NCE Practice Test

Question 1

1. Susie is playing with blocks and is trying to build a tower; she tries but cannot build a
   tower. Susie’s mother helps her build a four-block tower. Later, Susie builds a four-block
   tower without her mother’s help. According to Vygotsky, the inability to build the tower on
   her own is known as:

a. scaffolding
b. the zone of proximal development
c. assisted discovery
d. learning by imitation

Answer 1

1. B.

“Scaffolding” is a term used by Vygotsky that explains what Susie’s mother is doing.
She is adjusting her level of support to Susie based on Susie’s level of performance. The zone
of proximal development involves a range of tasks that are too difficult for the child to do
alone but possible to do with the help of adults or other, more-skilled children. “Assisted
discovery” is another term used by Vygotsky to describe learning situations that a teacher
sets up within a classroom so that children are guided into discovering learning. Learning
by imitation is a type of learning that involves a child watching someone perform a task and
later performing the task by herself.

Question 2

2. According to Erickson, when an individual fails to develop a strong sense of identity, the
   individual will have troubles with the development of:

a. autonomy
b. initiative
c. intimacy
d. integrity

Answer 2

2. C.

In Erickson’s theory of psychosocial development, individuals who fail to achieve the
goal of the lower level of development will have problems attaining the developmental task
at the next stage of development. In the example above, the individual failed to achieve
identity, which occurs during adolescence. Therefore, in young adulthood, the individual
will have problems attaining intimacy, which is the developmental task to be achieved at
this level. For autonomy, the individual would have to have failed to attain basic trust; for
initiative, the individual would have to have failed to attain autonomy; and for integrity, the
individual would have to have failed to attain generativity.

Question 3

3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in Freud’s theory of personality
   development?

a. Oral, genital, latency, anal, phallic
b. Genital, anal, phallic, oral, latency
c. Latency, phallic, oral, anal, genital
d. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

Answer 3

3. D.

The best way to remember Freud’s psychosexual stages of development is to think
about what key tasks individuals do throughout childhood. The first thing infants do is suck
(oral). Next, babies begin toilet training (anal), then discover the difference between boys
and girls (phallic). Next, children spend time growing physically and cognitively but are
latent in the psychosexual realm (not focusing on anything sexual); finally, puberty sets in
and they begin to think about sex again and are focused on their own genitals.

Question 4

4. Jacob’s father tells Jacob to clean his room. When Jacob asks why, his father responds,
   “Because I said so.” The father’s response is most representative of which parenting style?

a. Uninvolved
b. Authoritarian
c. Authoritative
d. Permissive

Answer 4

4. B.

The authoritarian parenting style uses coercive techniques and psychological control
to discipline children, whereas the authoritative parenting style emphasizes some control
but allows for some independence. The uninvolved parenting style rarely uses any control
and the parent seems to be indifferent to the child’s level of independence. In the
permissive parenting style, the parents are typically overindulgent with the child. They
exert very little control and are lenient when it comes to granting independence to the child.

Question 5

5. Harry Harlow used baby monkeys and several different kinds of “surrogate mothers” to
   investigate which factors are important in early development and attachment. According to
   his findings, baby monkeys:

a. preferred a soft terrycloth “mother” to a wire-mesh “mother” that held a bottle
b. preferred a wire-mesh “mother” that held a bottle to a soft terrycloth “mother”
c. showed no preference
d. preferred neither “mother”

Answer 5

5. A.

In Harry Harlow’s experiments, he found that baby monkeys preferred physical
comfort to hunger satisfaction. In other words, the baby monkeys wanted to be close to a
soft terrycloth “mother” rather than a wire-mesh “mother,” even though the latter
presented food. Therefore, attachment involves more than hunger satisfaction. It involves
having close contact with a “loving” caregiver.

Question 6

6. Which of the following is a myth about suicide in the United States?

a. Male suicide is four times higher than that among females.
b. It occurs in age groups of 90 years and up.
c. Psychiatrists, physicians, and dentists are most prone.
d. Asking someone about suicide may push that person over the edge.

Answer 6

6. D.

If someone is thinking about suicide, asking that person about suicide will not plant
the seed or push her into committing suicide. It is important that as a counselor, you ask
clients about suicide so that they can get the help they need. It is necessary to assess
suicidality whenever you suspect that someone is contemplating it or behaving in ways that
may suggest that she is contemplating it. It is best practice to assess for suicidality at each
session with your clients. Suicide knows no age boundaries. Females attempt suicide at a rate three times higher than males, but males are successful more often, usually because
they use more lethal methods than females.

Question 7

7. Cody does what his parents say because he doesn’t want to lose his television privileges.
   This is an example of what level in Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?

a. Integrity versus despair
b. Preconventional
c. Conventional
d. Postconventional

Answer 7

7. B.

Integrity versus despair is one of the stages in Erickson’s psychosocial developmental
theory. Kohlberg postulated that in the first level, preconventional, individuals are
concerned with consequences imposed upon them for wrongdoing. Thus, in the example,
Cody wanted to avoid being punished by having his television privileges taken away. At the
conventional level, an individual wants to conform to societal rules so that authority rules
and order is maintained. At the postconventional level, individuals define morality in terms
of universal values and altruism.

Question 8

8. Josie likes to play peek-a-boo with her little brother, Jack. According to Piaget, Jack finds
   this game fun because he has acquired ____________, which is one of the primary tasks of the
   sensorimotor stage of cognitive development.

a. conservation
b. dual representation
c. object permanence
d. reversibility

Answer 8

8. C.

Piaget proposed that there are four stages of cognitive development. The first stage is
the sensorimotor stage, whereby the infant or toddler recognizes that even though
something is out of sight, it still exists. Piaget’s second stage of cognitive development is the
preoperational stage (early childhood years) in which children begin to recognize that
something can be an object as well as a symbol (dual representation). The third stage of
cognitive development according to Piaget is called the concrete operational stage, during
which children 6 to 11 years old develop the capacity of both conservation (object
permanence, or the understanding that physical characteristics of objects remain the same
even if the appearance is different) and reversibility (the ability to think through a series of
steps and then to reverse the process mentally).

Question 9

9. The theorist associated with bonding and attachment is:

a. Bowlby
b. Adler
c. Freud
d. Piaget

Answer 9

9. A.

When you think about attachment and bonding, think about John Bowlby (1907–
1990). Adler is associated with birth order and family constellation, while Freud is
associated with psychosexual development. Piaget is associated with cognitive
development.

Question 10

10. Henry, a 72-year-old widower, reminisces with his daughter about his life. He talks
    about his successes and regrets. This is an example of Erikson’s:

a. intimacy stage
b. generativity stage
c. industry stage
d. ego integrity stage

Answer 10

10. D.

One of the clues in this example is Henry’s age. Another clue is Henry’s discussion
about his life successes and regrets, not finding another mate, being successful in school, or
contributing to society. Erikson’s generativity stage involves middle-aged adults who are
launching their children, dealing with an empty nest, and working toward retirement. His
ego integrity stage involves older adults who review their lives, looking at successes and
regrets.

Question 11

11. When it comes to displaying aggression, girls more often engage in ____________
    aggression than boys.

a. hostile
b. instrumental
c. relational
d. physical

Answer 11

11. C.

nstrumental aggression occurs when a child wants a toy that another child has and
he tries to get that toy by pushing or attacking the other child in some way. Hostile
aggression occurs when a child intentionally hurts another child because he wants to hurt
the other child. Physical aggression occurs more often in boys than in girls and is any form
of harm or physical injury such as pushing, hitting, biting, or kicking. Relational aggression
more often occurs in girls and involves the use of social exclusion, malicious gossip, or peer
manipulation in order to damage another person’s peer relationships.

Question 12

12. All of the following are physical characteristics of Down Syndrome EXCEPT:

a. short, stocky build
b. almond-shaped eyes
c. large hands and feet
d. flattened face

Answer 12

12. C.

The chromosomal abnormality, Down Syndrome, is the most common chromosomal
disorder, occurring in 1 out of every 800 births. Individuals with Down Syndrome suffer
from mental retardation, memory and speech problems, and slow motor development. They
usually have some heart deformities, as well as being of short and stocky build. They have
almond-shaped eyes, a flattened face, a protruding tongue, and an unusual crease running
across the palm of the hand.

Question 13

13. Which of the following statements is true when considering cultural and familial
    influences on self-esteem?

a. Chinese and Japanese children have higher self-esteem than North American children,
mainly because their cultures have higher academic standards for achievement.
b. Boys tend to have lower self-esteem than girls.
c. African American children tend to have lower self-esteem than Caucasian children.
d. An authoritative parenting style usually allows children to have especially high selfesteem.

Answer 13

13. D.

Actually, Asian children usually have lower self-esteem than their North American
counterparts, while African American children have higher self-esteem than their Caucasian
counterparts. Generally, boys have higher self-esteem than girls. An authoritative parenting
style is generally more accepting and less critical of children’s negative behavior: Parents
tend to build their children’s self-esteem because the focus is on building a sense of worth
and independence.

Question 14

14. Research on gay and lesbian parents indicates:

a. Their children are maladjusted.
b. They are as dedicated to and effective at child rearing as are heterosexual parents.
c. They are less dedicated to child rearing than heterosexual parents.
d. Their children are parented harshly and inconsistently.

Answer 14

14. B.

There is very little evidence to support that homosexual couples are poor parents.
When gays and lesbians become parents, they generally are just as effective and caring as
are heterosexual couples who become parents. The proportion of children who are
maladjusted is just about equal for homosexual and heterosexual parents. The research
shows that being gay or lesbian does not make a person a bad parent.

Question 15

15. In the Stanford prison study, what caused the guards to treat the prisoners harshly?

a. Their instructions from the researchers
b. The uncooperative behavior of the prisoners
c. The social context
d. The pressure the guards got from one another

Answer 15

15. C.

It was the social context that determined the behaviors of both the guards and the
prisoners. In the Stanford prison study, the setting was so realistic that the participants
became guards and prisoners. Their personal identities were masked by the context of
being in a prison as either a guard or a prisoner. Even the researcher, Dr. Zimbardo, who
took on the role of the prison warden, had to be reminded by one of his own graduate
students that this was a research study and not a prison.

Question 16

16. In the original studies, Milgram and his colleagues found that people were more likely to
    disobey under all of the following circumstances EXCEPT when __________.

a. the victim was in an adjoining room so the “teacher” heard every sound the victim made
b. two experimenters had conflicting demands about the continuation of the experiment
c. the person ordering them to continue was an ordinary man, apparently another volunteer
d. the subject worked with peers who refused to go further in the procedure

Answer 16

16. A.

You can consider this logically. If you could hear another person crying or in distress,
you would want to stop what you were doing in order to get the person to stop crying.
Although having conflicting information being given to you would probably get you to think
twice about it, you would not discontinue what you were doing. You would be confused.
Milgram’s team found that having someone who looked like an “authority” figure had an
influence, but the opposite was not found to lead to disobedience. Subjects continued
“teaching” in the “authority” and “nonauthority” situations. The study also found that peers
did not have as great an impact as might have been thought. The only factors that influenced
the participants were “authority” and hearing the cries of the learner. Consider this
research as a study about a person’s obedience to authority.

Question 17

17. In the Stanford prison simulation, male college students agreed to participate in an experiment to discover what would happen when they took on the roles of prisoners and
    guards. The researchers found that __________.

a. within a short time the prisoners became distressed and panicky, with accompanying
emotional and physical ailments
b. a small percentage of the guards became tyrannical and abusive in order to maintain the
social structure of the prison
c. the “tough but fair” guards urged the tyrannical guards to lighten up on the prisoners
d. all of the prisoners and the guards became harsh and abusive

Answer 17

17. A.

The most noticeable finding in the Stanford Prison Study was that the individuals who
played one role or another really took on their role. As prisoners, these individuals in a very
short time began to display behaviors such as distress and panic, which emulated the
behaviors a “real” prisoner displays. It did not matter how the guards treated them or acted
toward them, the fact that they became like “real” prisoners was the key finding. Individuals
who played guards took on behaviors of “real” guards; and individuals who played
prisoners took on behaviors of “real” prisoners.

Question 18

18. In what ways do stereotypes distort reality?

a. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist between groups.
b. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist within groups.
c. Stereotypes produce many differing perceptions by many people.
d. Stereotypes demonstrate that members of a group can be different.

Answer 18

18. A.

The key word here is “distort.” As you attempt to answer this question, you need to
think about how stereotypes distort the truth in negative ways. The most reasonable
answer is that stereotypes distort one’s ideas about how one group is so different from
another group. In reality, the differences between groups are not as extreme as stereotypes
make them out to be. People of differing cultures are not so different from people from
another culture. It has been found that people are people, and we are more alike than
dissimilar.

