NAMP Ch. 10 Flashcards
(159 cards)
1
Q
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing training within aviation maintenance activities?
A
Maintenance In-Service Training Program (NAMPSOP)
2
Q
Which type of training consists of personnel performing maintenance tasks, by demonstration and simulation, under the supervision of designated, qualified personnel?
A
On-Job Training (OJT)
3
Q
Which program provides standardization of in-service training at Navy aviation units using NAVEDTRA approved Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS)?
A
Qualified and Proficient Technician (QPT)
4
Q
Which program includes the training associated with all aircraft, Marine Corps maintenance personnel, O-level and Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) aircraft Support Equipment (SE) maintenance personnel, and other ground aviation support personnel in Occupation Fields 59 and 70?
A
Maintenance Training Management and Evaluation Program (MATMEP)
5
Q
Which software application was designed for the Aviation Maintenance Training Continuum System (AMTCS) to identify job task requirements, assist in determining proficiencies, document qualification/certifications, and track completed training and aviation maintenance personnel progress within their respective Qualified and Proficient Technician (QPT)/Maintenance Training Management and Evaluation Program (MATMEP)?
A
Advanced Skills Management (ASM)
6
Q
What is an online Interactive Multimedia Instruction (IMI) repository for aviation Interactive Multimedia Instruction (IMI) courses containing over 1,200 modules of training?
A
MediaTrax
7
Q
Which online tool supports life cycle management related to the upkeep and revision of training procedures, training applications, software, and hardware for Interactive Multimedia Instruction (IMI) items?
A
Training Tool Change Management System (TTCMS)
8
Q
What is the minimum enlisted grade that personnel should be to be designated as the Advanced Skills Management (ASM) Fleet Administrator?
A
E-6
9
Q
Within how many days of reporting to the maintenance department should personnel receive indoctrination training per Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) training requirements?
A
30
10
Q
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing procedures to maintain a satisfactory level of aircraft and engine fuel systems purity?
A
Fuel Surveillance Program (NAMPSOP)
11
Q
What is the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record form number?
A
CNAF 4790/141
12
Q
Flight deck control should be notified not to move an aircraft or test cell to the hangar bay if it receives, or is suspected of receiving, any fuel other than JP-5 until the flashpoint has been certified to be above which temperature?
A
120°F
13
Q
Aircrew, prior to commencing helicopter in-flight refueling operations, must be trained to perform inspection of fuel samples per which publication?
A
NAVAIR 00-80T-109
14
Q
How many hours prior to the aircraft’s initial launch should fuel samples be taken unless otherwise specified in aircraft Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)?
A
24
15
Q
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring equipment condition in an effort to detect impending failures without equipment removal or extensive disassembly?
A
Navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP)
16
Q
What is the Oil Analysis Requests form number?
A
DD 2026
17
Q
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing and maintaining techniques to prevent contamination of aircraft oxygen systems and components through careful and safe handling, surveillance, and quality control?
A
Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO)
18
Q
How many states does oxygen come in?
A
2
19
Q
How many qualified persons at a minimum are required to perform all Liquid Oxygen (LOX)/gaseous oxygen operations?
A
2
20
Q
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing and maintaining techniques to achieve and maintain a satisfactory level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems and provides for safe and efficient operation of naval aircraft, weapon systems, and Support Equipment (SE)?
A
Hydraulic Contamination Control Program (HCCP)
21
Q
What is the maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate contamination level for aircraft?
A
Navy Standard Class 5
22
Q
What is the maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate contamination level for Support Equipment
(SE)?
A
Navy Standard Class 3
23
Q
What is defined as the process of removing air, water, solid particles, and chlorinated solvents from hydraulic fluids?
A
Purification
24
Q
Which type of filtration will all servicing Support Equipment (SE) be equipped with?
A
3-micron (absolute)
25
Work Center Supervisors must ensure that all hydraulic components/system repair, disassembly, inspection, reassembly, and testing are conducted per NAVAIR 01-1A-17 and which other publication?
