NAVEDTRA 14145/BMR--EDIT LATER--663/246 Flashcards
1
Q
- Deterrence, Forward Defense, along with what else are the three basic pillars that National military strategy rests on?
A
Alliance Solidarity
2
Q
- What enables us to deny the enemy any advantage through expansion?
A
Maritime superiority
3
Q
- Deterrence of war has been the sole mission and basic reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine since its inception in what year?
A
1960
4
Q
- How many Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBMs) do Trident class submarines carry?
A
24
5
Q
- What type of attack is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective?
A
Strike
6
Q
- What is the key member of a powerful and mobile naval task force?
A
Aircraft carrier
7
Q
- What type of attack on supply lines is an attempt to destroy railroads, bridges, electric power plants, and so forth, and is used to cripple the support of enemy front lines with minimum effort?
A
Interdiction
8
Q
- What year did the Chief of Naval Operations order the development of a weapons system capable of launching a missile from a submerged submarine?
A
1955
9
Q
- What was the United States first fleet ballistic missile (FBM) submarine launched in June of 1959?
A
George Washington (SSBN-598)
10
Q
- What type of warfare integrates nearly all types of ships, aircraft, weapons, and landing forces in a concerted military effort against a hostile shore?
A
Amphibious
11
Q
- What type of warfare is a conflict in which at least one of the opponents is operating from the sea with surface ships, submarines, or sea-based aircraft?
A
Naval
12
Q
- What are the three major areas involved in Naval warfare?
A
Surface, Subsurface, and Air
13
Q
- What is the destruction of enemy aircraft and airborne weapons, whether launched from air, surface, subsurface, or land?
A
AAW
14
Q
- What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines?
A
ASW
15
Q
- What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships?
A
ASUW
16
Q
- What type of warfare uses conventional or nuclear weapons in the destruction or neutralization of the enemy targets ashore? (
A
Strike
17
Q
- What type of naval operations are generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature and, in many cases, conducted with secrecy?
A
Special warfare
18
Q
- What is the assessment and management of information obtained via surveillance, reconnaissance, and other means called?
A
Intelligence
19
Q
- What provides the means to exercise the authority and direction of naval forces in the accomplishment of their mission?
A
NCCS
20
Q
- What ensures the effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces while determining, reducing, or preventing its use by an enemy?
A
Electronic warfare
21
Q
- What is defined as resupplying combat consumables to combatant forces during operations?
A
Logistics
22
Q
- AEGIS can perform search, track, and missile-guidance functions simultaneously with a track capacity of over how many targets?
A
100
23
Q
- What is the Navy’s first all-weather, automatic-controlled gun system designed to provide defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles that penetrate outer defense systems?
A
Phalanx
24
Q
- What year was the Phoenix air-to-air missile introduced into the fleet with the F-14 aircraft?
A
1974
25
Q
- What is an all-weather submarine-launched or surface combatant-launched antiship or land-attack cruise missile?
A
Tomahawk
26
Q
- What is defined as the ability of a force, a unit, a weapons system, or an equipment to deliver the output for which it was designed?
A
Readiness
27
Q
- What is designed to turn a materially ready and manned ship into a ship that is fully capable of performing its assigned mission?
A
Refresher training
28
Q
- Which instruction outlines the basic bills that all ships base drills on?
A
OPNAVINST 3120.32B
29
Q
- What is the most important type of drill held aboard ships?
A
General Quarters
30
Q
- What type of inspection tests the ability of the crew and ship to operate in battle under wartime conditions?
A
ORI
31
Q
- What type of inspection determines the adequacy of the administrative and operating procedures directly related to the propulsion plant and the capability of assigned personnel to maintain equipment and systems?
A
PEB
32
Q
- Naval ships should be examined by INSURV at least once every how many years if practical?
A
3
33
Q
- Division personnel and material readiness should be assessed daily at a minimum and in more detail at least how often?
A
Weekly
34
Q
- Work habits, knowledge, along with what else will be the three areas looked at while assessing worker performance?
A
Attitude
35
Q
- What does each division or department use to make formal supply inventories?
A
OPTAR Log
36
Q
- Which log describes deficiencies and missing equipment in each space?
A
Equipment Deficiency Log (EDL)
37
Q
- What is the computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate aboard the command
A
EDVR
38
Q
- What lists the planned operations, assist visits, inspections, and ports of call for the fiscal year?
A
Annual Employment Schedule
39
Q
- What is the most effective way to inform subordinates of their standing in the division?
A
Counseling
40
Q
- What are used to note discrepancies, recommend solutions to problems, and provide a follow-up date for reevaluation?
A
Counseling sheet
41
Q
- What identifies a number of discrepancies individually and gives recommended solutions in addition to dates for reevaluation?
