NAVEDTRA 14144, MILITARY REQUIREMENTS FOR CHIEF PETTY OFFICER Flashcards
(296 cards)
1
Q
- Congress passed legislation to purchase and arm two ships on what date?
A
13 October 1775
2
Q
- Congress authorized two battalions of Marines on what date?
A
10 November 1775
3
Q
- Deployments place naval forces in positions to achieve how many purposes?
A
Three
4
Q
- Positioning of naval forces for warfare in sensitive areas of the world provides a side benefit known as what?
A
Presence
5
Q
- In its wartime posture, the Navy has how many areas of responsibility?
A
Two
6
Q
- What is the basic function of the U.S. Navy?
A
Sea control
7
Q
- What include aircraft, surface ships, and submarines that threaten U.S. or friendly forces operating in those areas?
A
Hostile forces
8
Q
- What is the ability to project military power from the sea worldwide in a timely and precise manner to accomplish a given objective?
A
Power projection
9
Q
- Naval forces have unrestricted global mobility based on the traditional and time-honored concept of the free use of what?
A
International seas
10
Q
- NATO is divided into how many areas of responsibilities?
A
Three
11
Q
- Located in the Persian Gulf region is what percent of the world’s known oil reserves?
A
55
12
Q
- About what percent of the world’s sea trade passes through the Suez Canal at the choke point of Babel Mandeb?
A
10
13
Q
- Total force commitment to Operation Desert Shield and Desert Storm included 6 carrier battle groups and how many combat personnel?
A
450,000
14
Q
- What is among the world’s richest continents in known mineral wealth?
A
Africa
15
Q
- Much of the world’s oil that travels by ship through the various straits in the Indonesian area are within range of U.S. bases where?
A
Philippines
16
Q
- The U.S. national security strategy is based on deterrence, forward defense, and what else?
A
Collective security
17
Q
- U.S. naval forces have how many primary peacetime objectives?
A
Four
18
Q
- The last U.S. diesel submarine, the USS Blueback (SS 581), was decommissioned on what date?
A
1 October 1990
19
Q
- What United States submarines form the sea leg of the U.S. Trident nuclear deterrent?
A
SSBNs
20
Q
- The rise of chemical and biological weapons in the Middle East has been linked to Israel and what other country?
A
France
21
Q
- France successfully tested a nuclear device in what year?
A
1960
22
Q
- The chemical agent most likely to be used by countries desiring to produce chemical weapons is what nerve agent?
A
Tabun
23
Q
- Iran has been hostile toward the United States since radical, religious forces overthrew the government in what year?
A
1979
24
Q
- The mission of the Navy includes naval presence, sea control, and what else?
A
Power projection
25
1. Who will conduct an investigation of offenses before a captain’s mast takes place?
PIO
26
2. What part of the MCM describes those actions the military considers offenses?
Part IV
27
3. What is a physical object, such as a knife used in an assault or a stolen camera in a theft case?
Real evidence
28
4. The 12 chapters of what describe the authority and responsibilities of the offices within the Department of the Navy?
Navy Regulations
29
5. Failure to obey any Navy regulation subjects the offender to charges under what article of the UCMJ?
92
30
6. What is the principle regulatory document of the Department of the Navy, endowed with the sanction of law, as to duty, authority, distinctions and relationships of various commands, officials and individuals?
United States Navy Regulations
31
7. Who is responsible for maintaining the Navy Regulations?
Chief of Naval Operations
32
8. Who must approve all additions, changes or deletions to Navy Regulations
Secretary of the Navy
33
9. The United States Coast Guard is normally a component of the what unless at wartime?
Department of Transportation
34
10. In accordance with Article 137 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, the articles specifically enumerated therein shall be carefully explained to each enlisted person at the time of entrance on active duty or within six days thereafter, again, after completion of how many months active duty, and again, upon the occasion of each reenlistment?
Six
35
11. All persons in the naval service on active duty, those on the retired list with pay, and transferred members of the Fleet Reserve and the Fleet Marine Corps Reserve are at all times subject to what?