Question 19

19. Jennifer has to choose between spending the evening at home with her parents or
    spending the evening babysitting her younger sister. Jennifer does not like either of these
    choices. This situation describes an:

a. approach-avoidance conflict
b. avoidance-avoidance conflict
c. approach-approach conflict
d. avoidance vector

Answer 19

19. B.

The best way to look at this question is to look at the choices Jennifer is given and her
interpretation of these choices. Since Jennifer doesn’t like either of the choices, this would
be an avoidance-avoidance conflict. It is simply picking between the lesser of two evils. In an approach-approach conflict, a person likes both choices and has to pick the best of the
best. In an approach-avoidance conflict, an individual both likes and dislikes a choice.

Question 20

20. Connie tells each of her clients that the best way she can help them is to attempt to look at the world from the client’s point of view. This counselor is taking the _________ perspective.

a. etic
b. alloplastic
c. emic
d. autoplastic

Answer 20

20. C.

From a multicultural perspective, an emic view considers that an individual’s culture
matters. On the other hand, an etic view considers that people are people no matter where
they come from or what their cultural background is. You might think about this distinction
as emic = culture matters, and etic = total world. The distinction between autoplastic and
alloplastic is that the former believes in the efficacy of changes taking place within the
individual, while the latter believes in making changes in the environment. Think about it
this way: When you drive an automobile, you are the operator, you’re in charge.

Question 21

21. Working with individuals from different cultures requires that the counselor:

a. have sensitivity to the needs of the individuals
b. make a referral to another counselor
c. have knowledge about the different cultures
d. Both A and C.

Answer 21

21. D.

It is not necessary that a counselor refer a client from another culture to another
counselor. What is important is that the counselor demonstrates sensitivity to the needs of
that client and has some knowledge about other cultures. Another way to look at this is to
consider how you would treat someone who has an allergy to dairy products. You wouldn’t
give the person with allergies milk or ice cream. Instead, you would find out what the
person with allergies can have and make adjustments based on that. You treat the person
with allergies with sensitivity and get as much information about those allergies as possible.

Question 22

22. A high standard of counseling practice when working with diverse populations involves
    all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. treating all clients the same way
    b. acknowledging and confronting their own biases and prejudices
    c. adapting one’s knowledge and skills to meet the clients’ needs
    d. educating oneself as completely as possible regarding the clients’ cultural context

Answer 22

22. A.

The answer is pretty straightforward when you consider the other choices. The most
appropriate standard of care for a counselor who works with multicultural clients is to treat
each client individually. Special concern must be taken to ensure that the counselor is
cognizant of her/his own biases; that the counselor becomes familiar with other cultures;
and that the counselor can adapt her/his strategies and approaches to what is most
efficacious for a particular client.

Question 23

23. When working with individuals from different cultures, the effective counselor may not:

a. use language similar to the client’s
b. maintain good eye contact at all times
c. be cognizant of the context
d. honor religious beliefs

Answer 23

23. B.

This question could trip you up if you are not aware of the cultural differences
regarding eye contact. It is expected in our Western culture that we maintain good eye
contact at all times. In the Eastern traditions, however, eye contact is averted in some
situations. It is the counselor’s job to know those subtle differences and respect them.

Question 24

24. Murray is a bright student, but he procrastinates. He puts off writing term papers and
    gets incompletes, which eventually become Fs. Murray’s therapist helps him establish small,
    specific goals rather than vague, long-range goals. The therapist also asks Murray to keep a
    diary of how he is spending his time when he is avoiding his studies. The method used to
    help Murray deal with his problem is __________ therapy.

a. psychodynamic
b. behavioral
c. Gestalt
d. existential

Answer 24

24. B.

When techniques involve setting goals or keeping a diary, you can automatically
think that the therapy is behavioral. Most other therapies do not involve keeping track of
behaviors or setting specific goals. A psychodynamic approach would use techniques like
free association; gestalt approach would use techniques like psychodrama or exaggeration;
and the existential approach would use imagery or awareness activities.

Question 25

25. The social-learning perspective is to the psychodynamic perspective as __________ are to _____________. a. bodily events; social and cultural forces b. social and cultural forces; bodily events c. environmental conditions; unconscious dynamics d. unconscious dynamics; environmental conditions

Answer 25

25. C. Whenever psychoanalysis or psychodynamics is mentioned, you should automatically think of unconscious processes, as this is the hallmark of such an approach. Of course, the social-learning perspective deals with social aspects, but more intently it deals with environmental conditions. Bodily events or bodily functions would be more aligned with a biological approach of some sort. Remember that learning involves interacting with the environment.

Question 26

26. The process of saying freely whatever comes to mind in connection with dreams, memories, fantasies, or conflicts, in the course of a psychodynamic therapy session, is referred to as __________. a. systematic desensitization b. flooding c. free association d. exposure treatment

Answer 26

26. C. One way you can think of free association is as speaking freely about whatever comes to mind. Free association is a technique used by psychoanalysts and psychodynamic therapists. The other three techniques are all used exclusively by behaviorists.

Question 27

27. Which of the following is not a behavioral therapy? a. Flooding b. Skills training c. Exposure d. Unconditional positive regard

Answer 27

27. D. The only technique that is not behavioral is unconditional positive regard, which is client centered, or Rogerian. To help you think about this, imagine a Rogerian-oriented therapist reflecting back whatever a client says as a way to show empathy or unconditional regard. Behaviorists do not address feelings at all, so unconditional positive regard would not be something a behaviorist would even consider offering to a client directly.

Question 28

28. The primary goal of __________ therapy is to find meaning in life. a. rational-emotive b. reality c. existential d. transactional analysis

Answer 28

28. C. One way to think about the existential perspective is in terms of the human condition and what it means to be human; or in other words, what the meaning of life is. When it comes to rational-emotive therapy, think about the word “rational” and then attribute that to helping individuals move from irrational to rational thoughts. A good way to think about reality therapy is to focus on helping individuals formulate realistic plans for improvement. Transactional analysis involves looking at individuals’ “transactions” as they go through their life scripts (parent, adult, child).

Question 29

29. Which of the following pairings of problem and the most successful therapy for that problem is INCORRECT? a. Childhood behavior problems and existential therapy b. Specific phobias and systematic desensitization c. Depression and rational-emotive therapy d. Panic disorder and behavior therapy

Answer 29

29. A. The clue here should be child behavior problems. Right away you should be able to eliminate existential therapy from that because behavior problems are best handled using behavioral techniques, not finding meaning. All of the other pairs are appropriate. When it comes to dealing with specific phobias, the treatment of choice is usually systematic desensitization, which is a behavioral technique. Depression usually involves having a client look at his/her own irrational thoughts that contribute to the depression. A panic disorder is also usually addressed using some sort of behavioral techniques.

Question 30

30. The bond of confidence and mutual understanding established between therapist and client is called the _______. a. therapeutic window b. therapeutic alliance c. clubhouse model d. window of opportunity

Answer 30

30. B. The only realistic answer is the therapeutic alliance. The clubhouse model and window of opportunity have nothing to do with counseling. The therapeutic window normally describes a range of time or doses of medication at which some positive effects will be noticed.

Question 31

31. An apparent treatment success that is due to the patient's expectation or hopes rather than the treatment itself is called ____________. a. the placebo effect b. the nocebo effect c. the therapeutic window d. an empirically validated treatment

Answer 31

31. A. When improvement occurs just by the fact that someone is expecting improvement, that is the placebo effect. The opposite, the nocebo effect, occurs when an innocuous substance (a sugar pill) causes a person to get sick or to feel worse. The therapeutic window describes a range of time or doses of medication at which some positive effects will be noticed. An empirically validated treatment is one in which the treatment has been systematically tested and validated through some research and found to be successful.

Question 32

32. In _________ therapy, the therapist uses logical arguments to challenge a client's unrealistic beliefs or expectations. a. client-centered b. rational-emotive behavior c. existential d. aversive conditioning

Answer 32

32. B. In rational-emotive therapy, a client’s irrational beliefs are challenged. In existential therapy, the focus is on the choices a client makes in order to find what is meaningful. Personal freedom and awareness are emphasized. In aversive conditioning, a person is conditioned using something aversive to stay away from or refrain from engaging in some inappropriate behavior. And client-centered therapy focuses on self acceptance and self exploration.

Question 33

33. Systematic desensitization and "flooding" are ___________ therapies. a. behavioral b. psychodynamic c. reality d. Adlerian

Answer 33

33. A. Behavioral techniques include: operant and classical conditioning, systematic desensitization, implosion, flooding, time-out, stress inoculation, and thought stopping. Techniques of the psychodynamic approach include: free association, dream analysis, and interpretation of transferences. Adlerian therapy techniques include: emphasizing client’s strengths, examination of client’s memories, focus on interpretation, and “spitting in the client’s soup.” Reality therapy techniques include: role playing, role modeling, defining limits, and helping the client make a plan.

Question 34

34. Which of the following types of psychotherapists would be most likely to use free association and transference? a. Rational-emotive behavior therapists b. Behavior therapists c. Psychodynamic therapists d. Client-centered therapists

Answer 34

34. C. The focus of psychodynamic therapy is bringing to the surface that which is unconscious; the therapist uses free association and transferences to make this occur. Another way to look at this is to remember that psychodynamic therapy has roots in Freudian theory. Freud spent much of his time discussing early childhood experiences and defense mechanisms. Think of rational-emotive behavior therapy as looking at irrational thoughts and beliefs. Strictly behavioral therapy looks at observable behavior, and clientcentered therapy focuses on making clients feel good about themselves.

Question 35

35. _________ is a humanist approach that emphasizes the tragic aspects of life, the burden of responsibility, and the need to face the inevitability of death. a. Social interest b. Psychoanalysis c. Existentialism d. Self-actualization

Answer 35

35. C. Think about existential therapy as looking at the human condition in its totality from birth to death and everything in-between. “Social interest” is a term synonymous with Adlerian counseling, while self-actualization is a term used by Maslow when he talked about his hierarchy of needs. Psychoanalysis looks at bringing what is unconscious to the conscious level.

Question 36

36. According to Carl Rogers, __________ is love and support given to another with no strings attached. a. the condition of worth b. unconditional positive regard c. existentialism d. self-actualization

Answer 36

36. B. If you remember one thing about client-centered counseling, unconditional positive regard is it. Carl Rogers emphasized personal warmth, empathy, acceptance, and genuineness when he described his approach. He focused on giving support and providing total acceptance without limits. You can eliminate conditions of worth because that is in direct opposition to what Rogers believed. Existentialism and self-actualization are not associated with Carl Rogers in any way.

Question 37

37. Which of the following pairs of personality theorists and perspectives is INCORRECT? a. Abraham Maslow; existentialist b. Carl Rogers; humanist c. Carl Jung; genetic d. Sigmund Freud; psychodynamic

Answer 37

37. C. Abraham Maslow is associated with existentialism and Carl Rogers is considered a humanist. When you think of Freud, you should automatically think of psychoanalysis or psychodynamics. Jung is a Neo-Freudian.

Question 38

38. Which of the following terms is associated with transactional analysis? a. Free association b. Unconditional positive regard c. Irrational beliefs d. Complementary transactions

Answer 38

38. D. The key word here is “transactions.” Transactional analysis looks at the interactions or transactions that occur within an individual (parent, adult, child). Free association is paired with the psychoanalytic or psychodynamic approach. Unconditional positive regard is affiliated with the client-centered counseling of Carl Rogers. And irrational beliefs are associated with rational-emotive behavior therapy.

Question 39

39. Which one of the following does NOT belong with the other three? a. Horney b. Glasser c. Adler d. Jung

Answer 39

39. B. Glasser is associated with reality therapy, while the other three are Neo-Freudians. Karen Horney is associated with object relations, Jung with the collective unconscious and archetypes, and Adler with birth order and family constellations.

Question 40

40. The withdrawal of reinforcement until the conditioned response no longer occurs is known as: a. extinction b. elimination c. discrimination d. punishment

Answer 40

40. A. All of the terms are associated with operant or classical conditioning except elimination. When Person A wants to eliminate a previously conditioned response in Person B, Person A withholds any reinforcement when the response occurs so that Person B no longer elicits the behavior. This is known as extinction. Discrimination occurs in classical and operant conditioning as well. Under this condition, a person learns to respond to only specific stimuli, while not responding to other similar stimuli. The person learns to distinguish between similar stimuli. “Punishment” is also a term associated with operant conditioning. It is a behavior modification technique that is used to decrease the probability that a particular behavior will occur again. Punishment can be either the presentation of an aversive stimulus or the taking away of a positive stimulus.

Question 41

41. Freud is to ego, id, and superego as ___________ is to parent, adult, and child. a. Jung b. Adler c. Perls d. Berne

Answer 41

41. D. If you recognize “parent, adult, child,” you would know that this set of terms is associated with transactional analysis, associated primarily with Eric Berne (1910–1970). Fritz Perls is associated with rational-emotive behavior therapy. Carl Jung is associated with analytic psychology, and Adler is associated with individual psychology.