A
Letter of Instruction
42
Q
- What is the administrative remarks page of the enlisted service record used to provide a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of the record?
A
Page 13
43
Q
- What should be used to prepare written input from yourself to the responsible party in your chain of command via your division officer and department head?
A
Memorandum
44
Q
- How many types of recognition can subordinates be recommended for?
A
Five
45
Q
- What format should subordinates’ accomplishments be in to make them stronger?
A
Bullet
46
Q
- What are the two categories of authority?
A
General and Organizational
47
Q
- What should be used when the CO delegates signature authority in writing?
A
Titles
48
Q
- How do subordinates usually sign documents under delegated authority?
A
By direction
49
Q
- What instruction gives specific guidance on signature authority?
A
SECNAVINST 5216.5C
50
Q
- How many different types of naval communications are senior petty officers required to compose?
A
Two
51
Q
- What is used for urgent communication where speed is of primary importance
A
Naval message
52
Q
- What type of message is sent to one addressee only and may be either for action or information?
A
Single-address
53
Q
- Which type of message is sent to two or more addressees, each of whom is aware of the other addressee(s)?
A
Multiple-address
54
Q
- What type of message is sent to two or more addressees and is of such a nature that no addressee needs to know who the others are?
A
Book
55
Q
- What type of message has a wide standard distribution to all commands in an area under one command or to types of commands and activities?
A
General
56
Q
- What is the authority (command or activity) in whose name messages are sent?
A
Originator
57
Q
- Who is responsible for validating message content, affirming message compliance with message-drafting instructions, and for determining whether the draft of the message should be released as a message or as a NAVGRAM?
A
Releaser
58
Q
- What is the title of the message composer?
A
Drafter
59
Q
- How many common precedence categories are messages divided into?
A
Four
60
Q
- Which publication contains message precedence information?
A
NTP-3
61
Q
- Which message precedence is assigned to all types of traffic that justify electrical transmission but are not of sufficient urgency to require a higher precedence?
A
Routine
62
Q
- Which message precedence is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress?
A
Priority
63
Q
- What is the highest message precedence normally authorized for administrative messages?
A
Priority
64
Q
- Which message precedence is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace and require immediate delivery to addressees?
A
Immediate
65
Q
- What prosign identifies Immediate message precedence
A
O
66
Q
- Which message precedence is reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency?
A
Flash
67
Q
- Which prosign identifies messages with Flash precedence?
A
Z
68
Q
- How many digits followed by a time-zone suffix does a DTG consist of?
A
Six
69
Q
- What phrase is used to denote the format and ordinary language spelling of command short titles and geographical locations used in message addresses?
A
Plain Language Address
70
Q
- What are single-address, alphabetically sorted, common-interest groups called?
A
Collective Address Designators
71
Q
- What are used to represent predetermined lists of specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and information addressees or both?
A
Address Indicating Groups
72
Q
- What are used as alternatives to the repeating of lengthy references within the text of the message?
A
Reference lines
73
Q
- What process is used to transmit a message to an activity that was not an addressee of the message as it was originally drafted?
A
Message readdressal
74
Q
- How many days following the release date, except under certain circumstances, are all message directives automatically canceled?
A
90
75
Q
- What condition imposed by proper authority is used to reduce and control electrical message and telephone traffic?
A
Minimize
76
Q
- Which instruction contains regulations and guidance for classifying and safeguarding classified information?
A
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
77
Q
- What is a brief form of a naval letter on which an official recommends action or makes comments, forwards a letter, redirects a misaddressed letter, or endorses a letter back to the originator for further information?
A
Endorsement
78
Q
- What are used for urgent communications between department of defense (DOD) addressees?
A
NAVGRAMs
79
Q
- What provide a standard system of numbers used throughout the Navy to categorize, subject classify, and identify directives, letters, messages, forms, and reports?
A
Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSICs)
80
Q
- How many major subject groups does the SSIC system consist of?
A
14
81
Q
- What means that when you use a coordinating conjunction (and, but, nor, yet), nouns, adjectives, dependent clauses, and so on, should match in each part of the sentence?
A
Parallelism
82
Q
- Generally, sentences should be restricted to how many words or less?
A
20
83
Q
- “It is” along with what other phrase hurt naval writing more than anything else?
A
“There are”
84
Q
- What program ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory incidents to occur before taking corrective action?
A
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
85
Q
- From what two perspectives can equal opportunity be observed?
A
Personnel and Administration
86
Q
- What team evaluates command members knowledge about equal opportunity?
A
Command Assessment Team (CAT)
87
Q
- What team assesses command compliance with the Navy’s equal opportunity objectives as a whole?
A
Command Training Team (CTT)
88
Q
- What means are used for determining what people actually do or how they behave and interact?