Naval authority
36
12. Persons in authority are forbidden to injure their subordinates by tyrannical or capricious conduct, or by what else?
Abusive language
37
13. Naval personnel are not permitted to lend money to another member of the armed services at an interest rate, for the period of the loan, that exceeds what percent simple interest per year?
18
38
14. A person’s naval record is maintained by the Chief of Naval Personnel or whom else?
Commandant of the Marine Corps
39
15. What provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all members of the Navy?
OPNAVINST 3120.32B
40
16. What issues regulations and standard organizational requirements applicable to the administration of naval units?
SORN
41
17. EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day?
2
42
18. The authority to assign EMI rests with whom?
Commanding officer
43
19. Deprivation of normal liberty as punishment except as specifically authorized by the what is illegal?
UCMJ
44
20. All late bunk sleepers will turn out at what time?
0700
45
21. What defines the rights and duties of U. S. service personnel, civilian components, and their dependents while they are stationed in that foreign country?
Status of Forces Agreement
46
1. Within the formal Navy management structure, management begins at what level?
Chief Petty Officer
47
2. Department heads comprise what level of management?
Middle
48
3. What level of management is composed of division officers and chief petty officers?
Operating
49
4. What are methods devised to achieve a goal?
Plans
50
5. All plans fall into one of three general groups: strategic plans, standing plans, and what other plans?
Single-use
51
6. Strategic plans involve activities that will take place in how many years?
2 to 5
52
7. What states the intended purpose of the command?
Organizational mission
53
8. What are those the Navy uses for recurring or long-range activities?
Standing plans
54
9. What are broad general statements of expected behavior?
Policies
55
10. What define the exact steps in sequence personnel should take to achieve the organizational objective?
Procedures
56
11. What are standing plans that specifically state what personnel can and cannot do in a given circumstance?
Rules and regulations
57
12. What plans are those used for short-range nonrecurring activities?
Single-use
58
13. What are single-use plans that state a specific goal and give the major steps, the timing of those steps, and the resources required to meet the stated goal?
Programs
59
14. What are the separate tasks you must plan to meet program goals?
Projects
60
15. What are planned revenue and expenditures of money, time, personnel, equipment, and so forth, expressed in numerical terms, usually by category and over a period of time?
Budgets
61
16. What means supervisors and subordinates take part in setting overall goals for the organization?
Management By Objectives (MBO)
62
17. The objective of what type of analysis is to help you identify those areas in which the division needs improvement, has available opportunities, and must overcome certain obstacles?
SWOT
63
18. What ensures the Navy and your command, department, and division meet their goals?
Control
64
19. What type of control is a way of trying to anticipate problems and make adjustments before the problems occur?
Feedforward
65
20. What type of control involves making changes while an event is taking place?
Concurrent
66
21. What involves making corrections after an event has happened?
Feedback
67
22. What is a method of ensuring that your customers receive a product that meets performance expectations?
Quality control
68
23. When the number of items produced is too large for an inspection of each item, what is used?
Statistical analysis
69
24. What consist of small groups of workers within each division who look for ways to reduce defects, rework, and equipment downtime?
Quality circles
70
25. What is a type of quality control that is based on the theory of doing the job right the first time
Zero defects
71
26. What type of control can be used to measure overall division performance while performing other functions such as planning, staffing, organizing, and leading?
Non-measurable
72
27. What defines the job to be done, resources required, steps to be taken, and progress expected at specified times?
POA&M
73
28. What shows planned and accomplished work in relation to each other and in relation to time?
Gantt chart
74
29. What uses a line chart to show the relationship of tasks and the time required to complete each task?
PERT
75
30. What is the process of arranging material and personnel by functions to attain the objective of the command?
Organization
76
31. Of the many different types of organization used today, the Navy uses three specific types: line, staff, and what other type?