NAVAIR 01-1A-20
26
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing procedures for maintaining and storing aircraft, Support Equipment (SE), and Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE) tires and wheels in all Navy and Marine Corps aviation activities?
Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety Program
27
Ready For Issue (RFI) aircraft tire/wheel assemblies shall not exceed 100 pounds PSIG or what percent of test pressure, whichever is less, when being stored?
50%
28
All Ready For Issue (RFI) tires being transported off station shall not exceed how many PSIG of pressure?
25
29
Tires shall not be discarded or scrapped until they have been determined as non-serviceable per which reference?
NAVAIR 04-10-506
30
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for evaluating performance throughout the Maintenance Department?
Quality Assurance (QA) Audit Program
31
What serve as an orderly method of identifying, investigating, and correcting deficiencies on a scheduled and unscheduled basis?
Audits
32
What provides a standardized objective measurement tool to conduct audits?
Computerized Self Evaluation Checklist (CSEC)
33
How many years must audit files be retained by program managers?
2
34
How often at a minimum must Quality Assurance (QA) conduct work center audits to evaluate the overall quality of each work center’s performance?
Semi-annually
35
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring aircraft equipment condition in an effort to detect impending failures without equipment removal or extensive disassembly?
Oil Consumption Program
36
Which maintenance level of Fleet Readiness Centers (FRCs) are not required to maintain an Oil Consumption Program?
D-level
37
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for reporting substandard workmanship, improper Quality Assurance (QA) procedures, and deficiencies in material and publications?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program (NAMDRP)
38
Per which instruction are changes/corrections to aircraft NATOPS or tactical manuals reported?
OPNAVINST 3710.7
39
Per which instruction is locally procured material found to be deficient by the buyer reported?
SECNAVINST 4855.3
40
Per which reference are Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R) code change recommendations
submitted?
NAVSUP P-719
41
Which form is used to report FMS items under the International Logistics Program, after conveyance of title, under SECNAVINST 4355.18?
Supply Discrepancy Report (SF 364)
42
```
How many months at a minimum is it recommended that the Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy
Reporting Program (NAMDRP) Program Manager be assigned for to ensure continuity?
```
12
43
Within how many calendar days after receipt of a Hazardous Material Report (HMR), Hazardous Material Report (HMR)/Engineering Investigation (EI), CAT I Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) must the In-
Service Support Center (ISSC)/Lead Maintenance Technology Center (LMTC), Quality Team, or Cognizant screening point required to respond to Deficiency Reports (DRs), via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) Acknowledge Receipt Tool?
1
44
Within how many calendar days after receipt of an Engineering Investigation (EI), CAT II Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) or Acceptance Inspection Deficiency Report (AIDR) must the In-Service Support Center (ISSC)/Lead Maintenance Technology Center (LMTC), Quality Team, or Cognizant screening point required to respond to Deficiency Reports (DRs), via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) Acknowledge Receipt Tool?
4
45
```
Within how many calendar days after receipt of a CAT 2, 3, or 4 Technical Publications Deficiency Report
(TPDR) must the In-Service Support Center (ISSC)/Lead Maintenance Technology Center (LMTC), Quality
Team, or Cognizant screening point required to respond to Deficiency Reports (DRs), via the Joint Deficiency
Reporting System (JDRS) Acknowledge Receipt Tool?
```
30
46
What provide a standard method for reporting material deficiencies which, if not corrected, could result in death or injury to personnel, or damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities?
Hazardous Material Reports (HMRs)
47
What provide an investigation process to determine cause and depth of fleet-reported material failures?
Engineering Investigations (EIs)
48
What are used to report product deficiencies attributable to the supplier, contractor, or rework facility through deficient material or manufacturing and substandard workmanship or rework?
Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs)
49
Which instruction provides the overarching policy guidance for the Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) program?