A
Observations
89
Q
- How many methods can be used by commands to enforce equal opportunity?
A
Three
90
Q
- Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) grants Commanding Officers the power to award punishment for minor offenses without the intervention of a court-martial?
A
Article 15
91
Q
- What publication contains details concerning required premast advice to an accused?
A
Judge Advocate General (JAG) Manual
92
Q
- Who is responsible for collecting all available facts concerning the offense itself and the background of the accused?
A
PIO
93
Q
- How many types of punishment under article 15 of the UCMJ, under appropriate circumstances, can be imposed by Commanding Officers?
A
Nine
94
Q
- What is the least severe form of liberty denial
A
Restriction
95
Q
- What is the physical restraint of persons during duty or nonduty hours, or both called?
A
Correctional custody
96
Q
- How many days is the maximum duration that confinement sentences on bread and water may be imposed on nonrated personnel attached or embarked on vessels?
A
3
97
Q
- What is considered to be the most severe form of NJP?
A
Reduction in grade
98
Q
- What is the maximum number of hours per day that extra duty can be assigned?
A
2
99
Q
- Detention of pay may not exceed how many years and may not extend beyond the expiration of the member’s current enlistment?
A
1 year
100
Q
- Up to how many days may Commanders defer confinement on bread and water or correctional custody if the needs of the naval service dictate such deferment?
A
15
101
Q
- How many days do members have to appeal NJP punishment to a higher authority?
A
5
102
Q
- What has become the most valuable drug detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy?
A
Urinalysis
103
Q
- Natural and synthetic morphine-like drugs that are derived from what source are the most effective pain relievers known?
A
Opiates
104
Q
- What is a white or brown powder known to the addict as H, horse, caballo, white stuff, white lade, Harry, joy powder, doojee, sugar, stag, or smack?
A
Heroin
105
Q
- How many times more potent than morphine is heroin?
A
10
106
Q
- What year was Methadone invented by German chemists?
A
1941
107
Q
- What type of substances produce excitation, increased activity, and an ability to go without sleep for extended periods?
A
Stimulants
108
Q
- Which drug induces euphoria, excitation, anxiety, a sense of increased muscular strength, and talkativeness?
A
Cocaine
109
Q
- What is street cocaine that is mixed with baking soda and water to remove impurities called?
A
Crack
110
Q
- What type of substance distorts the user’s perception of objective reality?
A
Hallucinogens
111
Q
- What is the number one drug problem in the United States today?
A
Alcohol
112
Q
- Which instruction provides the Navy’s policy on drug and alcohol abuse?
A
OPNAVINST 5350.4B
113
Q
- The first consistent changes in mood and behavior appear at blood-alcohol levels of approximately what percent?
A
0.05
114
Q
- Voluntary motor actions-hand and arm movements, walking, and sometimes speech-become clumsy at what blood-alcohol level?
A
0.10%
115
Q
- A blood-alcohol level of what percent measurably impairs the controls of the entire motor area of the brain as well as that part of the brain that guides emotional behavior?
A
0.20
116
Q
- Drinking large amounts of alcohol for an extended length of time reduces the brain’s sensitivity to the alcohol. Therefore, a person must drink greater amounts of alcohol to feel its effects. What is this change in the sensitivity of the brain called?
A
Tolerance
117
Q
- What process do our bodies use to transform drugs into other substances and eventually eliminate them through normal bodily functions?
A
Metabolic
118
Q
- How many times more often among alcoholics as among nonalcoholics does Cirrhosis of the liver occur?
A
Eight
119
Q
- People with blood-alcohol levels of what percent have a reduced white blood cell mobilization as great as that in people suffering from severe shock?
A
0.15 to 0.25
120
Q
- How many different levels does the Navy provide alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation programs on?
A
Three
121
Q
- What is the maximum time allotted for members to a Level II alcohol abuse counseling program
A
4 weeks
122
Q
- Residential rehabilitation for alcohol abuse involves a multidisciplinary therapeutic approach that normally lasts how many weeks?
A
6
123
Q
- How many days do persons remain in an “aftercare” status following a successful completion of a Level II or III alcohol abuse program before they return to their command?
A
180
124
Q
- Who is the command representative responsible to the commanding officer for carrying out the NADAP?
A
DAPA
125
Q
- What is a nonresidential facility providing counseling services, clinical screening/referral, and local outreach programs for commands in the immediate geographic area?
A
CAAC
126
Q
- What are the two distinct types of authority?
A
General and Organizational
127
Q
- Which Standard Organization and Regulations of the United States Navy article contains the general responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers in the Navy?
A
141.4
128
Q
- What type of authority held by all officers and petty officers is derived from each person’s assigned billet within a particular command?
