative hyphal strands called conidiophores

A

Conidia

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58
Q

unicellular, pyriform, elliptoid shaped conidia

A

Microconidia

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59
Q

larger, multicellular, spindle-shaped conidia

A

Macroconidia

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60
Q

enumerate conidia

A

Arthroconidia
Blastoconidia
Chlamydoconidia

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61
Q

conidia formed through hyphae fragmentation

A

Arthroconidia (Arthrospore)

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62
Q

conidia formed through budding

A

Blastoconidia
(Blastospore)

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63
Q

conidia formed from hyphae enlargement

A

Chlamydoconidia
(Chlamydospore)

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64
Q

ex. of Arthroconidia (Arthrospore)

A

Trichosporon
Geotrichum
Coccidiodes

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65
Q

ex. of Blastoconidia (Blastospore)

A

Candida

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66
Q

ex. of Chlamydoconidia (Chlamydospore)

A

Candida

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67
Q

parts of chlamydoconidia

A

Intercalary - within
Sessile - sides/lateral
Terminal - end

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68
Q

formed within a sporangium

A

Sporangiospores

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69
Q

ex of Sporangiospores

A

Zygomycetes

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70
Q

4 groups of fungi accdg to phylum

A

Zygomycota
Ascomycota
Basidiomycota
Deuteromycota

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71
Q

aka Conjugation fungi

A

Zygomycota

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72
Q

aka Sac fungi

A

Ascomycota

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73
Q

aka Club fungi

A

Basidiomycota

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74
Q

aka Fungi imperfecti

A

Deuteromycota

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75
Q

genera under Zygomycota

A

Mucor
Rhizopus
Absidia

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76
Q

genera under Ascomycota

A

Aspergillus (opportunistic)
Saccharomyces
Histoplasma capsulatum (causes systemic mycoses)

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77
Q

genera under Basidiomycota

A

C. neoformans (opportunistic)

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78
Q

genera under Deuteromycota

A

Dermatophytes
Fusarium

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79
Q

T/F

Spx collection for fungal ID thru swabbing is ACCEPTABLE

A

F

inadequate

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80
Q

All spx for fungi ID are refrigerated for a short period in case of delay except:

A

skin specimen
blood
CSF

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81
Q

spx collected using a fine needle; inoculated at bedside for fungal detection

A

Corneal scrapings

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82
Q

spx collected by aspiration; use of cotton swabs may give false + microscopic results

A

Pus

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83
Q

Most common specimen for fungal detection and ID

A

Respiratory tract secretions (sputum, bronchial washing & lavage)

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84
Q

Respiratory tract secretions are collected to recover these types of fungal agents

A

fungal agents causing systemic mycoses like H. capsulatum

85
Q

spx for suspected fungal meningitis

A

CSF

86
Q

CSF is for the detection of fungal meningitis caused by

A

C. neoformans (opportunistic, in immunocompromised)

87
Q

how is CSF for fungal ID processed?

A

either thru filtration or sedimentation

88
Q

pore diameter used to filter CSF for fungal ID

A

0.45 um

89
Q

sedimentation process of CSF for fungal ID is done thru

A

centri

Sediments – for smear prep and culture
Supernatant – for serology

90
Q

spx for fungal ID to r/o disseminated infections

A

Blood

91
Q

spx that relies on the use of BACTEC

A

blood

92
Q

specific type of fungi recovered using lysis centrifugation system of BLOOD

A

dimorphic fungi

93
Q

a process performed in BLOOD spx for fungi ID that is necessary because many fungi are intracellular

A

lysis centrifugation system

94
Q

allowable transportation duration of vaginal & urine spx

A

within 24 hrs

95
Q

vaginal secretions are specifically screened for

A

yeast

96
Q

temp and days of vaginal secretion incubation

A

30°C for 7 days

97
Q

spx for the recovery of dermatophytes

A

Hair, Skin, Nails

98
Q

Hair, Skin, Nails are spx used to recover and detect..