SECNAVINST 4855.3
50
Which category of Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) will be used for all quality deficiencies which may cause death, injury, or severe occupational illness?
Category I
51
Within how many hours from the time the deficiency was discovered must Category I Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) be submitted by routine precedence message via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS)?
24
52
Which category of Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) will be used for quality deficiencies assessed to have significant and widespread material or human resource impact but do not affect safety of personnel or impair combat efficiency?
Category II
53
Within how many days from the time the deficiency was discovered must Category II Product Quality Deficiency Reports (PQDRs) be submitted via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) to the In-Service Support Center (ISSC)/Lead Maintenance Technology Center (LMTC)?
5
54
Which report identifies/documents defects in newly manufactured, modified, or reworked aircraft to ensure
better quality maintenance and newly rework procedures?
Acceptance Inspection Deficiency Report (AIDR)
55
Within how many days from the time the acceptance inspection was completed must an Acceptance Inspection Deficiency Report (AIDR) be submitted via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS)?
5
56
How many different ways are deficiencies categorized as?
3
57
Which type of defects constitute hazardous or unsafe conditions, or as determined by experience and judgment could conceivably become so, thus making the aircraft unsafe for flight or endangering operating personnel?
Critical
58
Which type of defects could result in failure or materially reduce usability of the unit for its intended purpose?
Major
59
Which type of defects are not likely to materially reduce usability of the unit or product for its intended purpose, or depart from established standards?
Minor
60
Which type of reports provide a simplified procedure to submit technical publications safety hazards and routine deficiencies to the Fleet Support Team (FST) with engineering responsibility for the equipment covered by the technical publications?
Technical Publications Deficiency Reports (TPDRs)
61
What must be used to submit all Technical Publications Deficiency Reports (TPDRs)?
Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS)
62
Within how many hours of discovery must a Category 1 Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) be initiated and sent by Priority message via the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) when a safety related technical publication deficiency is detected which, if not corrected, could result in death or injury or damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities?
24
63
A Category 2 Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) is a non-safety related deficiency that results in ineffective maintenance that directly impacts mission readiness in an adverse manner, causing a maintenance delay of how many or more hours?
8
64
Which Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) category would a non-safety related technical publication deficiency resulting in a maintenance delay of less than 8 hours through an acceptable workaround fall under?
Category 3
65
Which Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) category is a non safety related technical publication deficiency of a non-technical or administrative nature that has no impact on mission readiness?
Category 4
66
What is the central distribution manager for all COMNAVAIRSYSCOM technical publications and the central clearinghouse for COMNAVAIRSYSCOM’s Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) Program?
Naval Aviation Technical Data and Engineering Services Command/Center (NATEC)
67
Which reports are used to report NTCSS Optimized OMA NALCOMIS baseline deficiencies found in a specific Program Manager-Air (PMA) baseline?
Baseline Trouble Report (BTR)
68
Which program establishes policy, procedures, and responsibilities for the timely and accurate incorporation of Technical Directives (TDs)?
Technical Directive (TD) Compliance Program
69
Which publication will be executed to direct, control, accomplish, and record modification and changes to Naval aircraft, associated equipment, and systems procured by or for COMNAVAIRSYSCOM?
NAVAIR 00-25-300
70
Which system provides online configuration status accounting for naval aircraft, engines, Support Equipment (SE), maintenance trainers, and serial numbered weapon system components?
Technical Directive Status Accounting (TDSA)
71
How often are Technical Directive Status Accounting (TDSA) databases updated to reflect new Technical Directive (TD) compliance actions against applicable equipment items?
Daily
72
How many Technical Directive (TD) categories are there?
4
73
Which Technical Directive (TD) category is assigned when unsafe conditions exist which, if uncorrected, could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?
Immediate Action
74
Which Technical Directive (TD) category is assigned when factors of combat necessity, potential hazardous conditions which could result in personal injury or damage to valuable property, or unacceptable reductions in operational readiness exist and such conditions, if uncorrected, would compromise safety or embody risks which are calculated to be acceptable within defined time/performance limits?