A
Organizational
129
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article grants petty officers at each level the necessary authority for the performance of their duties?
A
Article 1037
130
Q
- What grants the right to require actions of others?
A
Authority
131
Q
- Withholding of privileges along with what else are two of the most common measures used to correct military duty deficiencies?
A
Extra Military Instruction (EMI)
132
Q
- EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day
A
2
133
Q
- The authority to assign EMI is normally not delegated below what level?
A
CPO
134
Q
- What is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual?
A
Privilege
135
Q
- Depriving an individual of liberty or privileges as a punishment for any offense or substandard performance of duty is illegal, except as specifically authorized under the what?
A
UCMJ
136
Q
- What is defined as something that a person is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation—an action or task required by one’s position?
A
Duty
137
Q
- What is the commanding officer’s summary of personnel duty assignments and stations called
A
Watch, Quarter, and Station (WQS) bill
138
Q
- Who is responsible for maintaining the ships master WQS bill?
A
Executive Officer
139
Q
- What is used for transferring information from the battle bill and ship’s bills to the WQS bill?
A
Division notebook
140
Q
- What is probably the most important of all the shipboard bills
A
Emergency bills
141
Q
- Which bill organizes the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency or disaster aboard ship?
A
General emergency bill
142
Q
- Which PQS section covers the basic knowledge needed to understand the specific equipment or duties and provides an analysis of those fundamentals that broadly apply?
A
Fundamentals (100 series)
143
Q
- Which PQS section breaks down the subject equipment or duties into smaller, more easily understood sections called systems?
A
Systems (200 Series)
144
Q
- Which PQS section tests the trainee’s readiness to perform a designated task?
A
Watch Station/Maintenance Action (300 Series)
145
Q
- PQS oral examination boards could have as few as two or as many as how many members
A
Eight
146
Q
- What is normally the minimum paygrade required to be a PQS qualifier
A
E-5
147
Q
- Who introduces trainee’s to the PQS program and recommends and monitors the goals for each individual?
A
Work Center Supervisor
148
Q
- Who qualifies personnel for watch stations and equipment/systems operations?
A
Department head
149
Q
- Which side of the service record folder is the actual service record on?
A
Right
150
Q
- What are used to verify a members ability to perform tasks required by occupational standards (OCCSTDs)?
A
PARs
151
Q
- What are the primary enlisted-to-officer programs sponsored by the Navy that do not require a college education?
A
Limited Duty Officer and Chief Warrant Officer
152
Q
- CWO candidates must have completed at least 12 years, but not more than how many years, of active service on 16 January of the year in which application is made?
A
24
153
Q
- LDO candidates must have completed at least 8 years but not more than how many years of active naval service on 16 January of the year in which application is made?
A
16
154
Q
- CPOs and SCPOs with at least how many years, but not more than 16 years, of naval service may apply for LDO and CWO in the same application year, but only one designator for each program may be requested?
A
12
155
Q
- An active service obligation of how many years will be incurred by ECP selectees?
A
6
156
Q
- To be eligible, ECP applicants must be at least 22 years of age, able to complete degree requirements, and commissioned before reaching what age?
A
33
157
Q
- Which program provides 16 weeks of officer indoctrination training for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher?
A
OCS
158
Q
- OCS applicants must be at least 19 years old and not have reached what age by their commissioning date?
A
29
159
Q
- Who ensures that personnel are trained to operate and maintain their equipment and related systems?
A
TPO
160
Q
- Quarters for muster and inspection are held each workday before what time depending upon the type of ship and its operating schedule?
A
0800
161
Q
- Who is the most important person aboard the ship while in port next to the Captain and the Executive Officer?
A
OOD
162
Q
- What publication should be used by all watch standers as a general guide for standards that should be met?
A
SORN
163
Q
- What occurs when watch conditions change within the ship?
A
Setting the watch
164
Q
- Who supervises the quarterdeck watch, anchor watch, fog look-outs, brow and dock sentries
A
POOW
165
Q
- What is the term for taking a person into custody
A
Apprehension
166
Q
- What is the term for the moral or physical restraint of a person’s liberty?
A
Restraint
167
Q
- What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order which directs the person to remain within specified limits of an area?
A
Restriction in lieu of arrest
168
Q
- What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order that is not imposed as punishment and directs the person to remain within the specified limits of an area?
A
Arrest
169
Q
- What is the term for depriving a person of his or her freedom pending the disposition of offenses by means of physical restraint that is imposed by order of competent authority?
A
Confinement
170
Q
- What is the official daily record of a ship maintained by watches?
A
Deck log
171
Q
- How many months are deck log copies retained onboard prior to being destroyed?
A
12
172
Q
- Who is responsible for examining the ship’s deck log daily to ensure it is properly kept?