Question 42

42. Developed by Luft and Ingham, ______________ asserts that there are four parts to the personality: the public self, the blind self, the private self, and the unknown self. a. neurolinguistic programming b. the concept of the collective unconscious c. the concept of the family constellation d. the concept of the Johari window

Answer 42

42. D. Questions about the Johari window show up fairly often on this exam. It got its name from the two individuals who developed the concept—Joe Luft and Harry Ingham. They believed that clients come into counseling with all sorts of information, some of it known to the client and others, some unknown to the client but known by others, some known only by the client, and some unknown by everyone. Luft and Ingham believed that it is important to uncover that which is unknown. The collective unconscious is associated with Carl Jung. Neurolinguistic programming, or NLP, is a system of treatment that integrates psychology, linguistics, and communications. It was created by Richard Bandler and John Grinder. The family constellation is part of Adlerian counseling.

Question 43

43. In which is the focus on the meaning of life and the relevance of the individual experience? a. Existential counseling b. Adlerian counseling c. Gestalt therapy d. Reality therapy

Answer 43

43. A. Any time you think about existentialism, you should think about philosophical questions such as, “What is the meaning of life?” and “Is there life in the hereafter?” The focus of Adlerian counseling is on developing and maintaining social interests. The focus of Gestalt therapy is congruence and the here and now. Reality therapy is focused on becoming psychologically well by taking responsibility for oneself and formulating realistic plans.

Question 44

44. Popular techniques of this approach are role playing, “empty chair,” and “making the rounds. ” a. Client-centered b. Psychoanalysis c. Gestalt d. Adlerian

Answer 44

44. C. It will be important for you to know some of the key strategies and techniques that the various therapies utilize. Gestalt therapy utilizes the empty-chair technique as well as psychodrama. Free association and dream analysis are popular techniques used by psychoanalysis. Adlerian counseling utilizes examination of clients’ memories, catching oneself, and spitting in the client’s soup. Client-centered counselors utilize active/passive listening, open-ended questions, positive regard, and reflection of feelings.

Question 45

45. Popular techniques of this approach are examination of client’s memories, “spitting in the client’s soup,” and “catching oneself.” a. Adlerian b. Psychoanalysis c. Rational-emotive therapy d. Reality therapy

Answer 45

45. A. Adlerian counselors utilize examination of clients’ memories, catching oneself, and spitting in the client’s soup. Free association, analysis of transferences, and dream analysis are popular techniques used by psychoanalysis. Popular techniques used by reality therapy are role modeling, defining limits, and feedback. Counselors who use rational-emotive therapy often use homework assignments, bibliotherapy, and shame attacks.

Question 46

46. In this therapeutic approach, the counselor’s emphasis is on being authentic while concentrating on verbal and nonverbal messages. a. Existential counseling b. Behavioral counseling c. Gestalt therapy d. Rational-emotive therapy

Answer 46

46. C. In existential counseling, the role of the counselor is to be authentic and understanding of the client while stressing the personal relationship and sharing experiences. The role of the behavioral counselor is to assist the client in clarifying goals and modifying behaviors while teaching, directing, and advising. The rational-emotive therapist teaches, confronts, and corrects the client’s irrational beliefs and ineffective selftalk. The role of the Gestalt therapist is to be in the present while helping the client resolve unfinished business and be congruent in verbal and nonverbal messages.

Question 47

47. Paradoxical intention, implosive therapy, and thought stopping are all techniques used by _____________ counselors. a. Psychoanalytic b. Behavioral c. TA d. Reality therapy

Answer 47

47. A. When you think about behavioral techniques, remember to include techniques employed in classical and operant conditioning (reinforcement, shaping, extinction) as well as systematic desensitization, implosion, flooding, time-out, and thought stopping. In psychoanalysis, the counselor relies on free association, dream analysis, analysis of transferences, and interpretation to advance therapy progress. A counselor who uses TA (transactional analysis) uses interrogation, confrontation, illustration, and concentration on early memories to assist clients. The reality therapist uses humor, confrontation, role modeling, role playing, and defining limits.

Question 48

48. Stress inoculation is a concept introduced by: a. John Krumboltz b. Joseph Wolpe c. Albert Bandura d. Donald Meichenbaum

Answer 48

48. D. All four of these men are associated with behavioral counseling in some way, but Donald Meichenbaum developed the behavioral technique called stress inoculation training. The purpose is to help the client deal with future stress. The three-step process involves having the client monitor the impact of the inner dialogue on behavior when under stress, rehearsing new self-talk, and implementing new self-talk during the stressful situation. Joseph Wolpe developed systematic desensitization, which is a step-by-step process used to address phobias. John Krumboltz is more known in the field of career counseling but has written books on behavior modification. Albert Bandura is usually associated with social learning but more specifically with learning through observation.

Question 49

49. According to Freud, _____________________ is the most important defense mechanism. An example of this defense mechanism is when a woman who has been physically abused by her spouse doesn’t remember ever being hurt by him. a. regression b. repression c. reaction formation d. denial

Answer 49

49. B. Freud described some of the unconscious processes that individuals use to protect themselves from conflicts and anxiety. These unconscious processes are called defense mechanisms, with the most important being repression. Repression occurs when a threatening memory, idea, or emotion is blocked from consciousness. Regression is a defense mechanism that occurs when a person reverts to a previous phase of psychological development. Denial occurs when a person refuses to admit that something unpleasant is happening. Finally, reaction formation occurs when an individual transforms his/her unconscious anxiety into its opposite outwardly.

Question 50

50. A dog that has been trained to stop and stand at attention when she hears a duck call does not stop and stand at attention when she hears a goose call. This is an example of: a. stimulus generalization b. higher-order conditioning c. conditioned response d. stimulus discrimination

Answer 50

50. D. Stimulus generalization occurs when, after conditioning, the subject responds almost identically to a stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus. Higher-order conditioning is a procedure by which a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through the association with an already established conditioned stimulus. A conditioned response is a response that is elicited by a conditioned stimulus. It occurs after the conditioned stimulus is associated with an unconditioned stimulus. Stimulus discrimination occurs when a stimulus that resembles a conditioned stimulus fails to evoke the conditioned response.

Question 51

51. The disadvantage of closed-ended questions is that the client usually fails to: a. disclose personal information b. come up with an answer to the questions c. continue to dialogue with the counselor d. Both A and C.

Answer 51

51. D. If you think about this logically, you can see how A and C are correct answers. Closed ended questions are those that can be answered with one- or two-word responses (e.g., yes or no). A client who is asked a closed-ended question answers the question or says yes or no and generally does not add any other information. When an open-ended question is asked, the client has to give more information in order to answer the question completely. The conversation continues and personal information is offered more freely.

Question 52

52. Rational-emotive behavior therapy follows a five-step system using ABCDE, where D stands for: a. the affect b. the effect c. the external event d. disputing the irrational belief

Answer 52

52. D. The ABCDE system goes as follows: A is the external event; B is the belief about the event; C is the accompanying feeling; D is the disputing of the irrational belief that is causing the accompanying feeling; and E is the change that is made in the self-talk as a result of the therapy process.

Question 53

53. The goals of this type of therapy include gaining knowledge about the self and recognizing and integrating the self. a. Adlerian b. Jungian c. Existential d. Freudian

Answer 53

53. B. Jungian therapists believe in a collective unconscious. Another key concept of Jungian therapy is the archetype. The goal of Jungian therapy is to transform the self by gaining knowledge about the self (collective unconscious, archetypes, personal unconscious) and then recognizing and integrating all aspects of the self (archetypes, etc.).

Question 54

54. In order to elicit a conditioned response, the neutral stimulus that will become the conditioned stimulus must _________________ the unconditioned stimulus. a. follow b. precede c. occur at the same time as d. randomly occur sometime near

Answer 54

54. B. If you think about it logically, a neutral stimulus remains a neutral stimulus unless it can be associated with something that already elicits some sort of response. If a stimulus that already elicits a response is presented first, the response has already occurred. The neutral stimulus coming after the unconditioned stimulus (US) does nothing because the response has already occurred. Therefore, the neutral stimulus must be presented before the US so that it gets associated with the US and can then evoke a response similar to the unconditioned response. Although simultaneous occurrence with the US would evoke a conditioned response, in everyday life two things do not get presented at the exact same time very often. Presenting a neutral stimulus at random will not allow for any association to be made between it and the US.

Question 55

55. In contrast to feeling sorry for the client, the counselor needs to demonstrate ___________ toward the client. a. empathy b. sympathy c. emotionality d. stability

Answer 55

55. A. A counselor needs to be able to understand the client’s predicament, not feel sorry for the client. Understanding the client’s predicament is called empathy. Feeling sorry for someone’s predicament is sympathy and does nothing to empower the client. Although providing stability in the session, it is not what helps the client to work through the predicament. A counselor needs to keep his/her own emotions in check when working with a client. Emotionality on the part of the counselor usually serves to confuse the client or to add additional burden onto the client.

Question 56

56. In order to facilitate growth in a client, the counselor uses all of the following strategies EXCEPT: a. confrontation b. reflection c. abandonment d. interpretation

Answer 56

56. C. Confrontation is often used by counselors to point out discrepancies between a client’s thoughts/beliefs and the behavior. Making the client aware of these discrepancies is a necessary skill for a counselor. When a counselor uses interpretation, she is pointing out the real meaning of a client’s behavior. Reflection is another skill that a counselor uses to help clients. When a counselor reflects something back to a client, he is paraphrasing what the client said in order to emphasize the importance of the feelings associated with the statement and to project empathy. It is considered unethical to abandon a client.

Question 57

57. A(n) _____________ schedule of reinforcement is the most difficult to extinguish. a. intermittent b. consistent c. systematic d. ratio

Answer 57

57. A. If a person uses a slot machine, he gets some of his money back occasionally, but he still gets reinforced for using the slot machine. If you know that you will get money from a slot machine after every tenth try, the thrill is gone. It is still reinforcing, but boredom sets in. The unpredictability of an intermittent schedule of reinforcement makes it the hardest to extinguish because you don’t know if you will get reinforced the next time or in five minutes or after twenty tries. All the other schedules of reinforcement are predictable.

Question 58

58. The primary distinction between reinforcement and punishment is that reinforcement ___________ the likelihood of the behavior to occur again, while punishment _________________ the likelihood of the behavior to occur again. a. increases; increases b. decreases; increases c. increases; decreases d. decreases; decreases

Answer 58

58. C. All you need to remember here is that reinforcement increases the likelihood of a behavior occurring again, and punishment decreases the likelihood of the behavior occurring again. Reinforcements are positive and you want them, so you perform behaviors to get them. Punishments are negative and you do not want them, so you avoid performing certain behaviors so you don’t get punished.

Question 59

59. Negative reinforcement _______________ the behavior by ________________ a reinforcer; positive reinforcement ______________ the behavior by ____________ a reinforcer. a. increases, taking away; increases, adding b. increases, adding; increases, taking away c. decreases, adding; increases, adding d. decreases, taking away; increases, taking away

Answer 59

59. A. Don’t confuse negative reinforcement with punishment. Negative reinforcement involves the taking away of something you don’t like so that you get more of what you like. Positive reinforcement involves receiving something you like so that you get more of what you like. A child does his homework so that his mom will stop nagging him about doing it (increases by taking away a reinforcer). A child gets to watch a few extra minutes of a cartoon because he did his homework (increases by adding a reinforcer). The parent wants the child to do his homework.

Question 60

60. There are long silences, several members of the group are acting out, and it seems like all the group members are expressing frustrations with both the structure of the group and the way the group leader is functioning. Most likely this group is in the ___________ state of the group process. a. working b. initial c. transition d. closing

Answer 60

60. C. There are five stages in the group process: forming, initial, transition, working, and closing. In the forming stage, the group leader recruits, screens, and orients potential group members. The initial stage involves tasks such as setting the ground rules, introducing members, and discussing confidentiality. During the working stage, members work on specific issues while sharing personal information. At the closing stage, the leader begins the termination process.

Question 61

61. From this perspective the group goals are to enable members to pay close attention to their here-and-now experiences so they can recognize and integrate disowned aspects of themselves. a. Gestalt b. Psychodynamic c. Reality d. Existential

Answer 61

61. A. The goal of a psychodynamic-oriented group is to provide a climate to help members re-experience early family relationships. The goals of a reality-oriented group are to guide members toward learning realistic and responsible behavior and to develop identities that focus on success. The goals of an existential-oriented group are to provide conditions that maximize self-awareness and to remove obstacles to personal growth.

Question 62

62. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group counseling? a. Cost-effectiveness b. Focus on individual needs c. Opportunities for feedback d. Structured practice

Answer 62

62. B. There are many advantages of group counseling, from cost-effectiveness to the ability to practice skills in a structured setting. There is a great deal of social support as well. Although members have their own individual needs and goals, the purpose of group counseling is for members to become better at interpersonal skills. Group counseling provides feedback and practice for all group members.