Functional
77
32. What organizations refer to the major departments responsible for accomplishing the mission of the command?
Line
78
33. What organizations refer to personnel who advise, assist, counsel, and serve the line departments?
Staff
79
34. What organizations refer to special departments that are neither line nor staff?
Functional
80
35. What is the order of authority among Navy members?
Chain Of Command
81
36. What is the order of control of an organization?
Unity of command
82
37. What refers to the ideal number of people one person can effectively supervise?
Span of control
83
38. Normally a supervisor is responsible for at least three but not more than how many people?
Seven
84
39. What refers to the division of work?
Specialization
85
40. What is the ability to influence people toward organizational objectives?
Power
86
41. What type of authority is the authority you have over subordinates in your chain of command?
Line
87
42. What type of authority is the right of staff to counsel, advise, or make recommendations to line personnel?
Staff
88
43. The six types of power include reward, coercive, legitimate, informational, referent, and what else?
Expert
89
44. What type of power results from the expectation of a negative reward if your wishes are not obeyed?
Coercive
90
45. What type of power comes from the authority of your rate and position in the chain of command?
Legitimate
91
46. What type of power depends on your giving or withholding of information or having knowledge that others do not have?
Informational
92
47. What type of power derives from your subordinates’ identification or association with you?
Referent
93
48. What type of power comes from your knowledge in a specific area through which you influence others?
Expert
94
49. The Navy defines what as the ability to influence others toward achieving the goals and objectives of the organization?
Leadership
95
50. In what style of leadership are subordinates expected to do the job the way the leader tells them to do it?
Coercer
96
51. What leaders are firm but fair and tactfully provide clear direction but leave no doubt about what is expected or who makes the final decisions?
Authoritarian
97
52. What leaders consider concern for subordinates and personal popularity as the most important aspect of their job?
Affiliator
98
53. What leaders believe subordinates should take part in the decision-making process?
Democratic
99
54. What leaders have trouble delegating because they believe they can do the job much better than their subordinates?
Pacesetter
100
55. What leaders see their job as developing and improving the performance of their subordinates?
Coach
101
56. The Navy has identified how many skills effective leaders have in common?
Six
102
57. What type of problem solving involves analyzing complex situations and evaluating information to choose the best solution to a problem?
Analytical
103
58. What achieves results by focusing on the procedures and processes that get the work done?
Quality management
104
1. The Navy budget year runs from what dates?
10/1-9/30
105
2. What is when the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) places the Con- gressionally appropriated funds into the Navy’s account?
Apportionment
106
3. How many types of budgeting are in use in the Navy?
Two
107
4. What type of budgeting is the primary budget used by the Navy?
Incremental
108
5. The Navy uses what type of budgeting when figuring the cost of major material purchases, such as a ship or airplane?
Zero-based
109
6. What department procures material; maintains storerooms and warehouses; and issues, accounts for, and collects analytical data for all the material under its cognizance?
Supply
110
7. What is concerned with the physical handling of the supply department’s stock of materials?
Material division
111
8. What branch of the Supply department is responsible for maintaining stock records and assuring adequate stock levels to support station operations?
Stock control
112
9. Supply departments afloat are generally organized into how many divisions
Five
113
10. What Supply division orders, receives, stows, and issues general stores and repair parts and maint sins related records?
Stores
114
11. What includes any functional unit of hull, mechanical, electrical, electronic, or ordnance types of materials that are operated independently or as a component of a system or subsystem?
Equipment
115
12. What consists of items such as fire hoses, nozzles, applicators, anchors, anchor chains, chain stoppers, and bulkhead fans?
Equipage
116
13. What are administrative and housekeeping items, such as general-purpose hardware, common tools, or any other items not specifically defined as equipment, equipage, or repair parts?
Consumables
117
14. Who is responsible for maintaining stocks of general stores, subsistence items, ship’s store, and clothing store stocks?
Supply officer
118
15. Department heads are responsible for submitting what requisition form to the supply officer each time a repair part is needed?