Urgent Action
75
Which Technical Directive (TD) category is assigned to Formal Change Technical Directives (TDs) issued to document configuration changes that have been incorporated in all affected equipment by the change designer/originator before the Technical Directive (TD) is issued?
Record Purpose
76
How many types of Technical Directives (TDs) are there?
4
77
Which type of Technical Directive (TD) directs a one-time inspection to determine if a given condition exists and specifies what action shall be taken if the condition is found?
Bulletin
78
A formal Engineering Change Proposal (ECP) shall be obtained within how many days when an Interim Change Technical Directive (TD) is issued to permit a thorough review of all engineering and logistic elements of the change?
180
79
How many different ways are Interim Change Technical Directives (TDs) categorized as?
2
80
Which type of Technical Directive (TD) is the primary COMNAVAIRSYSCOM document for implementing a configuration change?
Formal Change
81
How many different ways are Rapid Action Minor Engineering Changes (RAMECs) categorized as?
3
82
Rapid Action Minor Engineering Changes (RAMECs) will have a maximum rescission interval of how many years after the issue date?
3
83
What is an engineering process by which the originator accomplishes all tasks required by a proposed change to ensure the modified items function as intended?
Validation
84
Which process is used for determining the accuracy and adequacy of a proposed Technical Directive (TD) and reporting the results to the preparing activity?
Verification
85
The verifying activity must identify the excess costs in the verification report to the cognizant APM/LM who will determine whether to restructure or cancel the Technical Directive (TD) if costs are projected to exceed what
amount per squadron?
$1,000
86
Target Completion Dates (TCDs) initiate a Technical Directive (TD) status review which shall be performed how many days prior to Target Completion Dates (TCDs)?
90
87
How many years is the recommended Target Completion Date (TCD) for Immediate Action Technical Directives (TDs)?
2
88
How many years is the recommended Target Completion Date (TCD) for Urgent Action Technical Directives (TDs)?
3
89
How many years is the recommended Target Completion Date (TCD) for Routine Action Technical Directives (TDs)?
8
90
How many months is the recommended Target Completion Date (TCD) for Bulletins?
12-18
91
What is the Technical Directive form number?
CNAF 4790/24A
92
What will be used to document all maintenance actions if a Technical Directive (TD) is complied with at the O-level?
Maintenance Action Form (MAF)/Work Order (WO)
93
What is used to document all Technical Directive (TD) compliance?
Maintenance Action Form (MAF)
94
Per which program is D-level Technical Directive (TD) compliance accomplished?
Aircraft Modification Program
95
AR-41 along with which other publication contain the requirements for developing and preparing Technical Directives (TDs)?
NAVAIR 00-25-300
96
Quality Organization Officers along with which other officer may not be appointed as chairperson of Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Prevention Committees?
Safety Officer
97
Within how many working days of discovery for each reportable Foreign Object Damage (FOD) must the Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Prevention Program manager submit an Engine Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Incident Report?
5
98
How often must Foreign Object Damage (FOD) walkdowns be scheduled and performed on all flight areas, engine test facilities, and adjacent aprons?
Daily
99
Foreign Object Damage (FOD) inspections must be part of the Quality Assurance (QA) inspection process of all aircraft, aircraft equipment, and Support Equipment (SE) after extended down time in excess of how many
days?
30
100
Which program establishes policy and responsibilities for implementing, maintaining, controlling, storing, replacing, and inventorying common hand tools?
Tool Control Program (TCP)
101
What is the Controlled Equipage Custody Record form number?
NAVSUP 306
102
How often must the Work Center Tool Representative conduct tool container inventories with the Tool Control Program (TCP) coordinator?
Semi-Annually
103
Who is responsible for shift change and semi-annual inventories of tools assigned to the tool room?
Tool Room Supervisor
104
Which concept was developed to reduce the administrative burden of processing Tool Control Manual (TCM) changes/deviations through multiple wings, expedite handling, and use the expertise of on-site managers?