A
Navigator
173
Q
- What type of visit refers to visits on board by individuals or specific groups as differentiated from the general public?
A
Casual visiting
174
Q
- What are the normal shipboard general visiting hours?
A
1300-1600
175
Q
- What is the maximum visitor group size that departmental personnel should be responsible for when they are detailed to act as shipboard tour guides?
A
15
176
Q
- How long before the scheduled commencement of general visiting should the chief master-at-arms muster sentries and guides for inspection and instruction?
A
30 minutes
177
Q
- What hours are officers normally permitted to have personal guests come onboard?
A
1600-2200
178
Q
- After what time and until the expiration of visiting hours on Sundays and during general visiting are Chief petty officers permitted to entertain guests in their messroom and lounge?
A
1100
179
Q
- Who is responsible for authorizing classified ship visits
A
CNO
180
Q
- Who is directly responsible to the commanding officer for the posting of all security watches and sentries?
A
OOD
181
Q
- What name is given to the 1600-1800 and the 1800-2000 watches aboard ship?
A
Dog watch
182
Q
- Which instruction encompasses all safety disciplines?
A
OPNAVINST 5100.23
183
Q
- Which instruction provides general shipboard safety precautions?
A
OPNAVINST 5100.19
184
Q
- Which instruction outlines the safety program and the safety organization?
A
OPNAVINST 3120.32
185
Q
- Which instruction provides motor vehicle safety policy and guidance?
A
OPNAVINST 5100.12
186
Q
- How many types of safety observations can be used?
A
Three
187
Q
- Which type of safety observation occurs when safety hazards are noticed without deliberately taking time to look for them?
A
Incidental
188
Q
- Which type of safety observation do observers intentionally pause in whatever they are doing to see if a person does some part of a job safely?
A
Deliberate
189
Q
- Which type of safety observation is deliberately scheduled to watch for safety violations by a person performing a specific job?
A
Planned
190
Q
- What makes command safety program recommendations?
A
Enlisted Safety Committee
191
Q
- What acts as a roving inspector for hazards and risks (unsafe work practices) that could result in injury to personnel or damage to equipment?
A
MAA/Safety Force
192
Q
- Which program specifically addresses the maintenance of safe and healthful conditions in the work place?
A
NAVOSH
193
Q
- Personnel working in hazardous noise areas must be entered in a hearing test program when they are exposed to sound levels greater than 84 dB or peak sound pressure levels exceeding what level?
A
140 dB
194
Q
- What type of strain is placed on the body as it attempts to regulate its temperature as a result of any combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, air flow, and work load?
A
Heat stress
195
Q
- Heat stress surveys must be conducted in work areas when the watch or work station’s dry-bulb temperature
exceeds what temperature?
A
100°F
196
Q
- Any person found to have vision in one eye of what level or worse to be visually impaired by Naval standards?
A
20/200
197
Q
- How often should tag-out system audits be performed?
A
Every 2 weeks
198
Q
- Navy Regulations along with which Code of Conduct article give the senior person in a survival situation the authority to take charge?
A
Article IV
199
Q
- What permits personnel to see without being seen?
A
Camouflage
200
Q
- How many yards can enemy observers see under favorable conditions in open woods?
A
100
201
Q
- Who made the defiant reply “I have not yet begun to fight”?
A
John Paul Jones
202
Q
- Prevention, minimization, along with what else make up the three basic objectives of shipboard damage control?
A
Restoration
203
Q
- Who is responsible for carrying out command damage control requirements including training?
A
Executive Officer
204
Q
- Who is the senior member of the underway watch team and is the primary assistant to the commanding officer on the bridge?
A
Officer Of the Deck (OOD)
205
Q
- How many months do DCPOs normally serve?
A
6
206
Q
- Who maintains a list of all the personnel assigned to repair parties?
A
DCA
207
Q
- What material condition is used for maximum protection in battle?
A
Zebra
208
Q
- What coordinates setting material condition Zebra for X-ray and Yoke fittings that were previously logged as open in the damage control closure log?
A
DCC
209
Q
- What provides personnel immediately to fight fires during action?
A
Repair parties
210
Q
- How many battle dressing stations at a minimum do most ships have that are equipped for emergency handling of battle casualties?
A
Two
211
Q
- Who takes charge of damage repair at the immediate scene and is directly in charge of the fire-fighting party?
A
On-scene leader
212
Q
- Who is responsible for training and organizing the at-sea fire party?
A
DCA
213
Q
- How many principles of investigation should be considered during damage investigation?
A
Four
214
Q
- What is the nominal distance from the point of impact that damage should spread if the underwater protective system is initially intact?
A
Fifty feet
215
Q
- CO2 flooded compartments should not be opened for at least how many minutes after they have been flooded except in case of emergencies?