A

dermatophytes (causes cutaenous mycoses)

99
Q

How is hair collected for dermatophytes recovery

A

Infected hairs may be plucked using forceps. Those hairs that fluoresce under Wood’s lamp may be selectively plucked. Hairs may be collected in sterilized paper envelopes

100
Q

How is skin surface lesion collected for dermatophytes recovery

A

Skin surface must be disinfected with spirit before collection. The advancing edge of the lesion is scraped with the help of a blunt forceps and collected in sterilized paper envelopes

101
Q

How is nail collected for dermatophytes recovery

A

Discolored or hyperkeratotic areas of nail may be scraped or diseased nail clipping may be collected in sterilized paper envelopes

102
Q

how are Tissue, Bone Marrow, Sterile Body Fluids processed for fungi detection? what is the reason for doing that?

A

minced or use high speed blender

REASON: obtain cytoplasmic tissue content

103
Q

where are tissue samples inoculated for fungi ID

A

inoculated on agar, NOT ON BROTH

104
Q

Simplest method for direct examination of specimen for fungal ID

A

MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION

105
Q

T/F
Direct examination of specimens could be stained or unstained.

A

T

106
Q

used to observe clinical specimens for the presence of fungal elements or to identifify the fungus following culture

A

Microscopy

107
Q

enumerate TEMPORARY mounts

A

10-20% KOH
Lactophenol Cotton Blue (LPCB)
India Ink/ Nigrosin
Calcofluor white stain

108
Q

enumerate PERMANENT mounts

A

Gram stain (Hucker modif.)
Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)
Gomori Methenamine silver (GMS)
Acid Fast (Kinyoun’s)
Giemsa or Wright’s
Acridine orange
Fontana Masson
H&E
Mayer’s Mucicarmine
Gridley’s stain

109
Q

Dissolves non-fungal materials - make fungal structures visible

NOT for sterile spx

A

10-20% KOH

110
Q

a clearing agent; heat can increase clearing rate

A

10-20% KOH

111
Q

KOH conc for skin and hair

A

10%

112
Q

KOH conc for nails

A

20%

113
Q

temporary mount for hair, skin, and nails

A

10-20% KOH

114
Q

both a preservative and stain

A

Lactophenol Cotton Blue (LPCB)

115
Q

Most widely used staining method for fungi

A

Lactophenol Cotton Blue (LPCB)

116
Q

Components of LPCB and their function

A

Lactic acid – preservative
Phenol – killing agent
Cotton blue – stain

117
Q

used to demonstrate capsule of C. neoformans

A

India Ink/ Nigrosin

118
Q

a negative stain → result: colorless
*only the bg is stained, not the organism
*in histopath: it is an intravital stain

A

India Ink/ Nigrosin

119
Q

used to demonstrate chitin

A

Calcofluor white stain

120
Q

Best stain for direct microscopy

A

Calcofluor white stain

121
Q

a fluorchrome dye for chitin demonst.

A

Calcofluor white stain

122
Q

result of fungi in gram stain

A

gram +

123
Q

what is hucker modification

A

(V[+AO] IAS)

  • Crystal Violet + ammonium oxalate
  • Iodine (mordant)
  • Alcohol/acetone (decolorizer)
  • Safranin (counterstain)
124
Q

Stains fungi in tissues/histologic sec.

A

Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)
Gomori Methenamine silver (GMS)

125
Q

demonstrate details of fungal elements; a histologic stain

A

Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)

126
Q

In PAS
color of tissue with fungi and bg

A

Tissue w/ fungi: pink-red, bright magenta
Bg: green

127
Q

used to demonstrate melanin

A

Gomori Methenamine silver (GMS)

128
Q

GMS is used to detect these fungi

A

Candida
Aspergillus

129
Q

BEST permanent mount
Essential for tissue pathology

A

Gomori Methenamine silver (GMS)

130
Q

why is GMS essential for tissue pathology

A

Candida and Aspergillus may be missed in H&E

131
Q

in GMS,
what is the color of outline, internal, and bg

A

Outline: Brown to black
Internal: Pink black
Bg: Light green

132
Q

stain used to detect Blastomyces dermatitidis (agent of systemic mycoses) and Nocardia (branching bacteria)

A

Acid Fast
(Kinyoun’s)

133
Q

stain to demonstrate yeast of H. capsulatum

A

Giemsa or Wright’s

134
Q

wright’s stain is specifically used for:

giemsa stain is specifically used for:

A

Used in hematology:

Wright’s – blood cells
Giemsa – blood parasite

135
Q

stain to demonstrate Malassezia furfur (agent of tinea/pityriasis versicolor – “an an”)