Question 63

63. As a leader of a group, Barb is very structured. She sets and directs all of the group’s goals and activities and hardly ever asks the participants for input. Most likely, Barb has a(n) ________ style of leadership. a. laissez-faire b. democratic c. authoritative d. authoritarian

Answer 63

63. D. A laissez-faire leadership style could be considered a “hands-off” style in that there is no participation from the leader. The group participants make all the decisions and set their own goals and activities. A democratic leader encourages members to make their own decisions, and all members discuss the goals and activities. There is no authoritative leadership style as it applies to group counseling.

Question 64

64. What is likely to happen in a group when the leader is authoritarian? a. Members become dependent on the leader. b. Members become more motivated to achieve goals. c. Members lose focus on goals. d. Members have high morale.

Answer 64

64. A. Typically, when there is an authoritarian leader, group members become very dependent on the leader. They usually are unmotivated and show greater hostility toward the leader. Their morale is usually low. In a group with a laissez-faire leader, the members continue aimlessly and lack direction. They have problems staying focused on their goals. On the other hand, a democratic leader inspires group participation, commitment, morale, and motivation.

Question 65

65. All of the following are characteristics of an open group EXCEPT: a. Members can join and leave at any time. b. The number of sessions is undetermined. c. There is good cohesion. d. Group meetings are usually held in a hospital setting.

Answer 65

65. C. Because group members can come and go at will, there is a chance that at each session there are different people. This characteristic of an open group lessens the cohesion of a group. At every session, someone new may join, and group participants have to get to know someone new. In order for a group to be cohesive, a greater amount of familiarity among group members is needed, as then they are more willing to open up and share with others. In an open group, it is also harder to nurture members and to sustain continuity compared with a closed group. A closed group has greater cohesiveness, stability, and predictability.

Question 66

66. In contrast to a homogeneous group, a heterogeneous group: a. is more cohesive and supportive b. has members with greater awareness of themselves and others c. has less conflict among participants d. focuses on one specific problem

Answer 66

66. B. A heterogeneous group is usually more diverse than a homogeneous group. There may be a mixture of ages and genders. Another characteristic of heterogeneous groups is that there is a wide variety of problems as the focus of the group sessions. Homogeneous groups, on the other hand, are generally specific to gender and problem. The participants usually have common characteristics, which leads to strong bonds being formed among group members. Usually there is less conflict and greater attendance in homogeneous groups.

Question 67

67. All of the following are assumptions of groups EXCEPT: a. The leader is a member of the group. b. Trust is a must. c. Much of the growth in groups occurs through observations, modeling, and social learning. d. There are often discrepancies among participants’ expectations, hopes, and desires.

Answer 67

67. A. The leader is NOT a member of the group but is a trained expert. It is assumed that in a group counseling setting, trust is at the forefront. Without trust, no growth or exploration would take place. Trust also allows participants to share personal information with other members of the group. Participants each enter the group with their own expectations, desires, needs, and hopes. These diverse expectations help members of the group discover things in themselves that would go unnoticed in other situations. Finally, growth occurs in groups through observations, identification with others, modeling, imitation, and other social skill learning processes.

Question 68

68. During the working stage of the group, the leader’s role is to: a. establish a trusting climate b. provide a role model c. deal with feelings d. support risks

Answer 68

68. D. The leader serves as a role model during the transition stage of the group, as well as establishing a trusting climate for the group, providing support, and addressing resistances and anxiety. During the termination stage, the leader’s role is to deal with feelings, reinforce changes, and help members make plans. During the orientation stage, the leader’s role is to help identify goals and structures and begin the modeling process. The leader in the working stage provides reinforcement, links themes, supports risks, and encourages translating insight into action.

Question 69

69. The emphasis for this type of group is on prevention and development of healthy behaviors. a. Secondary b. Tertiary c. Primary d. Homogeneous

Answer 69

69. C. There are three levels of groups—primary, secondary, and tertiary. Each level has a different focus or emphasis. The emphasis of a primary group is on preventing problems from occurring and developing healthy behaviors. The emphasis of a secondary group is preventative and remedial—its focus may be on the reduction of symptoms, lessening the severity of problems, and/or helping with overall adjustment to life stressors. The tertiary group can be thought of more as a “therapy” group in that its focus is on getting members of the group back to a more functional level of living. Tertiary groups may involve aspects of personality change and/or rehabilitation. One way to think about the three levels is in terms of severity—primary usually is very mild; secondary is mild to moderate; and tertiary is moderate to severe.

Question 70

70. There is a distinction between group content and group process. An example of group process would be: a. Sarah monopolizes the group by continuously talking and doesn’t allow other participants to contribute to the discussion. b. Joe says, “I think today’s topic should be what to do on a first date.” c. Randy rolls his eyes every time Karen says something. d. both A and C.

Answer 70

70. D. The distinction between group content and group process hinges on behavior. Group content involves the topics of discussion or the skills to be addressed. Group process involves looking beyond someone’s words and instead observing the person’s behavior. It’s not what is said; it’s how it is said. In the examples, Joe brought up a topic to be discussed (content). Randy reacted not so much to what Karen said, but rather to Karen herself. The act of rolling his eyes is a process (behavior pattern that he perpetuates). Sarah’s constant monopolizing is her pattern of responding. It wasn’t that she spoke often, it was that she dominated the discussion and didn’t allow others to join in.

Question 71

71. Greg seems to make light of everything that goes on in the group. If someone is late, for example, he makes a humorous remark about calling for a search party. Greg would be described as the __________ of the group. a. joker b. dominator c. placater d. scapegoat

Answer 71

71. A. Group participants tend to take on different roles within the group, usually based upon how the individual interacts with others outside of the group. There are a number of different roles. Scapegoats generally take the blame for things that go wrong in the group. They allow others to point the finger at them without resistance. Placaters are the individuals in the group who try to appease everyone. They usually are uncomfortable with any conflict and are easily drawn to making concessions to keep peace in the group. Dominators or monopolizers are those who seem to control the group’s discussions. They steer the discussion in the direction they want it to go. They seldom allow others to talk. Jokers, on the other hand, are those who make light of things, usually as a defense. They typically lack confidence and use humor as a way to detract or distract others from conflictual situations.

Question 72

72. A counselor is conducting the initial screening of individuals who may be included in a bereavement group. An appropriate candidate for the group would be one who: a. has a severe mental illness b. lacks cognitive and thinking abilities c. is free from the use of alcohol or other drugs d. has a history of violence or uncontrolled anger

Answer 72

72. C. Individuals who have been diagnosed with severe mental illness, have histories of being violent or explosive, have limited cognitive or thinking abilities, are unable to communicate effectively, or use alcohol or other recreational drugs are not good candidates for inclusion in a group. It is important for all group members to feel safe, and having an individual who is prone to violence in the group may compromise safety. It is also important that all group members effectively communicate, process, and understand interpersonal relationships at a functional level. Therefore, individuals with limited capacities for any of these skills would not be good candidates for inclusion in a group. The process of a group is to learn and practice more appropriate social interaction skills. Someone who is incapable of understanding social interaction skills would not be a good candidate for the group.

Question 73

73. A group has co-leaders. That is, there are two trained counselors who are facilitating the group together. All of the following are advantages of co-leadership groups EXCEPT: a. More support and attention are provided to group participants. b. There is less time spent observing participants. c. Effective modeling of appropriate behavior is provided to the participants. d. Participants often view co-leaders as parents.

Answer 73

73. B. Generally, co-leaders use a team approach. Each leader observes and processes what goes on in the group and provides feedback to participants. One leader usually cannot catch everything that goes on in a group. Leaders have to be aware of content, process, flow, and progress toward goals. Co-led groups give participants opportunities to observe how conflicts are handled between or among the leaders. The participants see the effectiveness of cooperation and harmony. Oftentimes, co-leaders are viewed as parental figures, and thus participants can learn more adaptive behaviors from well-functioning “parents.”

Question 74

74. The group leader points out defenses, resistances, and transferences as they occur in this type of group. a. Client-centered group b. Psychoanalytic group c. Encounter group d. Transactional analysis group

Answer 74

74. B. In a client-centered group, the leader points out feelings, personal meanings, and individual attitudes. The function of this type of group is to increase self-understanding and altering of self-concepts. In a transactional analysis group, the leader focuses on life scripts and the dynamic ego states of parent, adult, and child and how these dynamic ego states impact others. In an encounter group, the leader focuses on the development of the individual, emotional experiences, and awareness of the behavior of others. A leader of a psychoanalytic group attempts to re-create, analyze, and interpret the participants’ defenses, resistances, and transferences.

Question 75

75. Premature termination of participation in a group usually occurs when an individual is: a. not very motivated b. highly intelligent c. open to experiences d. empathetic

Answer 75

75. A. Research shows that individuals who prematurely leave a group are less intelligent, poorly motivated, and high in denial. They have difficulties trusting others. Individuals who continue through the course of group counseling are open to new experiences, trusting, willing to listen to others, and empathetic. Trust is the most important characteristic for individuals who participate in group counseling. If you think about it, if a person is trusting, he will be more willing to open up to others, share experiences, benefit from feedback, and empathize with others. People with more limited intelligence may not be able to maneuver social situations at an appropriate level of sophistication that is necessary for group success.

Question 76

76. Career-oriented, successful ethnic minority women: a. face racial but not gender discrimination b. rarely receive support from other women c. tend to have mothers who had low expectations for them d. often display unusually high self-efficacy

Answer 76

76. D. The only answer that makes any sense is an emphasis on self-efficacy. All of the other answers are false. If you think through this, you should have been able to choose the correct answer. If these women had mothers who had low expectations for them or did not receive much support from other women, then these women would not be successful. These women face both racial and gender discrimination.

Question 77

77. The group that is most affected by the “glass ceiling phenomenon” consists of: a. women who are in careers most often populated by men b. men in middle management c. blue-collar workers d. stay-at-home mothers

Answer 77

77. A. The “glass ceiling phenomenon” refers to situations in which individuals are denied career advancement due to discrimination. This discrimination could be by gender, race, or physical infirmity, such as deafness. So in this question, answer B would be wrong because it refers to men. Stay-at-home mothers are not in the workforce, so they are not affected by this phenomenon, and blue-collar workers do not seek career advancement.

Question 78

78. Which group of students would be least likely to seek out career counseling? a. Students in high school or middle school b. None c. Students entering college d. Students who were taking college prep courses in high school

Answer 78

78. B. All students seek out career counseling or guidance of some sort, especially those in middle and high school.

Question 79

79. In dual-career families, the woman typically: a. starts her family before entering the workforce b. decides not to have children c. has an established career before having children d. None of the above

Answer 79

79. C. Dual-career families generally are those in which both the man and the woman have some sort of professional career. They usually are established in their careers before they start a family. Generally, these couples marry later than those who go directly into the workforce after high school. The key vocabulary to look at here is “career,” rather than “job.” Having a career is generally more aligned with continuing education after high school.

Question 80

80. Compared with high school students who enter the workforce right after graduation, students who go to college can expect to: a. be hired at lower wages b. earn about $10,000 more per year c. work longer hours d. be hired to fill more unskilled positions

Answer 80

80. B. This question is fairly easy to reason through. Individuals who go right into the workforce after high school graduation routinely earn substantially less than those individuals who go to college. Individuals who go to college would not be hired for unskilled positions, as they are overqualified. It would be hard to say whether or not the collegeeducated individuals would work longer hours than the non-college-educated individuals.

Question 81

81. Leisure activities are those activities that a professional career counselor: a. may also refer to as avocations b. never discusses with clients c. describes as relaxing and done at work d. describes as involving going on vacations

Answer 81

81. A. The professional career counselor refers to leisure activities as those activities or hobbies with which a person is involved outside of work. These activities are referred to as avocations. A career counselor would discuss these activities with clients in order to better understand them.

Question 82

82. Dual-career families engage in leisure time: a. more often than families with one wage earner b. that is more costly than that of families with one wage earner c. less often than families with one wage earner d. None of the above

Answer 82

82. C. Suffice to say, dual-career families tend to have less free time due to work and family responsibilities. They may or may not be involved in expensive leisure activities which are similar to those of other families. Because no one is at home to take care of household duties during the day, these activities must be done after work, thus, dual-career families have less time to spend on leisure activities.

Question 83

83. The role of the professional career counselor involves all of the following EXCEPT: a. facilitating self-awareness b. teaching decision-making skills c. teaching employability skills d. None of the above

Answer 83

83. D. Career counselors are involved in all of these activities. They help clients become better aware of themselves, teach decision-making skills, and teach employability skills.

Question 84

84. Career choices as expressions of one’s personality are to ______________ as career choices as influenced by genetic endowment, environmental factors, and previous learning experiences are to _________________. a. Krumboltz; Holland b. Holland; Krumboltz c. Roe; Krumboltz d. Holland; Roe

Answer 84

84. B. Krumboltz is a behaviorist and, therefore, is interested not only in genetic endowment but in environmental factors and learning experiences. Holland developed the SDS, which involves looking at an individual’s personality characteristics and matching them to clusters of job skills or interests. Therefore, Holland believes that career choices are expressions of one’s personality. Roe’s theory is developmental and includes not only aspects of one’s personality, but genetics, parent–child relationships, and one’s early experiences.