A
15
216
Q
- What temperatures cause the decomposition of Halon 1301?
A
900°+F
217
Q
- How many gallons per minute (gpm) of water will a hole in the hull, with an area of only 1 square foot, 15 feet below the surface admit?
A
13,900
218
Q
- What refers to a compartment that is completely filled with water from deck to overhead?
A
Solid flooding
219
Q
- What are the bulkheads and decks called that restrict the partially flooded area from the flooding boundary?
A
Flooding boundaries
220
Q
- What are used as the primary means of communications during battle or while combating damage?
A
Sound-powered telephones
221
Q
- Which circuit is the main damage control circuit that is common to the damage control station and all repair parties?
A
2JZ
222
Q
- Which circuit connects the conn, pilot house, interior communications (IC) room, combat information center (CIC), and damage control central (DCC)?
A
JA (Captain’s battle circuit)
223
Q
- Which circuit connects the pilot house, bridge wings, main engine control, forecastle, fantail, steering gear room, IC room, and DCC?
A
JV (Maneuvering circuit)
224
Q
- Which circuit connects all the machinery spaces, engineer log room, IC room, emergency diesel generator space, main distribution switchboards, smoke watch, fueling station, and DCC?
A
2JV (Engineer’s circuit)
225
Q
- Which circuit provides a means of rigging communication lines between vital stations during an emergency condition?
A
X-40J (Casualty communication circuit)
226
Q
- What is the damage control intercom system circuit
A
4MC
227
Q
- What is emergency treatment of the sick or injured before regular medical or surgical attention can be obtained called?
A
First aid
228
Q
- Up to how many miles from the burst can an air blast from a nuclear detonation can general damage?
A
10
229
Q
- What name is given to the pressure pulse created in water as a result of an explosion on or below the water surface?
A
Underwater shock
230
Q
- Over how many feet in height can waves from a surface or underwater burst be?
A
100
231
Q
- Up to how many minutes can flash blindness from a nuclear attack last?
A
30
232
Q
- Over what distance is the casualty range of from the initial radiation of a normal kiloton burst?
A
1 mile
233
Q
- Alpha, Beta, along with what else are the three types of ionizing nuclear radiation that can be emitted from radioactive contamination?
A
Gamma
234
Q
- What type of radiation has a range in the air of only a few feet and has limited penetrating power?
A
Beta
235
Q
- Which type of radiation has an effective range in the air of many hundreds of feet and is highly penetrating?
A
Gamma
236
Q
- Which type of warfare intentionally uses living infectious microorganisms (germs) to reduce or destroy the military effectiveness of personnel?
A
Biological
237
Q
- Up to how many hours can it take for results to show from BW agents
A
72
238
Q
- Which agents are intended for use in military operations to kill, injure seriously, or incapacitate people through physiological effects?
A
Chemical warfare (CW)
239
Q
- Which type of agents produce temporary physiological or mental effects that render individuals incapable of performing their assigned duties?
A
Incapacitating
240
Q
- Which type of agents produce temporary irritating or incapacitating effects when contact is made with the eyes or when inhaled?
A
Riot control
241
Q
- Which type of agents are considered to be the most dangerous because of their ability, even in small amounts, to cause casualties?
A
Nerve
242
Q
- Unless under the direct supervision of medical personnel, what is the maximum number of 2-PAM chloride injections that can be given?
A
Three
243
Q
- Which type of agents smell of garlic, fish, or geraniums and may appear as colorless to dark brown oily liquid or droplets?
A
Blister
244
Q
- How many minutes after exposure to blister agents do personnel have to perform effective treatment?
A
2
245
Q
- Which type of agents smell like freshly mown hay or grass?
A
Choking
246
Q
- Which type of agents are colorless but may have a slight odor of bitter almonds?
A
Blood
247
Q
- What is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents that is used in chemical warfare defense
A
MOPP
248
Q
- How many phases are disaster relief operations normally conducted in?
A
Five
249
Q
- Which type of plan contains general goals and broad guidelines?
A
Policy
250
Q
- What is a plan or system under which action may be taken towards a goal?
A
Program
251
Q
- What is the altering of the natural environment in an adverse way called?
A
Environmental pollution
252
Q
- Which type of pollutants include insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural and chemical fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field irrigation, and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion?
A
Agricultural
253
Q
- Which type of pollutants include acids from mines and factories, thermal discharges from power plants, and radioactive wastes from mining and processing certain ores?
A
Industrial
254
Q
- Which type of pollutants include refuse, storm-water overflows, and salts used on streets in wintertime?
A
Municipal
255
Q
- Which type of pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne vessels, and cars and trucks?