NAVSUP Form 1250-1
119
16. What is the period of time required for a ship to use a definite quantity of supplies?
Endurance
120
17. Most material procurement falls under what heading?
Routine requirements
121
18. What used in the troubleshooting of electronic equipment and are not intended to be used as a repair part?
MAMs
122
19. When you request material from a shipboard supply department, the standard method is to use either a NAVSUP 1250-1 (Single Line Item Consumption/Requisition Document) or what other form (Single Line Item Requisition System Document)?
DD Form 1348
123
20. What form (Non-NSN Requisition) is used for obtaining materials that do not have an NSN?
NAVSUP Form 1250-2
124
21. What is a procedure used by the supply department on a monthly basis to ensure that their outstanding requisitions are valid?
Material Obligation Validation (MOV)
125
22. What is any substance or mixture of substances that could result in the injury or death of a person?
Hazardous material
126
23. Hazardous material substances are divided into toxic, irritating, flammable, pressurized, or what other agents?
Sensitizing
127
24. Inventory hazardous material containers at least how often
Quarterly
128
25. What are specific items that require special management control because their use is essential for the protection of life?
Controlled equipage
129
26. What is an item listing that fleet commanders developed jointly for special inventory control?
Controlled Equipage Item List (CEIL)
130
27. Guidance on the reuse of precious metals and the recovery of precious metals can be found in what instruction?
NAVSUPINST 4570.23
131
28. What provides specific guidance concerning the preparation and responsibility for the submission of the Report of Survey?
NAVSUP P-485
132
29. All items of controlled equipage are inventoried on what basis?
Annually
133
30. SIM items are inventoried at how many-month intervals?
6
134
31. What improves readiness by providing a ship with logistics support that accurately reflects the ship’s true equipment and operating needs?
ILO
135
32. What term refers to the repair parts, Planned Maintenance System (PMS), technical manuals, and personnel training necessary to operate and sustain the ship?
Logistics support
136
33. Who is responsible for the effective operation of the 3-M Systems in his or her work center?
Work Center Supervisor
137
34. What concept takes the power of computers with their ability to process information and puts that power in the hands of the work center personnel?
SNAP
138
35. The objective of what is to give your personnel support in dealing with problems so that they will regain the ability to work effectively in the organization?
Counseling
139
36. What involves a change in the member’s emotional self through a change in basic goals and aspirations?
Reorientation
140
37. What type of counseling is the process of listening to a member’s problem, deciding with the member what should be done, and then encouraging and motivating the person to do it?
Directive
141
38. What type of counseling is the process of skillfully listening to a counselee, encouraging the person to explain bothersome problems, and helping him or her to understand those problems and determine courses of action?
Client-centered
142
39. You should counsel your personnel on their good and poor performance while documenting the counseling sessions for at least how many months?
3
143
40. The SORM should be updated at least how often to remain current?
Annually
144
1. Each person in the naval service earns how many days of paid leave each year in addition to holidays?
30
145
5. What is the only organization offering supplemental insurance formally recognized and endorsed by the Navy?
Navy Mutual Aid Society
146
6. What is an amount of money used to reimburse you for lodging, meals, and other incidental expenses incurred during travel under orders?
Per diem
147
7. Dislocation allowance is equal to how many months basic allowance for quarters (BAQ) for your dependency status and paygrade?
One
148
8. All personnel on active duty who meet the high-year tenure requirements must retire after how many years of active federal service unless they have a waiver?
30
149
9. What are paid to service members as an incentive to stay in the Navy?
SRB’s
150
10. What zone of SRB is for people who have completed 21 months of continuous active naval service, but not more than 6 years of continuous active naval service?
Zone A
151
11. Zone B is for people who have completed 6 but not more than how many years of active military service immediately preceding the date of reenlistment?
10
152
12. Zone C is for people who have completed 10 but not more than how many years of active military service on the date of reenlistment?
14
153
13. What program provides in-service financial assistance to all personnel wishing to take part in voluntary off- duty education?
Tuition Assistance (TA)
154
14. Commissioned and chief warrant officers who complete a TA-funded course incur a how many-year obligation following completion of the course?
2
155
15. What is designed to provide shipboard personnel with educational opportunities comparable to those available to personnel stationed ashore?