Question 85

85. One of the main premises of ____________ theory is that individuals choose occupations that will permit them to use their competencies. a. Caplow’s b. Super’s c. Roe’s d. Hoppock’s

Answer 85

85. B. Remember that Roe’s theory has a developmental flavor to it, so her theory does not discuss personal competencies. Caplow’s theory ascribes to birth order and genetics as strongly influencing career choices. Hoppock’s theory defines career choice as being influenced by one’s needs. Therefore, Super is the only answer that fits the question. His theory ascribes to the notion that one’s self-concept is ultimately important in career choices. He believed that people choose a career based on their competencies—what they are good at.

Question 86

86. Super describes four stages of career development, beginning in adolescence with the _________ stage, in which a person fantasizes and role-plays in order to clarify the emerging self-concept. In the ____________ stage the self-concept adjusts to fit the stabilized career choice and the person tries out various options. a. maintenance; establishment b. establishment; maintenance c. establishment; exploratory d. exploratory; establishment

Answer 86

86. D. If you reason based on ages, you may have been able to figure this one out. What do adolescents do? They explore career options, fantasize about various careers, and role-play as a means to narrow down their choices. Thus, they explore. In the establishment stage, individuals try out options and establish their careers. The maintenance stage is where the career path has already been established and now is being maintained.

Question 87

87. All of the following are assumptions of John Holland’s theory of career choice EXCEPT: a. Individuals can be categorized into six different personality types. b. People search for work environments in which their personality types can be expressed without much interference. c. Environment has very little to do with career choice. d. The behavior of an individual is determined by the interaction between the environment and the person’s unique personality characteristics.

Answer 87

87. C. John Holland based the SDS on the six different categories of personality types. He believed that individuals choose careers based on personality types and environmental influences. An individual’s behavior is determined by the interaction between environment and personality.

Question 88

88. A career counselor who adheres to Holland’s theory of career choice may have his clients take the ______________ to help determine personality types. a. MMPI b. KOIS c. SDS d. SCII

Answer 88

88. C. You need to be familiar with these different assessments. The MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory) is usually used by clinical psychologists to clarify diagnoses of mental disorders. The KOIS is the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey, which looks at matching career choices with interests, not personality characteristics. The SDS (Self-Directed Search) is the instrument developed by John Holland that looks specifically at six different categories of personality characteristics that may relate to certain career choices. The SCII (Strong Interest Inventory) is similar to the KOIS, as it looks at matching personal interests with possible career choices.

Question 89

89. Which of the following are postulates of Hoppock’s theory? a. Everyone has basic needs, and a person’s reaction to these needs influences occupational choice. b. People tend to move toward careers that serve their needs. c. Self-awareness and understanding are the bases upon which a person chooses an occupation. d. All of the above

Answer 89

89. D. Hoppock’s theory of career choice suggests that people choose careers that meet some personal needs. As part of this theory, Hoppock postulates that everyone has personal needs and that an individual reacts to these needs when making career choices. Making career choices involves self-awareness and understanding.

Question 90

90. Which pair seems to go together? a. Roe and Holland b. Holland and Krumboltz c. Roe and Hoppock d. Roe and Krumboltz

Answer 90

90. C. Hoppock and Roe are classified as developmentalists when it comes to career choices. They believe that early development and early experiences have a large impact on career choice. Krumboltz is a behaviorist and does not ascribe to early development an influence on career choice. Holland believes that environment interacts with personality characteristics when one chooses a career. Krumboltz and Holland believe that the environment plays a role in career choice, but Krumboltz looks at learning, not personality.

Question 91

91. According to Roe, career choice is influenced by: a. genetics b. parent–child interactions c. unconscious motivators d. all of the above

Answer 91

91. D. Roe has a psychoanalytic perspective on career choice, so she believes that genetics, parent–child relationships, and unconscious motives interact. If you think about psychoanalytic theories in general, you would know that all of the aforementioned dynamics influence an individual.

Question 92

92. Gender bias would be aroused by which of the following? a. A man who is studying to be a nurse b. A woman who is studying to be a nurse c. A woman who drives a semi truck d. Both A and C.

Answer 92

92. D. Gender bias goes both ways. Men in female-dominated careers and women in maledominated careers can experience discrimination. So, a man seeking to be a nurse (a femaledominated career) and a woman seeking to be a semi-trailer truck driver (a maledominated career) might experience discrimination on the job.

Question 93

93. You are a career counselor who is interested in keeping up with trends in the job market so that you can better assist your clients. One of the best ways to keep up with the trends in the job market is to consult the: a. OOH b. DOT c. Wall Street Journal d. SOC

Answer 93

93. A. Here again, you need to know what these are. The OOH is the Occupational Outlook Handbook. This handbook provides information about trends in occupations, as well as statistics about salaries and wages. The DOT is not the Department of Transportation; it is the Dictionary of Occupational Titles and is obsolete. It has been replaced by the Occupational Information Network (O*NET). Basically, the DOT listed nine occupational categories such as professional, technical, managerial, clerical, and sales careers. The Wall Street Journal is a reliable source for information about the financial and business world but is not a source for looking at trends in occupations. The SOC is the Standard Occupational Classification Manual, which classifies types of activities associated with different careers. It does not provide information about trends in occupations.

Question 94

94. A 42-year-old woman returns to her career as an HR manager after her children start to attend school all day. This is an example of: a. a reentry woman b. a displaced homemaker c. gender bias d. wage discrimination

Answer 94

94. A. You might think that this example relates to a displaced homemaker, but the key word here is “returns.” A displaced homemaker never worked outside of the home. A reentry woman is one who had worked, decided to be a stay-at-home mother until her children were old enough to be in school all day, and then returned to work in her chosen profession. Gender bias relates to experiencing discrimination for being in a job that is dominated by the opposite sex. Wage discrimination relates to earning less than someone else, yet doing the same job.

Question 95

95. A receptionist at a dental office is not allowed to sing or hum at the office, but when she gets home, she turns on the radio and sings her favorite songs as loudly as she can. This is an example of: a. the contrast effect b. spillover c. the compensatory effect d. the recency effect

Answer 95

95. C. You can think of the compensatory effect as being a reaction to being restricted from doing something. You want to do the activity, but you can’t, so when you can, you really do it up right. You compensate for it. In this example, the woman isn’t allowed to hum or sing at the office, but when she is away from work, she hums and sings to her heart’s content. The contrast effect involves two individuals being interviewed for the same position. One qualified candidate is viewed in a less favorable light after a very well qualified candidate is interviewed first. Spillover occurs when an individual engages in activities at home that are similar to those involved in his job. The recency effect takes place when a supervisor judges an employee’s performance on the employee’s most recent performance, with no consideration for performance at other times.

Question 96

96. The 20th percentile represents: a. the score at or below which 80% of the scores in the distribution fall b. that the examinee correctly answered 80% of the questions on the test c. the score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall d. that the examinee correctly answered 20% of the questions on the test

Answer 96

96. C. The best way to think about percentiles is to think of 100 people standing in a row. Each person represents one percentile from the 1st percentile to the 100th percentile. So in this case, the 20th percentile represents the twentieth person in the “distribution.” So, it is the place where the twentieth person stands in the line. If the answer were A, then it would be the place in the line where the eightieth person would stand. In contrast, a percentage score is what is described by answer B or D. These two answers represent the percent of the questions the person got correct on a test. Most of us are familiar with percentages, as most teachers report percentages to you.

Question 97

97. A test is considered “standardized” if it includes: a. clearly specified procedures for administration b. clearly specified procedures for scoring c. normative data d. all of the above

Answer 97

97. D. A standardized test must have standard procedures for administering, scoring, and interpreting the test. There must also be a set of norms to which a particular score is compared. Not all tests are standardized. For example, unless it is a test like the NCE or GRE, it is probably a test that was developed by a teacher or company. Tests may be administered the same way to everyone and scored the same, but if there are no norms to which to compare an examinee, it is not considered a standardized test.

Question 98

98. Which of the following sources of information about tests would probably provide the best information about sources and trends in testing and assessment? a. Test critiques b. Journal articles c. Test manuals d. All of the above

Answer 98

98. D. If you want to investigate a particular test, best practice would be to read test critiques in books like Tests in Print or Buros Mental Measurements, read journal articles about that particular test, and test manuals. You wouldn’t base a big decision on one source of information, nor would you do that when investigating a test.

Question 99

99. Which of the following best describes norms? a. They give meaning to a behavior sample. b. They provide a parallel form for comparison. c. They indicate whether a test is reliable. d. They tell whether a distribution of scores is normally distributed.

Answer 99

99. A. The main purpose of norms is to provide meaning to test scores. A score of 100 means nothing if you don’t know what receiving a score of 100 means. Is it an IQ score, where 100 is exactly average? Is it the score on the NCE (a failing score)? Is it a bowling score? Norms provide a basis for comparison of scores against each other and against the standard. If you know the standard, you can make comparisons. Answer B and C refer to concepts in reliability. Knowing if a distribution is normal gives the test user information, but knowing that a distribution is normal does not give you information about the norms themselves.

Question 100

100. Which of the following best describes a “good” test? a. It is reliable. b. It has norms. c. It is valid. d. All of the above

Answer 100

100. D. When you are looking for a test, you want the best available test for your purposes. A good test is valid and reliable and has a set of norms. Most important among these is validity. Remember, validity refers to a test measuring what it purports to measure.

Question 101

101. If college graduates typically earn more money than high school graduates, this would indicate that level of education and income are: a. causally related b. positively correlated c. negatively correlated d. unrelated

Answer 101

101. B. When correlations are discussed, the key thing to remember is that you cannot say anything about one variable causing the other. You can only refer to one variable being related in some way to the other variable. In the case presented, the more education a person has, the higher the person’s salary will be. This describes a positive correlation in that as one variable increases, the other variable also increases. A negative correlation would be: The hotter the temperature outside, the less hot soup people consume. In a negative correlation, one variable increases while the other variable decreases.

Question 102

102. A researcher who observes a strong negative correlation between income and mental illness would conclude that: a. being poor causes mental illness b. having wealth makes one resistant to mental illness c. those with lower incomes tend to suffer from higher rates of mental illness and those with higher incomes tend to suffer from lower rates of mental illness d. lower income levels lead to lower levels of mental illness

Answer 102

102. C. Here again, when talking about correlation; you cannot describe any causality. A, B, and D describe causation in some form. Look for key words to know if something is causal (causes, leads to, makes you, etc.).

Question 103

103. A test producing the same results from one time to another is to a test measuring what it is supposed to as _______ is to ________. a. validity; reliability b. reliability; validity c. reliability; standardization d. standardization; reliability

Answer 103

103. B. By definition, reliability refers to how consistent over time a test is. Validity is defined as having a test measure what it is supposed to measure. Standardization refers to a set of procedures that are consistently followed for each administration of a test. Although it describes consistency, it is not related to the test itself. Standardization refers to the procedures implemented while giving a test.

Question 104

104. Which of the following are measures of central tendency? a. Standard error of measurement and standard deviation b. Median and mode c. Range and variance d. Stanine and percentile

Answer 104

104. B. Measures of central tendency refer to the mean, median, and mode of any distribution. It describes “average” scores. If you think about the bell curve, the measures of central tendency are those that are in the middle of the distribution. Stanines and percentiles are types of scores, and range and variance are actually related to measure of variability, not central tendency.

Question 105

105. Which of the following pairs correctly describes forms of reliability? a. Equivalence and internal consistency b. Stability and concurrent c. Internal consistency and construct d. Concurrent and construct

Answer 105

105. A. Reliability involves consistency and equivalence. When a test is reliable, it is means that a test taker would receive nearly the same score every time the test taker would take the test. Another form of reliability is equivalence. A person who takes one form of a test would be expected to have nearly identical scores on another form of that test. Terms such as “concurrent” and “construct” refer to types of validity. “Stability” would be a term relating to reliability.

Question 106

106. Which of the following is TRUE of testing people with disabilities? a. Test scores administered under standardized and modified conditions are typically equivalent. b. General agreement exists on how tests should be modified for people with disabilities. c. There exists a need for a growing body of research related to the equivalency between tests administered under standardized and under modified conditions. d. Both B and C.

Answer 106

106. D. Tests administered using modified conditions may or may not yield results equivalent to those obtained using standardized conditions. There are no general agreements about how to modify tests for individuals with disabilities. Since testing individuals with disabilities is a fairly new concept, more research is needed to investigate equivalency of modified test administrations to standardized test administrations. Another topic of further consideration is how the test examiner will interpret results when a test has been modified.

Question 107

107. Which of the following is the best approach to minimizing or eliminating test bias? a. Creating separate norm groups for different groups against whom the test is thought to be biased b. Having a panel of experts review the test items before standardizing the test c. Pre-screening examiners to be used in the standardization process for any possible prejudicial feelings d. Screening test items for possible bias

Answer 107

107. A. Test bias refers to anything within a test that is unfair to an individual or group, such as asking questions about Wisconsin to people who live in Australia and who have never been in Wisconsin. In this example, the test developer could minimize test bias by developing norms for Australians who take the test and using those norms when an Australian takes the Wisconsin test. Answers B, C, and D may be only minimally helpful in eliminating or minimizing bias in testing.