A
Transportation
256
Q
- How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted trash can be discharged?
A
1,000
257
Q
- How many nautical miles away from any foreign coastline must vessels be before discharging any trash?
A
25
258
Q
- Which program directs federal facilities, including naval shore stations, to comply with all substantive or procedural requirements applying to environmental noise reduction?
A
Noise Prevention
259
Q
- What type of fuel do most of the Navy’s ships and all of its aircraft use?
A
Petroleum
260
Q
- Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to ease the relocation of naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station (PCS) orders?
A
CNO
261
Q
- Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor?
A
NAVPERS 1330/2
262
Q
- What program provides information and support to help personnel who are guests in foreign lands?
A
Overseas Duty Support Program (ODSP)
263
Q
- What gives up-to-date information of the country personnel will be visiting?
A
SITES
264
Q
- Which program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase performance within the Department of the Navy?
A
Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP)
265
Q
- What is the maximum MILCAP award
A
$25,000
266
Q
- Servicewoman may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the beginning of what week of pregnancy?
A
28th
267
Q
- How many months after the expected delivery date may pregnant servicewomen be transferred to a deploying unit?
A
4
268
Q
- Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
A
6
269
Q
- Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
A
6
270
Q
- How many days of convalescent leave do Commanding Officers normally grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby?
A
42
271
Q
- Service members in a single or dual military status with children or dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan?
A
19
272
Q
- Which program carries out the Department of the Navy’s policy to detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement?
A
Integrity and Efficiency (I & E)
273
Q
- What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the government of its resources or rights?
A
Fraud
274
Q
- What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources defined as?
A
Waste
275
Q
- What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources referred to as?
A
Abuse
276
Q
- What naval office inquires into and reports on any matter that affects the discipline or military efficiency of the DoN?
A
Inspector General (IG)
277
Q
- What protects the rights of personal privacy of people about whom records are maintained by agencies of the federal government?
A
Privacy Act
278
Q
- What program allows Commanding Officers (COs) to create and maintain a positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment?
A
CMEO
279
Q
- What is behavior called that is prejudicial to another person because of that person’s race, religion, creed, color, sex, or national origin?
A
Insensitive practice
280
Q
- What provides information about government housing and the type, cost, and availability of private housing?
A
HRO
281
Q
- Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and assembly?
A
First Amendment
282
Q
- What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful?
A
Hazing
283
Q
- What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called?
A
Sexual harassment
284
Q
- Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with what else are the three criterias for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual harassment?
A
Unwelcome
285
Q
- Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?
A
Quid pro quo
286
Q
- Which type of behaviors are always considered to be sexual harassment?
A
Red zone
287
Q
- What type of behaviors would many people find unacceptable that could be considered to be sexual harassment?
A
Yellow zone
288
Q
- Which U.S. Navy Regulations Article states “No person in the Navy is to enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline.”?
A
Article 1165
289
Q
- What volunteer liaises between command and families?
A
Command ombudsman
290
Q
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are recommended for preferred reenlistment?
A
RE-R1
291
Q
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for reenlistment?
A
RE-1
292
Q
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for probationary reenlistment?
A
RE-R3
293
Q
- Which reenlistment code means that personnel are not eligible for reenlistment?
A
RE-4
294
Q
- Who directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program?
A
Chief of Naval Personnel
295
Q
- In what year did President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribe a Code of Conduct for members of the armed forces?
A
1955
296
Q
- How many articles does the Code of Conduct contain?
A
Six
297
Q
- Which Code of Conduct article states that “When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my Name, rank, service number and date of birth”?
A
V
298
Q
- What are Naval personnel called when they are assigned military police duties?
A
Shore Patrol (SP)
299
Q
- Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA?
A
Executive Officer
300
Q
- What type of training is designed to develop self-control, character, and efficiency?
A
Discipline
301
Q
- Which punishment theory teaches the wrongdoer and others that offenses must not be repeated?
A
Deterrent
302
Q
- The UCMJ, Navy Regulations, along with what else are the three official sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy?
A
SORN
303
Q
- What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities
A
U.S. Navy Regulations
304
Q
- Who ensures U.S. Navy Regulations conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy
A
Chief of Naval Operations
305
Q
- Who issues U.S. Navy Regulation changes after they are approved by the President
A
Secretary of the Navy
306
Q
- Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy regulations?
A
Article 92
307
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article discusses officer precedence?
A
Article 1002
308
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article describes the proper manner of addressing officers orally and in writing?
A
Article 1010
309
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties?
A
Article 1021
310
Q
- Tyrannical/Capricious conduct along with what other method are persons in authority forbidden from using to injure their subordinates?
A
Abusive language
311
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article provides the senior line officer eligible for command at sea the authority over all persons embarked in a boat?