A

Acridine orange

136
Q

Using acridine orange,
what is the color of M. furfur and epithelial cells

A

Fungi (M. furfur): Green fluorescence
Epithelial cells: Orange

137
Q

Stains that detects hyphal pigmentation

A

Fontana Masson
H&E

138
Q

Stains that differentiates hyaline from dematiaceous

A

Fontana Masson
H&E

139
Q

nonpigmented or lightly pigmented structure using fontana masson and H&E

A

Hyaline

140
Q

darkly pigmented structure using fontana masson and H&E

A

Dematiaceous

141
Q

stain used to demonstrate C. neoformans

A

Mayer’s Mucicarmine

142
Q

stain that stains hyphae and yeasts dark blue-pink

A

Gridley’s stain

143
Q

what is the resulting colors if Gridley’s stain is used?

A

Hyphae, yeasts: Dark blue-pink
Tissues: Deep blue
Bg: Yellow

144
Q

incubation temp of plates for fungi culture

A

ambient air at 25-30°C (RT)

145
Q

culture for fungi ID is held for?

A

30 days

*should not be discarded for 4-6 weeks (slow growers)

146
Q

fungi are handled using what class of BSC

A

Class II BSC

147
Q

common antibacterial agents added in at least 1 culture medium for fungi to prevent contaminant rapid overgrowth

A

Chloramphenicol (inhibit bacterial growth)
Cycloheximide (for saprophytic fungi)

148
Q

process that is demonstrated in vitro for dimorphic fungi ID

A

Mold → yeast phase

149
Q

T/F

Fungi are identified on the basis of colony morphology (including pigmentation) and microscopic observation by tease-mount preparation or slide culture technique

A

T

150
Q

general purpose media for fungi

A

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar (SDA)

151
Q

media used for initial isolation of fungi

A

SDA

152
Q

pH of SDA

A

5-6

153
Q

SCREENING media for dermatophytes

A

Dermatophyte test medium (DTM)

154
Q

indicator used by DTM

A

phenol red

155
Q

media used for dermatophytes recovery

A

Mycosel or Mycobiotic agar

*DTM is for screening dermatophytes

156
Q

composition of Mycosel or Mycobiotic agar

A

SDA + chloramphenicol + cycloheximide

157
Q

Stimulate chlamydospore formation of C. albicans

A

Cornmeal agar

158
Q

media for isolation of Aspergillus

A

Czapek agar

159
Q

media for C. neoformans isolation

A

Niger seed agar/Bird seed agar or Staib’s medium

160
Q

resulting color of C. neoformans in Niger seed agar/Bird seed agar or Staib’s medium? it is due to?

A

BROWN pigment due to phenol oxidase

161
Q

media used to demo T. rubrum (+) red pigment production from T. mentagrophyte (–)

A

Potato dextrose agar

162
Q

Media used to differentiate M. audouinii (- growth) from M. canis (+ growth)

A

Rice medium

163
Q

a biochem test media → UREASE TEST

A

Urea agar

164
Q

agar used to differentiate T. mentagrophytes (+) from T. rubrum (-)

ID Cryptococcus, Trichosporon, and Rhodotorula spp.

A

Urea agar

165
Q

General media for yeast spp

A

Brain Heart Infusion agar

166
Q

media for Nocardia

A

Casein Medium

167
Q

media for M. furfur

A

Malt extract agar

168
Q

media for the recovery of saprobic and pathogenic fungi

A

Potato flake agar

169
Q

NOT a fungal media

A

Hay infusion agar

170
Q

done to supplement microscopy and culture of fungi

A

Special tests

171
Q

enumerate special tests for fungi

A

Hair perforation or Baiting test
Rapid Urease test
L-DOPA ferric citrate test
Germ tube test
Exoantigen test
Temperature studies
Carbohydrate Assimilation test

172
Q

what organisms are differentiated in hair perforation/baiting test? what are the results?

A

T. mentagrophytes (+)
T. rubrum (-)

173
Q

positive result of hair perforation/baiting test

A

V-shaped/conical hair perforation
*microscopic observation of hair strands

174
Q

what is differentiated in Rapid Urease test? what are the results?