Question 108

108. Multiple-choice items like those found on the NCE tap skills primarily of: a. organization b. planning c. recognition d. recall

Answer 108

108. C. Multiple-choice questions of any sort tap into a person’s recognition memory. The person is given information from which to choose the correct answer. Recall is tapped using short-answer essays or a fill-in-the-blank format. Test takers are provided with very little information and must rely on their own recall memory to retrieve the answers. Organization and planning have no relevance here.

Question 109

109. An intelligence quotient (IQ) is based on: a. chronological age/mental age × 100 b. chronological age/mental age + 100 c. mental age/chronological age + 100 d. mental age/chronological age × 100

Answer 109

109. D. You can eliminate the addition of 100 because a ratio such as that derived from the first part of the formula added to 100 would yield a score around 100 with some part of a fraction. Here’s how you can reason out the correct answer. Suppose a person is 10 years old exactly and earns a mental age of 10 years exactly; the person’s IQ would be 100 because the fraction of 10 over 10 is 1, which multiplied by 100 is 100. If this same 10-yearold earns a mental age of 5, then multiplying the 10 over 5 (2) by 100 would yield an IQ of 200 (not possible). So, reversing the formula, a mental age of 5 for a 10-year-old (MA/CA) would yield an IQ of 50 (more reasonable considering the data provided). So, having a high mental age over any chronological age would yield a high IQ. Conversely, having a low mental age over any chronological age would yield a low IQ.

Question 110

110. Which of the following is NOT an intelligence test? a. WISC-IV b. WAIS-III c. MMPI-II d. WPPSI-III

Answer 110

110. C. The MMPI-II is a personality test (the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, second edition), while all of the others are part of the Wechsler series of intelligence tests. The WISC-IV is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children–fourth edition and is for children aged 6 to 16. The WAIS-III is the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale–third edition and is for adults. The WPPSI-III is the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scales of Intelligence–third edition and is for children between the ages of 3 and 7 years, 3 months.

Question 111

111. MMPI-A and CPI are to _________________ as Rorschach and TAT are to __________________. a. interest inventories; subjective tests b. objective tests; interest inventories c. objective tests; standardized tests d. objective tests; subjective tests

Answer 111

111. D. The differences we are looking at here are the differences in the formats of tests. The MMPI-A (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory–Adolescent) and CPI (California Personality Inventory) are based on a true/false format with a fixed choice. They are paper and pencil objective tests, while the Rorschach and TAT (Thematic Apperception Test) are projective tests that are subjective in nature. The answers to the stimuli are unlimited. There are no fixed choices. The test taker makes up answers based on the stimulus being presented.

Question 112

112. The Rorschach, TAT, and Rotters Incomplete Sentences are all: a. projective tests b. observational tests c. rating scales d. standardized personality tests

Answer 112

112. A. The Rorschach is an inkblot test. The TAT (Thematic Apperception Test) is a storytelling test. The Rotters Incomplete Sentences test is a finish-the-sentence test. All of these tests are projective tests because they ask test takers to project their own thoughts and ideas into the stimuli to complete the answers. The test takers come up with their own answers freely without any suggestions or information being provided by the examiner except the stimuli. Rating scales are typically used to describe various dimensions of behavior across a number of different situations or environments. Standardized personality tests include the MMPI-II and CPI, among others. Observational tests would typically involve the examiner observing the test takers’ behavior across environments or situations.

Question 113

113. One of the major criticisms of projective tests is that they: a. have too many questions b. are too subjective c. are too structured d. take too much time to administer

Answer 113

113. B. Projective tests usually do not involve any “questions” per se. Remember, the test takers come up with their own answers based on the stimuli presented. Projective tests by their very nature are not structured at all. Usually the instructions the examiner gives are minimal, e.g., “What might this be?” for the Rorschach. Projective tests do take a great deal of time, but this is not the major criticism. Projective tests are very subjective, and the scoring is also very subjective, despite there being scoring manuals for these tests.

Question 114

114. A counselor may decide to administer a number of personality tests in order to: a. better understand the client b. predict future performance c. evaluate the outcomes of counseling d. All of the above

Answer 114

114. D. If a counselor decides to administer a psychological test, most likely the counselor wants to understand the client more fully. The counselor may want to predict the future performance of a client. Or the counselor may want to evaluate the outcomes of treatment. A psychological test provides a means to look at these issues objectively and concretely.

Question 115

115. The key difference between ipsative scales and normative scales is that ipsative scales: a. allow the counselor to make comparisons among individuals b. provide information about an individual client c. include achievement and aptitude tests d. have been standardized and normed

Answer 115

115. B. An ipsative scale gives information about a single individual. There are no comparisons made between the individual and others. A normative scale gives information about individuals but allows the examiner to make comparisons between the single individual and others. So the key difference between ipsative scales and normative scales is whether comparisons can be made. No comparisons can be made when an ipsative scale is used.

Question 116

116. Jennifer, a Brandon High School graduating senior, took the Geneva Advanced Placement test in mathematics and earned 177 points out of a total of 200 points. This score means that Jennifer did as well or better than: a. 86% of the entering freshman at Coolridge Community College b. 73% of college students majoring in mathematics c. 89% of the graduating seniors at Glenbrook High School d. 77% of the mathematics team members from Highland High School

Answer 116

116. C. Although Jennifer’s score (177 out of 200) remains the same, the interpretation of her score will be different based on the norm group to which her score is being compared. It is inappropriate to compare Jennifer (a graduating high school senior) to entering freshmen at a community college, to a group of college mathematics majors, or even to a group of high school mathematics team members, because Jennifer is not a member of any of these groups. She is a graduating senior from high school. Therefore, it is most appropriate to compare Jennifer’s score to a similar group of graduating seniors’. It is important to compare one’s score to a norm group closest to the group to which the individual belongs.

Question 117

117. Terry’s average score per basketball game is 27 points. This places him sixth among all the forwards in the Midwest basketball league. The level of measurement described in this example is: a. ordinal b. ratio c. interval d. nominal

Answer 117

117. A. There are four levels of measurement. The most basic level is the nominal scale. There are no numerical values assigned, but nominal data fit into categories such as gender, numbers on a basketball jersey, or country of origin. Ordinal scale data involve rankings or order of people or objects based on a particular attribute. The numbers assigned for an ordinal scale have meaning only within the particular group. Interval scale data are calculated with the assumption that each number represents a point that is an equal distance from the point adjacent to it. Temperature is an example of an interval scale datum. Ratio scale data have an absolute zero. Weight is an example of a ratio scale datum.

Question 118

118. A researcher reports a correlation coefficient of –.43 between the amount of television viewing by children and the number of times these children are on the honor roll at school. This means: a. Too much television viewing causes students’ grades to be low. b. There is a moderately negative relationship between how much television a child watches and how often her or his grades are high enough to earn a position on the honor roll. c. There is very little relationship between how much television a child watches and how often her or his grades are high enough to earn a position on the honor roll. d. The more television a child watches, the more often the child’s grades are high enough to earn a position on the honor roll.

Answer 118

118. B. When a correlation coefficient is presented, there cannot be an inference that one behavior or action predicts or causes the other behavior or action. There is no cause and effect when a correlation coefficient is presented. Correlation coefficients range between – 1.0 and +1.0. The closer the coefficient is to 1, the stronger the relationship. If the coefficient is negative, this suggests that as one behavior increases, the other behavior will decrease. In the example above, the more television a child watched, the lower a child’s grades were. A strong relationship is usually ±0.55 or above, while a moderate relationship is usually in the ±0.54 to ±0.30 range. No relationship is indicated by a correlation coefficient of 0.0.

Question 119

119. A counselor wants to make sure that the test she is using provides the same scores for people when they retake the test a month later. What should the counselor look for when reviewing the test manual? a. Alternate or parallel-forms reliability b. Split-half reliability c. Scorer reliability d. Test-retest reliability

Answer 119

119. D. Alternate or parallel forms of reliability involve giving two different versions of the same test to the same group of people. If the test is reliable, there will be very little difference between the scores received on both tests. Split-half reliability involves dividing a test into two parts and comparing the scores on the first part with the scores on the second part. If the test is internally consistent, the scores on each half of the test will be nearly identical. Scorer reliability is used when two or more individuals score the same test. If the test has scorer reliability, each scorer scores nearly all the items on the test the same way. Test-retest reliability involves obtaining nearly identical scores on the same test even when the test is given at a later date.

Question 120

120. When applying to graduate school, the admissions committee compares the candidate’s scores on the GRE with the candidate’s grade point average reported on the college transcripts. This is an example of: a. construct validity b. content validity c. criterion-related validity d. concurrent validity

Answer 120

120. C. Construct validity is described as the extent to which a test measures a specific theoretical construct, such as the construct of self-esteem. Content validity is described as the extent to which the items on a test are examples of the construct that the test measures. Criterion-related validity is described as the extent to which a test correlates with independent behaviors or events. In the case of this question, the independent behavior or event is the student’s grade point average used as a measure of academic success. Concurrent validity is described as a form of criterion-related validity whereby the test administration and criterion measure happen at almost the same time. This method of criterion-related validity is not predictive.

Question 121

121. Only _________ permits a researcher to identify cause and effect. a. a correlational study b. an experiment c. a survey d. naturalistic observation

Answer 121

121. B. Cause and effect is attainable only through an experiment. A correlational study looks only at the relationship between variables. A naturalistic observation involves simply observing subjects in their own environment. No cause and effect is even intended here. A survey involves distributing a questionnaire or survey to participants. Again, no cause and effect is intended.

Question 122

122. A hypothesis is: a. a defense mechanism b. a testable prediction c. a conclusion based on data d. none of the above

Answer 122

122. B. “Defense mechanism” is a term used in psychodynamic theory that refers to the unconscious distortions of reality that people make. A hypothesis is a hunch or assumption that a researcher starts with when designing a study. The researcher wants to verify whether or not this hunch or assumption is true. It is what the researcher is testing. It is not the conclusions that the researcher makes based on the data obtained.

Question 123

123. An experiment in which neither the subjects nor the individuals running the study know which subjects are in the control group and which are in the experimental group until after the results are tallied is called a _______________ study. a. single-blind b. placebo c. double-blind d. confounded

Answer 123

123. C. A single-blind study is one in which only one part of the team is unaware of who is receiving the treatment. In a single-blind study, either the researcher is unaware or the participants are unaware; not both. The way to remember this is that single means one and double means two. The team consists of the researcher and the participants. So, you need to look at whether only one part of the team is unaware or both parts of the team are unaware. A placebo effect has occurred when a participant reports improvement where the treatment was really nothing more than water or a sugar pill. In a confounded study, variables that are not wanted in the study come into play.

Question 124

124. A researcher wants to conduct a study looking at the effects of systematic desensitization on agoraphobia. In this case, the independent variable is _________________ and the dependent variable is ____________________. a. agoraphobia; systematic desensitization b. systematic desensitization; agoraphobia c. systematic desensitization; group effects d. None of the above

Answer 124

124. B. The best way to remember the difference between the independent and dependent variable is to look at the wording. If the question starts out with “the effects of,” that is going to be the independent variable. The independent variable is the one that the researcher is going to manipulate. The dependent variable is going to have the word “on” close to it. In the question, the researcher wanted to look at the effects of systematic desensitization on agoraphobia.

Question 125

125. A researcher reports that p

Answer 125

125. B. This can be tricky. With a p

Question 126

126. If a researcher wants to rule out any chances of error, a statistical level of significance needed would be: a. p < .05 b. p < .01 c. p < .001 d. p < .10

Answer 126

126. C. If a researcher wants to rule out any chances of error, she is going to want to have a very small p value. The smallest p value that is usually reported is p < .001. This would mean that there is a 1 in 1000 chance that the results are false or a 999 out of 1000 chance that the results are accurate.

Question 127

127. A Type I error is to __________________ as a Type II error is to ______________________. a. accepting the null hypothesis when it is false; rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true. b. accepting the null hypothesis when it is true; rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true. c. rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true; accepting the null hypothesis when it is true. d. rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true; accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.

Answer 127

127. D. In a Type I error (or alpha error), the researcher rejects the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually true (there are no differences between groups). In a Type II error (beta error), the researcher accepts the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually false (there are differences between groups).

Question 128

128. One way to reduce Type I and Type II errors is to: a. increase sample size b. decrease sample size c. increase the level of significance d. decrease the level of significance

Answer 128

128. A. The best way to reduce errors in research is to have a large sample size—the larger the better. If you reason this out, you can see why. If you have 10 participants and 8 of the participants improved, you would say that is pretty good. If you have 100 participants and 80 of them improve, you would also say that is pretty good. Both of these situations leave some doubt, however. If you have 1000 participants and 800 improve, you would feel much better about stating that 800 participants improved.