Tool Control Model Manager
105
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements to minimize corrosion damage to aircraft, engines, components, and Support Equipment (SE), and provides direction for emergency reclamation?
Corrosion Prevention and Control Program
106
Category A preservation is normally applied to Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) which is anticipated to be used within how many days?
90
107
Category B preservation is normally applied to Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) which could possibly be used within how many days?
180
108
Program Managers must ensure that aircraft paint schemes are maintained per which publication?
MIL-STD-2161B(AS)
109
Any aircraft with Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) corrosion discrepancies that are within maintenance capability shall be restricted from flight if the discrepancies are not corrected with how many calendar days from the date of discovery?
28
110
Which instruction contains general procedures and basic policies for recovery, reclamation, and transfer of crash damaged aircraft?
OPNAVINST 3750.6
111
What is the Plane Captain Designation form number?
CNAF 4790/158
112
What is the minimum score that all plane captain trainees must obtain on the plane captain exam?
90%
113
How often at a minimum must all plane captains and naval aircrewman receive a monitor by a qualified plane captain Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)/Collateral Duty Quality Assurance Representative (CDQAR) to ensure their currency and proficiency in plane captain duties?
Semi-annually
114
How often is egress/explosive system training and checkout required for all maintenance personnel?
Semi-annually
115
Personnel who have been removed from aircraft maintenance responsibilities for how many or more days must receive an egress/explosive system checkout before performing any aircraft maintenance?
90
116
What is the USN Aviation Support Equipment Operator’s License form number?
CNAF 4790/102
117
What is the U.S. Government Motor Vehicle Operator’s Identification Card form number?
OF-346
118
How many years are Support Equipment (SE) operator licenses valid for type equipment and aircraft regardless of activity assigned?
3
119
What is the minimum enlisted paygrade personnel must hold to be assigned as I or D level Phase I instructors?
E-5
120
What is the minimum passing score for written Phase II examinations?
85%
121
All Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE) that will not be used for extended periods must be preserved per which publication?
NAVAIR 17-1-125
122
Which system used in conjunction with NALCOMIS is designed for the management of Support Equipment (SE) and provides automated methods of Periodic Maintenance (PM) scheduling for Support Equipment (SE), Technical Directive (TD) compliance, and supply requisition management?
Support Equipment Standardization System (SESS)
123
What is the Support Equipment (SE) Custody and Maintenance History Record form number?
CNAF 4790/51
124
How many or more like items maintained in large quantities can be grouped into homogeneous lots for Planned Maintenance System (PMS) inspections?
10
125
What is the Planned Maintenance System (PMS) Feedback Report form number?
OPNAV 4790/7B
126
Which Naval Aviation program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements to ensure Support Equipment/Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment (TMDE) performance is compared to reference Calibration Standards (CALSTDs) of known and sufficiently greater accuracy?
Metrology and Calibration (METCAL)
127
What is the lead systems command for the Navy’s Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) program?
COMNAVSEASYSCOM
128
OPNAVINST 3960.16 along with which other instruction prescribe policies for the Naval Aviation Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) program?
NAVAIRINST 13640.1
129
What is the Management Information System (MIS) for the Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) program?
Metrology Automated System for Uniform Recall and Reporting (MEASURE)
130
What should be used to document all Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) program calibration and repair actions?
METER Card (OPNAV 4790/58)
131
D-Level man-hour allocations are provided to each COMNAVAIRSYSCOM customer for calibration support of Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) assets and Field Calibration Activity (FCA) standards. An analysis of these qualifying customers’ D-level calibration requirements is made approximately how many days prior to the beginning of each fiscal year quarter?
30
132
How many years at a minimum must Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) Address Indicator Group (AIG) messages be retained?
1
133
How many days prior to deployment should Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) requirements be reviewed to annotate shortages and due dates of assets held by squadron or detachment?