PACE
156
16. What is designed to provide a way for skilled Navy technicians to gain journeyman status with the Department of Labor in a recognized civilian trade?
National Apprenticeship Program
157
17. Who identifies the trades to be considered as apprentice occupations within the active-duty Navy?
Chief of Naval Education and Training
158
18. What is a Department of Defense (DOD) agency that supports the voluntary education programs of each military service, including Reserve personnel?
DANTES
159
19. What is designated as the executive agent for DANTES?
Department of the Navy
160
20. Members must use all MGIB benefits within how many years after the date of their last discharge or release from active duty?
10
161
21. United States Naval Academy (USNA) which is located where is the academic training ground for future naval officers?
Annapolis, Maryland
162
22. Applicants to the United States Naval Academy (USNA) must be at least 17 years of age and not have reached what birthday on 1 July of the year of admission to the Naval Academy?
22nd
163
23. Chief Warrant Officer Program applicants must have completed at least 12 years, but not more than how many years, of active service on 1 October of the year application is made?
24
164
24. LDO program applicants must have completed at least 8 years, but not more than how many years, of active naval service on 1 October of the year in which application is made?
16
165
25. CPOs and SCPOs with at least how many years, but not more than 16 years, of naval service may apply for LDO and CWO in the same application year, but may request only one designator for each program?
12
166
26. BOOST applicants must have no record of violations of article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) for how many years preceding entry into BOOST school?
2
167
27. Enlisted personnel who have a baccalaureate or higher degree from an accredited institution are eligible to apply for a direct commission through the U.S. Naval Reserve Officer Program. Generally the age limit is 30 years; however, some programs allow a maximum age of what?
36
168
28. The government shares the cost of medical care from civilian hospitals and doctors through what?
CHAMPUS
169
29. Who are the technical authorities, experts, and supervisors within a rating?
Chief Petty Officers
170
30. Who have the primary responsibility for supervising and training enlisted personnel oriented to system and subsystem maintenance, repair, and operation, rather than individual unit work?
SCPOs
171
31. Who help to form and execute policy within their occupational field or across the full Navy spectrum?
MCPOs
172
32. The exact size of the E-7 board varies, but each board usually consists of about how many members?
50
173
32. The exact size of the E-7 board varies, but each board usually consists of about how many members?
50
174
33. What is the current number of personnel on board versus the CNO requirements for a rating?
Current inventory
175
34. No more than what percent of the total number of sailors in the E-7, E-8, and E-9 paygrades may have less than the prescribed TAFMS?
10
176
35. Once scoring of each rating is completed, the panel arranges the names of all the E-7 candidates by their numerical score from the highest to the lowest. What is this called?
Slating
177
36. What is the single most important factor influencing your advancement opportunities?
Sustained superior performance
178
37. What was established to provide experienced personnel in the first stages of mobilization during an emergency or in time of war?
Fleet Reserve
179
38. As a retired member, you may be ordered to active duty in time of war or national emergency at the discretion of whom?
Secretary of the Navy
180
39. What provides an annuity income for survivors of retired uniformed service members?
Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP)
181
40. You may elect SBP coverage to guarantee you family receives what percent of your maximum retired pay to a minimum amount designated by law?
55
182
41. A transfer to the Fleet Reserve requires that you complete how many years at your duty station and submit the application no sooner than 6 months or later than 12 months before your requested transfer date?
2
183
42. You must have a physical examination how many months before your retirement date to allow for the treatment of minor health problems or to identify health problems that would qualify you for a disability retirement?
6
184
43. Fleet reservists not on active duty must inform the Commanding Officer, Naval Reserve Personnel Center, of their plans to travel or reside outside of the United States for a period of how many days or more?
30
185
44. You may sell back up to how many days’ leave during your career?
60
186
45. What is training of a general nature in areas such as financial responsibility, sex education, Family Service Center services, and Navy Relief?
GMT
187
46. An effective training program has three basic features: compatibility, evaluation and instruction, and what else?
Analysis and improvement
188
47. Commanding officers are charged with the responsibility of training junior officers under their command by what article of the U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990?