Question 129

129. If a researcher who found a negative correlation between the amount of TV viewing done by children and academic performance were to graph her results, she would use a: a. normal bell curve b. positively skewed curve c. scatterplot d. negatively skewed curve

Answer 129

129. C. When you think of a correlational study, you should automatically think of a graph with a bunch of dots on it. There is an x-axis and a y-axis and a bunch of dots. The researcher tries to find a line of best fit by visualizing where variable X is in relation to variable Y. Notice, I said “in relation to.” In a correlational study, the researcher is looking for the relationship between variables, not cause and effect. A positively or negatively skewed curve and a normal bell curve are usually associated with cause and effect.

Question 130

130. A t-score has a mean of ____________ and a standard deviation of ______________. a. 100; 15 b. 10; 2 c. 50; 15 d. 50; 10

Answer 130

130. D. You will have to know the means and standard deviations of the various statistics used in research. Do not confuse a t-score with an IQ score. An IQ score has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. A z-score expresses the number of standard deviations that a raw score is from the mean. A t-score has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10.

Question 131

131. A person received a t-score of 40. This means: a. Her score fell one standard deviation below the mean. b. Her score is very low. c. There is an error because you can’t get a t-score of 40. d. Her score is higher than average.

Answer 131

131. A. Remember that a t-score has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. In this situation, the test taker received a t-score of 40. That score is one standard deviation below the mean. It is neither a very high nor a very low score. You might consider t-scores of 70 and 30 to be high and low, respectively. A t-score of 70 is two standard deviations above the mean, while a t-score of 30 is two standard deviations below the mean.

Question 132

132. A confounded study is one in which: a. there is a wide range of scores b. there is a random sample c. there are undesirable variables as part of the experiment d. undesirable variables are eliminated

Answer 132

132. C. If something is confounded, it is confusing or befuddling. Therefore, when looking at research, if you cannot distinguish between variables or if things are not clear, then a study is confounded. Usually that means that there are variables that the researcher did not control or eliminate.

Question 133

133. Behavior changing as a result of just being part of an experiment is to the _____________________ as believing that someone with an extensive vocabulary is better at communicating is to the ________________________. a. halo effect; Rosenthal effect b. Hawthorne effect; Rosenthal effect c. Hawthorne effect; halo effect d. placebo effect; Rosenthal effect

Answer 133

133. C. The halo effect is the tendency to generalize about a person based on one trait. In the question, the researcher believed that a person with a very good vocabulary would be a good communicator. He based his belief on one trait—having a good vocabulary. The placebo effect is when an ineffective or inert substance is given to participants and participants report positive changes. Because the substance is inert or ineffective, there actually should not be any changes. The Rosenthal effect or Pygmalion effect suggests that the researcher’s beliefs impact the outcome of an experiment. In contrast to the halo effect, the Rosenthal effect is more a component of the researcher’s beliefs, not the participant’s traits themselves. The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for participants to change their behavior just because they are participants in a research study.

Question 134

134. The best kind of random sampling technique that would include 10% Asian, 10% Hispanic, and 15% African American, as well as individuals from the majority ethnic group, would be a: a. mixed randomized sampling technique b. stratified sampling technique c. cluster sampling technique d. random chance sampling technique

Answer 134

134. B. There really is no mixed randomized sampling technique. A cluster sampling technique involves taking a smaller sample from a larger sample. In cluster sampling, the groups are randomized, not the individuals in the groups. A random chance sampling technique involves the simple randomness involved in choosing people at random regardless of any characteristics or group identities. Each person has an equal chance of being chosen. In a stratified sampling technique, different subpopulations are included in the random sample based on percentages of the subpopulations in the larger population. For example, if a researcher wants a representative sample from the general population, she would want an equal representation of males and females. Therefore, she would randomly choose half of her sample from the male subpopulation and half from the female subpopulation.

Question 135

135. In experimental research, the researcher states a null hypothesis. A null hypothesis states that: a. there will be differences found between the experimental and control groups b. the differences between the experimental and control groups are due to chance c. there will be no differences between the experimental and control groups d. Both A and C.

Answer 135

135. D. A null hypothesis is one in which the researcher states prior to beginning the research that there will be no differences between groups and that the differences found will be due to chance and not due to being in one group or another. The research hypothesis states that there will be differences between the experimental and control groups and that the differences are due to something other than chance (i.e., the manipulation of the independent variable).

Question 136

136. An independent variable is the one the experimenter ___________________, while the dependent variable is the one the experimenter ________________. a. manipulates; looks at for outcomes b. looks at for outcomes; manipulates c. leaves unattended; changes d. changes; leaves unattended

Answer 136

136. A. The independent variable is the one that the researcher manipulates or changes. The dependent variable is “dependent” upon the changes that the researcher is making. So the dependent variable is the one that shows whether or not the manipulation of the independent variable is effective. The dependent variable is related to outcomes. Leaving variables unattended is not appropriate in most experimental research.

Question 137

137. A researcher looks at one subject across time and takes numerous measurements throughout the process. This is known as a(n) _______________. a. AB design b. ABAB design c. time-series or continuous measurement design d. correlational design

Answer 137

137. C. A correlational research design looks at the relationship between two variables (the amount of TV viewing and academic performance). An AB or ABAB design is a two-part continuous measurement design in which the experimenter has established a baseline (A) and introduces an intervention (B). The ABAB design is intended to rule out confounding variables by seeing whether the second AB pattern yields the same results. A time-series or continuous measurement design looks at one person across time using a number of measurements throughout the study. An AB or ABAB design is not performed across a series of time elements.

Question 138

138. A researcher conducts a study in which she looks at the effects of using Nicorette gum on smoking cessation. Most likely, her statistical analysis will include: a. Pearson’s r b. a t-test c. an ANOVA d. a chi-square

Answer 138

138. B. Pearson’s r is used in correlational studies. An ANOVA is used when there is more than one independent variable or more than one experimental group. A t-test is performed when there is one independent variable, one experimental group, and one control group. A chi-square is used to determine if obtained results differ at all from chance.

Question 139

139. Ethical dilemmas often center on issues related to: a. dual relationships b. confidentiality c. credentials of test administrators d. licensure

Answer 139

139. B. The key word here is “often.” Yes, ethical dilemmas related to dual relationships do come up, but in terms of volume or frequency, confidentiality issues come up more often those involving dual relationships, credentials of test administrators, or licensure.

Question 140

140. The difference between confidentiality and privileged communication is: a. “Privileged communication” is a legal term and confidentiality is an ethical concept. b. “Confidentiality” is a legal term and privileged communication is an ethical concept. c. Privileged communication is enforced only when a client asks something to be privileged. d. Confidentiality is enforced only when a client asks that something be kept confidential.

Answer 140

140. A. Although the two terms may seem to come up within similar contexts, “privileged communication” is a legal term and “confidentiality” is an ethical concept. Things said during sessions are kept confidential within limits. Legally, when a counselor invokes privileged communication, this means that things revealed in confidential therapy sessions cannot be disclosed in court without the client’s permission. The only exceptions would be when a mental health professional who has been hired by the court conducts an evaluation or other service that relates to some legal action. In these cases, the counselor or other mental health practitioner has to inform the client of the limits of privileged communication.

Question 141

141. A malpractice claim can be lodged against a counselor when: a. the counselor was negligent b. the client suffered physical or psychological injury c. a professional relationship was established d. All of the above

Answer 141

141. D. If you think about this question, you can see that malpractice claims almost exclusively deal with a counselor’s behavior that ends up harming the client in some way. Negligence on the part of the counselor could lead to potential harm to the client. Of course, any physical or psychological injury to a client harms the client. You may have stumbled on this question because of response C. If there never was a professional relationship established, then the counselor cannot be sued for malpractice. A professional relationship is established usually within the first few sessions and involves informed consent, discussion of the limits of confidentiality, and the process of therapy. If these components were not established early on in the relationship, then there really is no professional relationship.

Question 142

142. A counselor wants to discuss the treatment of a particular client with the client’s physician. Ethically, the counselor should: a. call the physician on the telephone b. send a letter of introduction to the physician c. have the client sign a release-of-information consent form prior to any contact with the physician d. have the client talk to her/his physician

Answer 142

142. C. A counselor who wants to consult or contact another professional, a client’s family member, or someone else who works with a particular client must have the client give written permission to contact and share information. If the counselor gets contacted by someone who has contact with the client, the counselor cannot even acknowledge that the client is being seen unless the client has signed a release-of-information.

Question 143

143. You are the counselor who is taking the on-call services for the evening. An individual calls asking you if her boyfriend is seeing a counselor at your clinic. Your best course of action is to: a. get the phone number of the individual and call her back with the information b. not acknowledge anything c. suggest that she ask her boyfriend herself d. provide her with the information she is asking for

Answer 143

143. B. Similar to Question 4, the counselor cannot even acknowledge that the client is being seen by someone at the clinic. Be prepared with a uniform statement that all counselors at your clinic use in situations like this.

Question 144

144. You are a counselor who will be seeing a 15-year-old girl who has problems with anxiety. At the initial session, you have her guardian complete the intake questionnaire and sign a permission form giving you permission to treat the girl. You also: a. get all the financial information so that the insurance company can be billed b. discuss the limits of confidentiality with both the guardian and the teenager c. have the adolescent sign the consent form as well d. All of the above

Answer 144

144. D. Just like you would do with any new client, you would have the parent or guardian provide some background information and get insurance information. Each state has guidelines about when adolescents must sign their own consent-for-treatment forms, but usually the age is 14 or 15.

Question 145

145. The Code of Ethics is: a. legal and binding b. a hard and fast set of rules c. a set of standards of best practice d. All of the above

Answer 145

145. C. A code of ethics is not a legal and binding document, nor is it a set of strict rules by which counselors must abide. It is really a guideline or a set of standards for best professional and moral conduct. There usually are no right or wrong answers to ethical dilemmas. When you run into an ethical dilemma, discuss it with other counselors and/or contact your profession’s ethics committee.

Question 146

146. Which describes a violation of the “scope of practice” ethical standard? a. A counselor suggests a set of positive affirmations to her client after the counselor has discussed positive affirmations at length in session. b. A counselor uses EMDR with a client who insisted on this method of treatment. c. A counselor confronts her client about the negative thought patterns in which the client is engaging on a regular basis. d. A counselor seeks consultation from a colleague on a difficult case.

Answer 146

146. B. EMDR (eye movement desensitization and reprocessing) is a specialization that requires additional training. Unless the counselor took the specialized training and had supervision, she cannot use EMDR in her practice. In this case, the counselor is functioning out of her scope of practice. Remember, the client insisted that this treatment methodology be used. The question did not say that the counselor was a trained EMDR practitioner.

Question 147

147. Tarasoff vs. Board of Regents of the University of California was a landmark case which brought to light the: a. duty of the counselor to warn individuals or groups about the potential of imminent danger b. standard of practice of obtaining releases of information in order to share information with individuals or agencies c. rights a client has as an individual with disabilities d. potential harm an impaired professional may inflict on his clients

Answer 147

147. A. Tarasoff is a landmark case, and if you know no other case, this is the legal case to know. It led to improving services for mental health by requiring mental health practitioners to warn potential victims of imminent harm. We are mandatory reporters. We must take reasonable steps to protect possible victims from harm. Reasonable steps are those that any person who cares about another person would take to secure that person’s safety. Usually that involves informing potential victims and law enforcement agencies.

Question 148

148. A client jokingly talks about killing himself during a counseling session. The counselor should assess: a. whether the client has a plan of suicide b. whether the client has the means to complete suicide c. whether the client has a morbid sense of humor d. Both A and B.

Answer 148

148. D. Whether said in jest or not, it is the counselor’s duty to assess lethality. The counselor needs to assess whether or not the client has a plan and a means to complete the act. The counselor could be held liable if he is negligent in assessing lethality. You have to take seriously any comments made about suicide.

Question 149

149. The APA is a national organization for psychologists. The _____________ is a national organization for counselors. a. APGA b. NCE c. ACA d. NASP

Answer 149

149. C. The APA is the American Psychological Association and is the national organization for psychologists. The ACA is the American Counselors Association and is the national organization for counselors. The NCE, of course, is the National Counselor’s Exam. NASP is the National Association for School Psychologists.

Question 150

150. A 52-year-old counselor comes to work inebriated at least twice a week. He would be described as: a. an alcoholic b. an impaired professional c. a burn-out d. a workaholic

Answer 150

150. B. You may have chosen A because he might be an alcoholic. But remember that this section is about professional practices and ethics, so we are talking about an impaired professional. An impaired professional is one who is not able to function in an effective or ethical manner due to a personal problem such as alcohol abuse or other neurological problems. The counselor may be burned out, but the issue is that he is impaired because of his use of alcohol.