A
Article 1033
312
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article grants sentry authority?
A
Article 1038
313
Q
- Personnel may not be ordered to active service without permission of whom?
A
Chief of Naval Personnel
314
Q
- What is the minimum interval that personnel in confinement have to be visited to have their condition checked on and needs cared for?
A
4
315
Q
- What is the maximum interest rate that naval personnel can impose on loans to other armed service members?
A
18
316
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article governs duty exchanges?
A
Article 1134
317
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article governs Leave and Liberty?
A
Article 1157
318
Q
- Which instruction provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all Navy members?
A
OPNAVINST 3120.32
319
Q
- Until what year did the various branches of the armed forces operate under different military codes
A
1951
320
Q
- What year did the UCMJ become effective?
A
1951
321
Q
- Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person?
A
Article 137
322
Q
- What is the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment for an offense which directs them to remain within certain specified limits?
A
Arrest
323
Q
- What is the physical restraint of a person called?
A
Confinement
324
Q
- Which UCMJ Article explains commanding officers’ non-judicial punishment?
A
Article 15
325
Q
- In a special court-martial, the accused must be afforded the opportunity to be represented by counsel qualified under what article of the UCMJ unless such counsel cannot be obtained because of the geographical location or pressing military requirements?
A
Article 27
326
Q
- Which UCMJ Article explains servicemembers rights to not provide evidence against themselves (self- incrimination)?
A
Article 31
327
Q
- Which UCMJ Article was designed to ensure that every court, its members, and its officers are completely free to fulfill their functions without fear of reprisal?
A
Article 37
328
Q
- Which UCMJ Article prohibits any cruel or unusual punishment?
A
Article 55
329
Q
- What are the UCMJ punitive articles?
A
77-134
330
Q
- What is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime?
A
Conspiracy
331
Q
- What are members of the armed forces who, without permission, leave their place of duty or organization with the intent to remain away permanently guilty of?
A
Desertion
332
Q
- How many days of absence, or sooner if the intent to desert is apparent, does the status of an absentee change to that of a deserter?
A
30
333
Q
- Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement?
A
Article 87
334
Q
- What word designated by the principal headquarters of a command aids guards and sentinels in their scrutiny of persons who apply to pass the lines?
A
Countersign
335
Q
- What word is used as a countersign check which is imparted only to those who are entitled to inspect guards and to commanders of guards?
A
Parole
336
Q
- What is a detachment, guard, or detail posted by a commander which protects persons, places, or property of the enemy or of a neutral affected by the relationship of the opposing forces in their prosecution of war or during a state of conflict?
A
Safeguard
337
Q
- What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property?
A
Neglect
338
Q
- Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty?
A
Article 112
339
Q
- What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on post who is found asleep or drunk in time of war?
A
Death
340
Q
- What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning (pretending) to be ill or physically/mentally disabled?
A
Malingering
341
Q
- How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may oppose them to be classified as a riot?
A
Three
342
Q
- What is the unlawful killing of another called?
A
Manslaughter
343
Q
- What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or inflict great bodily harm
A
Involuntary manslaughter
344
Q
- Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not specifically mentioned in other articles?
A
Article 134
345
Q
- What is Commanding officer’s NJP often referred to as?
A
Captain’s mast
346
Q
- What requires personnel to remain within certain specified limits (ship, station, etc.)?
A
Restriction
347
Q
- What is the physical restraint (confinement) of a person during duty or nonduty hours, or both called?
A
Correctional custody
348
Q
- Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed only on enlisted persons in what pay- grade and below aboard ship?
A
E-3
349
Q
- What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be assigned?
A
2 hours
350
Q
- How many days do personnel who consider their article 15 punishment to be unjust or disproportionate to the offense have to appeal the decision to the next superior in the chain of command?
A
5
351
Q
- Which UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination?
A
Article 31
352
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article grants the right for any person to communicate with the commanding officer?
A
Article 1107
353
Q
- Summary, Special, along with what else are court martial types based on article 16 of the UCMJ
A
General
354
Q
- What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be made up of?
A
Three
355
Q
- A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members?
A
Five
356
Q
- A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members?
A
Five
357
Q
- What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard ships
A
Deck log
358
Q
- Who keeps the ship’s deck log while at sea?
A
Quartermaster Of the Watch (QOOW)
359
Q
- Which bill contains lists of stations that must be manned during battle and at other specified times?
A
Battle
360
Q
- Which bill displays in one place personnel duties for each emergency and watch condition?
A
WQS
361
Q
- Which condition sets general quarters?
A
Condition I
362
Q
What special watch is used by gunfire support ships for situations such as extended periods of shore bombardment?
A
Condition II
363
Q
- What is the normal wartime cruising watch?
A
Condition III