60
134
How many days prior to deployment should Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) requirements be reviewed with the Type Wing and supporting Field Calibration Activity (FCA) Program Manager?
30
135
What is the special calibration label form number?
NAVSEA 4734/15
136
Which publication is the primary basis for ensuring the technical adequacy of COMNAVAIRSYSCOM calibration laboratories?
NAVAIR 17-35QAC-01
137
Which instruction provides guidelines for Hazardous Material (HAZMAT) disposal?
OPNAVINST 5090.1
138
Who is responsible for the aviation Hazardous Material Control and Management (HMC&M) Program?
Commander, Naval Air Systems Command (COMNAVAIRSYSCOM)
139
Which database incorporates Hazardous Material (HAZMAT) requirements identified by aviation program offices, consolidates the information, and correlates the Hazardous Material (HAZMAT) requirements with existing Supply information?
Aviation Hazardous Materials List (AHML)
140
Which system contains MSDSs as well as value added information on specific Hazardous Material (HAZMAT) characteristics to assist in the management of HAZMAT throughout its life cycle?
Hazardous Material Information Resource System (HMIRS)
141
OPNAVINST 5100.19 along with which other instruction outline the Navy’s Hazardous Material Information Resource System (HMIRS) operations and provide access information?
OPNAVINST 5100.23
142
How many months prior to deployment should the Program Manager coordinate with the ship or station Hazardous Waste Minimization Center (HAZMINCEN) to establish Hazardous Material (HAZMAT) requirements and ensure product availability during all shifts?
6
143
How many months prior to detachment should the Program Manager coordinate with the station Hazardous Waste Minimization Center (HAZMINCEN) to establish Hazardous Material (HAZMAT) requirements and ensure product availability and compliance with local storage and handling requirements?
3
144
The Hazardous Material Control and Management (HMC&M) Supervisor must ensure that all work center supervisors and their designated Hazardous Material Control and Management (HMC&M) Petty Officers/Non-Commissioned Officer (NCO)/shop coordinators have completed formal or local Hazardous Material (HAZMAT) storage and handling training within how many days of assignment?
30
145
How often is command Hazardous Material Control and Management (HMC&M) and Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) refresher training required for all personnel?
Annually
146
How often must work center supervisors review the work center Authorized Use List (AUL) and SMHL?
Annually
147
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for local repair capabilities of the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)?
Individual Component Repair List (ICRL)
148
How often must Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) reviews be completed by the due date assigned by the Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) Program Manager?
Quarterly
149
Which Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) capability code identifies items for which a normal range of failures can be completely repaired by the I-level activity?
C1
150
What is defined as the total sum of all radiated and conducted electromagnetic energy in a given area?
Electromagnetic Environment (EME)
151
Which type of items are all solid state electronic components and assemblies containing such components considered to be unless otherwise directed by higher authority?
Electrostatic Discharge Sensitive (ESDS)
152
What can cause degraded performance of mission critical systems that can result in damage to equipment and systems and even loss of an aircrew in extreme cases?
Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)
153
Per which publication must Electrostatic Discharge Sensitive (ESDS) be packaged prior to shipment?
MIL-HDBK-773
154
No prime generators, as defined in NAVAIR 01-1A-23, shall be closer than how many inches to an Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) protected work area?
24”
155
Which program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for the repair of miniature/micro-miniature electronic assemblies and the certification/re-certification and training of personnel?
Miniature/Micro-miniature Program (2M)
156
Which publication reflects the combined COMNAVAIRSYSCOM/COMNAVSEASYSCOM 2M certification and re-certification requirements?
NAVAIR SE-004-PQS-000
157
What is the minimum enlisted paygrade that personnel should be to be assigned as a 2M Technician Recertifier?
E-5
158
2M instructors must ensure that 2M training site certifications are requested and performed every how many months?
18
159
How often at a minimum must Navy and contracted Gas Turbine Engine Test System (GTETS)/Global Test Facilities (GTF) operators recertify?
Every 24 months