A

T. mentagrophytes (+)
T. rubrum (-)
Candida krusei (+)
All Candida are urease (-)

175
Q

positive result of rapid urease test

A

Pink to purple color

176
Q

positive and negative control used in rapid urease test

A

Positive control = C. neoformans
Negative control = C. albicans

177
Q

test used for RAPID ID of C. neoformans (produce phenol oxidase)

A

L-DOPA ferric citrate test

178
Q

L-DOPA is used for ID of what fungi

A

C. neoformans

179
Q

positive result of L-DOPA ferric citrate test

A

Black color

180
Q

Presumptive test for C. albicans

A

*Germ tube test

181
Q

Germ tube test is for what fungi

A

C. albicans
C. dubliniensis

182
Q

How is germ tube test performed?

A

✓ Transfer loopful of colonies into the tube
✓ Add 0.5 mL serum
✓ Incubate at 37C for 3 hours
✓ Transfer a drop into the slide → perform MICROSCOPY

183
Q

positive result of germ tube test

A

Germ tubes appearance (resembles sperm cells; finger/hyphae-like extension of young yeast cells)

184
Q

A microdiffusion test for serologic confirmation of systemic fungi (+) result presence of precipitin bands

A

Exoantigen test

185
Q

positive result of exoantigen test

A

precipitin bands

186
Q

what fungi are detected in exoantigen test

A

confirmation of systemic fungi

  • Cocciodes immitis
  • Histoplasma capsulatum
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
187
Q

Exoantigen test:
antigens in presence of Coccidiodes immitis

A

CF, TP, HL

188
Q

Exoantigen test:
antigens in presence of Histoplasma capsulatum

A

H or M band (both)

189
Q

Exoantigen test:
antigens in presence of Blastomyces dermatitidis

A

A band

190
Q

fungi observed using temperature studies? what is the positive result?

A

C. albicans (+)
C. dubliniensis (–)
C. neoformans (–)

Growth at 42°C

191
Q

For ID of yeast isolate which is free from carbohydrates

A

Carbohydrate Assimilation test

192
Q

Manual process of Carbohydrate Assimilation test

A

Nitrogen base agar (plated)

Place yeast suspension on agar surface

Allow to dry

Place comm. prepared disk w/ impregnated carbohydrate

Incubate at 30C for 24 hr

193
Q

positive result of Carbohydrate Assimilation test

A

Growth around the disk

*Indicative of the yeast capability to utilize a particular carbohydrate as a sole source of carbon

194
Q

general techniques for fungi ID

A

microscopic
culture
serology
antigen detection
skin tests
molecular techniques

195
Q

Detection of this is helpful in diagnosis of sub-cutaneous and systemic mycoses, prognosis, and response to anti-fungal drugs

A

anti-fungal antibody (serology)

196
Q

Different serologic techniques for anti-fungal Ab detection

A

agglutination
immunodiffusion
counterimmunoelectrophoresis
complement fixation test
immunofluorescence
RIA
ELISA

197
Q

Particularly useful in the diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis from CSF spx.

A

ANTIGEN DETECTION

198
Q

fungi detected using SEROLOGICAL TESTS

A
  1. Blastomyces (agent of systemic mycoses)
  2. Histoplasma (agent of systemic mycoses)
  3. Cryptococcus (opportunistic)
  4. Aspergillus (opportunistic)
199
Q

ANTIGEN DETECTION of fungi is performed by using these tests

A

Latex Agglutination or Immunodiffusion tests

200
Q

Helpful in the detection of Aspergillus and Candida antigens in systemic infections

A

ANTIGEN DETECTION

201
Q

used to demonstrate delayed hypersensitivity rxn to fungal antigens

A

skin tests

202
Q

T/F

A positive skin test does not necessarily indicate an active infection; it only indicates sensitization of the individual

A

T

203
Q

a fungi detection technique that has an epidemiologic value than diagnosis

A

skin tests
* positive skin test does not necessarily indicate an active infection; it only indicates
sensitization of the individual

204
Q

Skin tests may be performed in these cases

A

Histoplasmosis
Candidiasis
Sporotrichosis
Coccidioidomycosis
Blastomycosis
Paracoccidiodomycosis
Dermatophytosis

205
Q

A newer molecular technique for fungi ID

A

DNA hybridization

206
Q

useful in dx of mycoses in a shorter period and detect those fungi that are difficult or dangerous to cultivate in vitro

A

PCR

207
Q

T/F

molecular techniques may not be available for all fungi

A

T

208
Q

Rapid Urease Producers (Bacteria)

A

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

209
Q

negative urease test result

A

yellow/orange

MTAP 1 (13 decks)

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