Article 821
189
1. Completion of the Dependent Care Certificate (what form) identifies designated custodians who will assume responsibility for the members’ dependents in their absence?
OPNAV 1740/1
190
2. What instruction defines Navy policy and assignment responsibilities for the administration and support of the Navy Family Service Center Program?
OPNAVINST 1754.1A
191
3. The Ombudsman Program was first set up in the Navy in what year?
1970
192
4. The broad purpose of what program is to offer support to the next of kin of Navy members involved in a casualty?
Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP)
193
5. Only an officer with a minimum of how many years of active duty or a qualified senior enlisted member of paygrade E-7 or above may serve as a CACO?
2
194
6. What programs provide a comprehensive approach to the improved quality of life of military personnel (active and retired), their families, and civilian personnel associated with the armed forces?
MWR
195
7. About what percent of all military members experience some level of financial difficulty at one or more times in their career?
50
196
8. What instruction outlines Navy policy on the adequacy, assignment, utilization, and occupancy of single quarters?
OPNAVINST 11103.1
197
9. What program was set up by the Chief of Naval Operations in 1970 to ease the move of naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station (PCS) orders?
Navy Sponsor Program
198
10. What helps Navy personnel and their families deal with various overseas cultures?
ODSP
199
11. What is a telephone hot line that provides Navy members and their families with a central source of information on nearly all overseas duty stations?
OTIS
200
12. Whom in 1980, the 21st Chief of Naval Operations (CNO), initiated the Navy’s pride and professionalism program?
Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
201
13. What is an introductory act leading to an action?
Initiative
202
14. What is a skill or cleverness in devising or combining ways to get the job done?
Ingenuity
203
15. What is the soundness of moral character and ethical principles?
Integrity
204
16. What is the handing down of beliefs and customs from generation to generation?
Tradition
205
17. The identification and reporting of fraud, waste, and abuse is known as what?
Disclosure
206
18. Intentional misleading or deceitful conduct that deprives the government of its resources or rights is known as what?
Fraud
207
19. The extravagant, careless, or need- less expenditure of government resources, resulting from improper or deficient practices, systems, controls, or decisions is known as what?
Waste
208
20. The intentional, wrongful, or improper use of government resources is known as what?
Abuse
209
21. Who is responsible for carrying out the Navy’s Integrity and Efficiency (I & E) Program?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
210
21. Who is responsible for carrying out the Navy’s Integrity and Efficiency (I & E) Program?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
211
22. Who coordinates audits, inspections, and investigations, and provides positive initiatives to reduce fraud, waste, and abuse within the DON?
NAVINSGEN
212
1. What is a summary of assignments of the various ship’s bills?
Watch, quarter, and station bill
213
2. An individual, squad, section, platoon, company, or other unit that is part of a larger unit is known as what?
Element
214
3. An arrangement of elements in line, in column, or in any other prescribed manner is known as what?
Formation
215
4. A formation of elements or persons abreast or side by side is known as what?
Rank/Line
216
5. A formation of elements or persons placed one behind the other is known as what
File/Column
217
6. The extreme right or left of a unit, either in line or in column is known as what
Flank
218
7. Distance between ranks is how many inches?
40
219
8. Who is the individual on whom a formation or element regulates its alignment?
Guide
220
9. A pace is the length of a full step (30 inches for men and how many inches for women)?
24
221
10. The step is the distance from heel to heel between the feet of a marching person. The half step and back step are 15 inches. The right and left steps are how many inches?
12
222
11. What is the basic military position
Attention
223
12. The commands Parade, REST are given only when the formation is at what position
Attention
224
13. What is the horizontal distance between the shoulder and elbow when the left hand is placed on the left hip?
Close interval
225
14. In port, who is an officer or petty officer who has been designated by the commanding officer to be in charge of the command?
Officer Of the Deck (OOD)
226
15. The mess audit board is responsible for auditing the mess treasurer’s account in the chief petty officer’s mess and the wardroom mess. The audits are conducted how often?
Monthly
227
16. According to naval records, the first mention of the chief petty officer was on a ship’s muster roll in what year?
1775
228
17. A Navy regulation reestablished the term chief petty officer in what year?
1865
229
18. On 25 February 1893, what President issued an executive order outlining the pay scale for Navy enlisted personnel which was issued to the Navy as General Order Number 409 which divided the pay scale into rates and for the first time listed CPOS?
President Benjamin Harrison
230
19. All evidence indicates what as the date the chief petty officer rate was actually established?
1 April 1893
231
20. The uniforms prescribed for you as a CPO are divided into how many separate categories?
Four
232
21. The chevrons on the male CPO rating badge measure 3 1/4 inches across; on the female CPO rating badge, they measure how many inches across?
2 1/2
233
22. The senior chief petty officer rating badge has a silver star centered about what distance above the head of the eagle?
1 inch
234
23. You wear service stripes, or hash marks, for every how many years of service?
4
235
24. When you wear more than one service stripe, position them how far apart?
1/4 inch
236
25. What is a term used to denote any decoration, medal, badge, ribbon, or attachment given to a person?
Award
237
26. Awards are divided into how many categories?
Five
238
27. You may wear how many warfare specialty insignias?
Two
239
1. The requirements for safety investigations are set forth in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 5102.1C
240
2. Any unplanned or unexpected event causing material loss or damage or causing personnel injury or death; or an occurrence that, except for proximity or timely action, would have resulted in damage or injury is known as what
Mishap
241
3. Who is the designated safety officer for a particular division?
Division officer
242
4. A senior petty officer, what grade or above, should be designated as division safety petty officer?
E-6
243
The safety council convenes how often to develop recommendations for policy in safety matters and to analyze progress of the overall safety program?
Monthly
244
1. Who is responsible for setting up and maintaining an Information Security Program and a Personnel Security Program?
Secretary of the Navy
245
2. The Secretary of the Navy has made whom responsible for information and personnel security?
Chief of Naval Operations
246
3. What provides overall policy guidance on information and personnel security?
National Security Council (NSC)
247
4. What prescribes the requirements (including investigations) for civilian government employment?
Office of Personnel Management
248
5. Who serves as the chairman of the National Foreign Intelligence Board?
Director of Central Intelligence (DCI)
249
6. What is the chief internal security agency of the federal government?
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
250
7. What is the Department of the Navy’s sole liaison with the FBI on internal security matters?
Naval Investigative Service
251
8. What is responsible for the Department of the Navy’s investigative, law enforcement, counterintelligence, and physical security policies and programs?
COMNAVSECINVCOM
252
9. The person designated as the command security manager is an officer or a civilian employee, what paygrade or above, with sufficient authority and staff to manage the command program?
GS-11
253
10. The security manager is responsible to the commanding officer on matters of security but reports to whom for the administration of the Information and Personnel Security Program?
Executive Officer
254
11. The person designated as TSCO is an officer; a chief petty officer; a senior noncommissioned officer (E-7, E- 8, or E-9); or a civilian employee, what grade or above?
GS-7
255
12. The TSCO ensures physical inventories of Top Secret materials are conducted at least once how often?
Annually
256
13. The assistant security manager is a U.S. citizen; an officer or an enlisted person, E-6 or above; or a civilian employee, what grade or above?
GS-6
257
13. The assistant security manager is a U.S. citizen; an officer or an enlisted person, E-6 or above; or a civilian employee, what grade or above?
GS-6
258
14. What grade or rate restrictions apply to Top Secret couriers
None
259
15. Who is responsible to the security manager for the protection of classified information being processed in the automated system?
ADP security officer
260
16. The SSO is an officer or a civilian employee, what grade or above?
GS-9
261
17. What is responsible for policy guidance, education requirements, and source support for the security education program?
COMNAVSECINVCOM (OP-09N)
262
18. Counterespionage briefings are required once every how many years for those who have access to information classified Secret or above?
2
263
19. Make sure all personnel who have access to classified information receive a refresher briefing at least how often?
Annually
264
20. Persons who have had access to classified information should receive a debriefing
before termination of active military service or civilian employment or temporary separation for a period of how many days or more, including sabbaticals and leave without pay?
60
265
What is the disclosure of classified information to a person who is not authorized access to that information?
Compromise
266
22. A preliminary inquiry will be conducted when classified information has been compromised or subjected to compromise. The inquiry should be completed quickly, usually within how many days?
2 or 3
267
23. What means any form of encounter, association, or communication with any citizen of a Communist- controlled or hostile country?
Contact
268
24. If a Department of the Navy member who had access to classified information commits suicide or attempts suicide, the commanding officer immediately reports the incident to the nearest what?
NIS office
269
25. What is any product containing information that could adversely affect the national security if disclosed without authorization?
Classified material
270
Information that requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security receives one of three classification designations: What are they?
Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential
271
27. What classification should be designated for information that could cause grave damage to our national security upon unauthorized disclosure?
Top Secret
272
28. What classification should be designated for information that could cause serious damage to the national security upon unauthorized disclosure?
Secret
273
29. What classification should be designated for information that could cause damage to our national security upon unauthorized disclosure?
Confidential
274
30. As classified (permanently valuable) records in the National Archives become how many years old, the Archivist of the United States reviews them for declassification?
30
275
31. Commands maintain records for how many years to show the number and distribution of all reproductions of classified documents?
2
276
32. Typewriter ribbons are exempt from destruction if the upper and lower sections have been cycled through the machine how many times in the course of regular typing?
Five
277
33. Store Top Secret material in a safe-type steel filing container having a built-in, three-position, dial-type combination lock approved by the what?
General Services Administration
278
34. The MP and MR locks have more advanced features designed to protect against expert manipulation than those found in conventional locks. These locks have at least 100 graduations on the dial, which provide a choice of at least how many combinations?
1 million
279
35. The Navy forbids the use of what type of lock to safeguard classified material?
Electrically actuated locks
280
36. Rotate the dial of combination locks at least how many complete turns in the same direction when securing safes, files, or cabinets?
Four
281
37. Destruction of classified material maybe done only by authorized means and by how many persons cleared to the level of the material being destroyed?
Two
282
38. Record the destruction of Top Secret and Secret materials on the Classified Material Destruction Report which is what form?
OPNAV Form 5511/1
283
39. The two officials responsible for destroying Top Secret and Secret materials will sign and date the record of destruction. Retain records of destruction for a period of how many years?
2
284
40. What has been the traditional method for destroying classified material
Burning
285
41. What instruction outlines the policies and procedures governing public release of official information and the conditions under which a security review is required?
SECNAVINST 5720.44A
286
42. What is exempt from the requirements for portion markings?
NNPI
287
43. The basic policy of the Department of the Navy Personnel Security Program designates whom as the official responsible for managing the security clearance program?
Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
288
44. What is an inquiry by an investigative agency into a person’s activities conducted for the purpose of making a personnel security determination?
Personnel Security Investigation (PSI)
289
45. The Navy conducts personnel security investigations before granting a security clearance to persons who handle sensitive information. These investigations fall into one of how many categories?
Seven
290
46. What is a check of federal agency files on persons who apply for employment by federal agencies?
National Agency Check (NAC)
291
47. What determines a person’s suitability for entry into the service?
ENTNAC
292
48. The scope of a BI usually covers a period that extends back how many years or begins at the 18th birthday, whichever is the shorter period?
5
293
49. The scope of an SBI covers a period that extends back how many years or begins at the 18th birthday, whichever is the shorter period?
15
294
50. A Critical position in the PRP requires a BI within the past how many years before initial assignment?
5
295
51. When military personnel have a break in active duty of more than what time frame, investigations completed before the break become invalid for assignments to the PRP?
1 year
296
52. What means that knowledge or possession of classified information is permitted only by persons requiring access in the interest of national security?
Circulation control