Question 151

151. In the case described in Question 150, your ethical obligation as a colleague is to: a. confront him about his drinking problem and his impaired functioning b. report him to the police c. do nothing d. cover up for him by seeing his clients as well as yours

Answer 151

151. A. Most ethical guidelines suggest that the best course of action is to confront the impaired professional first and then report him to the licensing board if he continues to come to work impaired.

Question 152

152. A man comes to you with a sexual dysfunction. You have very little experience in treating sexual dysfunctions. According to the ethical code, you should: a. do extra study on the topic as you continue to work with this man b. refer him to someone who has experience and training in the area of sexual dysfunctions c. tell him to use some herbal supplement to improve impotence d. ignore this problem and treat the man for depression

Answer 152

152. B. If a client comes to you with a problem with which you have very little experience or training, the ethical course of action is to refer the client to someone else who has the proper training and experience. Studying about a particular disorder may help you to better understand the dynamics of the disorder, but it is no substitute for actual training and experience. Treating the man for something that is directly related to the problem he reports is not the standard of professional practice you want to avow.

Question 153

153. An 18-year-old student wants to view his educational records. Your course of action is: a. Get parent permission before disclosing this information. b. Talk him out of it. c. Give him access to these records, as the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act affords him this right as an adult student. d. Ignore his request.

Answer 153

153. C. An adult student, as the one described in this question, is given the same rights that any adult is given. The student has the right to view his educational records without the consent of his parents, as he is an adult. The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act affords him the right to have access to his own records. If the student were under the age of 18, parental permission would be required.

Question 154

154. Your uncle asks you to counsel his daughter who is suffering from depression. This is: a. ethical b. not an ethical issue at all c. fine, as long as you let your uncle know what is going on in treatment d. considered a dual relationship and is considered unethical

Answer 154

154. D. Just as medical doctors are encouraged not to treat family members or friends, so too counselors and mental health professional are discouraged from treating family members or friends. Because the counselor would be treating his cousin, this would be considered a dual relationship. He is a cousin and a therapist. The potential for harm to the client exists and that is why this is considered unethical.

Question 155

155. You saw a client for a year and then terminated the treatment, as all goals were met. Six months later you call this client and ask her for a date. This is: a. okay, since you terminated the counseling relationship six months ago b. okay, since all treatment goals were met and none of them had to do with intimacy c. unethical d. not unethical but unacceptable

Answer 155

155. C. This is blatantly unethical. The potential for harm to the client exists. This is considered sexual misconduct.

Question 156

156. You have written a book and an accompanying workbook on managing panic. You require each of your clients who is being seen for a panic disorder to purchase your materials. This is: a. ethical, since these are treatment materials b. not unethical but unacceptable c. financially feasible for your clients d. unethical

Answer 156

156. D. There are a number of ethical violations in this scenario. The most blatant is requiring your clients to purchase your materials. You seek to profit from the purchase of these materials, which is ethically wrong. Another issue related to this scenario is that your requirements for purchase set up a power differential that should be avoided. You might consider this double-dipping. You get paid by their insurance company to provide treatment and you profit from the sale of your own materials.

Question 157

157. You have written an article that you want to submit to a professional journal. This article needs to be in: a. MLA format b. APA format c. either MLA or APA format d. none of the above

Answer 157

157. B. The standards for submission to most professional journals include using APA format. Most scholarly material is written in this form, at least in the mental health field. MLA format is often used in literary journals and comes from the journalism and communications fields.

Question 158

158. A client wants to enter into treatment with you but does not have insurance. He reports that he can afford to pay you only $25 per session. Your usual fee is $100. In this case, you would: a. refuse to see him unless he can pay your usual fee b. charge him your usual fee and have him make installment payments c. consider his financial situation and negotiate a reduced fee if this is warranted d. make a referral to someone else

Answer 158

158. C. In this situation it is appropriate to use a sliding fee scale as the client clearly cannot afford your usual fee. If you were to require him to make installment payments, you would be putting undue burden on him and may cause him emotional and financial harm. You could make a referral to someone else, but the same scenario may present itself there, too. Refusing to see the client unless he can pay your usual fee is a form of abandonment.

Question 159

159. You are starting an eating disorders group. Ethically, you should _____________ all possible candidates to make sure they are suitable for the group. a. screen b. diagnose c. allow a sample session for d. None of the above

Answer 159

159. A. Whenever you are going to begin a therapy group, you must screen all of the possible clients to make sure that they are good candidates for group therapy. You do not need to diagnose each client. Allowing the clients to try the group before committing to it really hampers the group process.

Question 160

160. A counselor who works for a county agency also has a small private practice. She screens all clients at the county agency and refers those clients with the best insurance benefits to her private practice. This counselor is: a. following standard procedure for many public agencies b. acting unethically c. engaging in a dual relationship d. practicing beyond her scope of practice

Answer 160

160. B. Clearly this is unethical. This scenario describes a situation in which the counselor profits from the referrals. If the counselor is working for a community agency, most likely he receives a salary for his work. Referring clients to your own private practice has the potential to harm the client and provides you with additional money. An ethical violation of scope of practice would be a scenario in which a counselor lacks appropriate training and supervision to perform or engage in some treatment. In a dual relationship violation, the counselor basically wears multiple hats in the relationship with the client—the therapist and a neighbor or friend.

Question 161

161. Under the ethical principles of informed consent, a counselor must inform each client of : a. the limits of confidentiality b. her credentials c. issues related to third-party billing and missed appointments d. Both A and C.

Answer 161

161. D. Informed consent is the practice of providing the client with all the information so that he or she may agree to or reject treatment, testing, or interventions. Informed consent involves discussing the process of therapy, the limits of confidentiality, possible outcomes of therapy (positive and negative), any risks to the client, and clinic procedures for billing and missed appointments. Informed consent is given in writing.

Question 162

162. A counselor who has not finished his dissertation has business cards that say “Dr. Dennis Browning, Professional Counselor.” He is: a. acting professionally and ethically b. advertising himself appropriately, since he gives himself the title of Professional Counselor. c. acting unethically by misrepresenting himself as having a doctoral degree when in fact he does not d. not really acting unethically, since he does say he is a professional counselor.

Answer 162

162. C. Having business cards with “Dr.” on them is misrepresentation, since the counselor has not received his doctoral degree. It does not matter that “Professional Counselor” was also on the business card. Clients who see “Dr.” usually assume that the person has received a doctorate.

Question 163

163. A counselor who has a current caseload of 124 clients decides to close his practice and move to Florida. If the counselor is an ethical professional, he would: a. notify all his clients in writing of his plans b. make referrals to other professionals for all of his clients c. safeguard all client records d. All of the above

Answer 163

163. D. If a counselor plans to close his practice, he must inform all of his clients of that fact, provide the clients with referrals to other professionals, and notify all clients of the safeguards for the clinical records. If these procedures are not followed, the counselor could be violating ethical standards by abandoning his clients.

Question 164

164. The DSM uses a multiaxial system with five axes. Axis III denotes: a. the primary diagnosis b. the secondary diagnosis c. any physical health related issues d. the global functioning level

Answer 164

164. C. You need to be familiar with the multiaxial system of the DSM. Axis I refers to the clinical syndromes that are the focus of attention. Axis II includes the Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation. Axis III addresses any general medical conditions that might be relevant to the diagnosis or treatment of the disorder. Axis IV addresses the psychosocial and environmental problems that are impacted by the diagnosis or treatment of the disorder. Finally, Axis V is the global assessment of functioning (GAF), which rates psychological, social, and occupational functioning of the individual on a continuum of mental health/illness.

Question 165

165. A “V” code in the DSM is the: a. clinical syndrome b. focus of treatment that is not attributable to a specific mental condition c. code used when personality disorders are present d. global assessment of function

Answer 165

165. B. “V” codes are used when what is being treated is not classified as a mental disorder but is the focus of treatment. An example of this would be uncomplicated bereavement. In the DSM coding system, the V replaces the first digit of the five-digit code.

Question 166

166. Which name is associated with mental health consultation? a. Caplan b. Satir c. Adler d. Holland

Answer 166

166. A. You should know that Gerald Caplan conceptualized mental health consultation by describing numerous types such as client-centered consultation and consultee-centered consultation. Satir is a well-known family therapist. Adler is a Neo-Freudian theorist. And Holland is associated with career counseling.

Question 167

167. A female client who was successfully treated for an eating disorder tells other women about her success and recommends you as the expert in treating eating disorders. You treat eating disorders as part of your practice but would not consider yourself an expert. Ethically, you should: a. inform your client and anyone she has referred to you that you are not an expert in treating eating disorders b. post your client’s success story on your website c. accept any referrals without any further explanations d. ask her for a testimonial

Answer 167

167. A. The best course of action is to rectify any misconceptions that your client has about you and your expertise. Along these same lines, anyone she referred to you also needs to be made aware that you are not an expert. Using her story on your website and asking her for a testimonial are unethical. Using unsolicited testimonials is not unethical, but think about the standards of practice that you want associated with your name. Accepting referrals without any explanation puts you in a difficult position, as those who are referred to you may actually believe that you are an expert.

Question 168

168. Cases of ____________ lead to the most malpractice lawsuits for any mental health provider, including counselors and psychologists. a. dual relationships b. failure of duty to warn c. sexual misconduct d. breach of confidentiality

Answer 168

168. C. Sexual misconduct yields the highest number of malpractice cases for all mental health professionals. The other malpractice cases usually focus on breaches of confidentiality.

Question 169

169. The Education Act for All Handicapped Children (PL 94-142) requires that: a. all children who are handicapped be seen by a counselor who specializes in disabilities b. a free and appropriate education be provided for all children with disabilities c. children with handicaps be placed in the most restrictive environment in the schools d. children with handicaps be sent to special schools or institutions

Answer 169

169. B. PL 94-142 guarantees free and appropriate education for all handicapped children. Another part of this law is that handicapped children are to be placed in the least restrictive educational environment that is most appropriate for a particular child. All handicapped children are to have an individualized educational plan as well. The least restrictive environment is most often in a public school setting.

Question 170

170. You receive a referral from a family physician who attends your church. As a thank you, ethically you should: a. pay her for the referral b. send her a thank you letter c. have the physician tell everyone in your church to seek your services if they need mental health counseling d. treat her to lunch on a monthly basis

Answer 170

170. B. It is unethical to accept payment for referrals or to pay someone who referred clients to you. If you want to thank someone for a referral, a thank you note is most appropriate. Offering to buy her lunch on a monthly basis is unethical.

Question 171

171. The DSM system of diagnosis is based on: a. a model set up by insurance companies b. an educational model c. the medical model d. an integrated model of doctors and lawyers

Answer 171

171. C. The DSM system is based on the medical model that looks at client’s disease states or mental conditions. None of the other options are appropriate.

Question 172

172. Which of the following is FALSE regarding family therapy? a. Family therapists believe that people's problems develop in the context of their families. b. Family members usually are aware of how they influence one another. c. Each family member is seen as forming part of a larger, interacting system. d. When one family member changes, each of the others must change as well.

Answer 172

172. B. Family therapists look at families as systems, its members as units that interact together and influence each other. Therefore, when choosing the best answer here, you can easily eliminate those answers that talk about families interacting together and influencing one another. The only response that doesn’t describe this is B. Usually members of families are unaware of how they influence one another.

Question 173

173. The resolution of conflicts and breaking out of destructive habits are the primary goals of: a. family therapy b. existential therapy c. psychodynamic therapy d. couples therapy

Answer 173

173. D. One way that you can think of this is in terms of why couples seek counseling. Usually couples seek counseling because they are not getting along. There is conflict that is unresolved. Families usually don’t enter into family therapy because of unresolved conflicts or destructive habits. They usually enter counseling because one member of the family is having problems. Existential and psychodynamic therapies do not address breaking out of destructive habits, although psychodynamic therapy may address unresolved conflicts.

Question 174

174. Mary goes to the emergency room for the seventh time in six months complaining of difficulty breathing and chest pain that came on suddenly. She thinks she is having a heart attack and is afraid she is dying, but the doctor cannot find anything wrong. Her symptoms suggest she might be suffering from ____________. a. panic disorder b. a somatoform disorder c. PTSD d. hypochondria

Answer 174

174. A. You should know symptomatology of various psychiatric disorders, such as panic disorder. Somatoform disorder is a condition in which the physical symptoms a person feels are related to psychological factors. These symptoms cannot be traced to a specific physical cause. PTSD occurs after someone experiences some sort of trauma. Hypochondriasis is a psychiatric disorder whereby a person is obsessively preoccupied or worried about having a serious physical illness.

Question 175

175. Active symptoms of schizophrenia involve an ________ of normal thinking processes; passive symptoms involve the _______ of normal traits and abilities. a. exaggeration; exaggeration b. exaggeration; absence c. absence; exaggeration d. absence; absence

Answer 175

175. B. When diagnosing schizophrenia, there are active and passive symptoms. Active symptoms are exaggerated and passive symptoms are absent. In the daily functioning of persons with schizophrenia, they experience many distortions in their thinking processes and are usually unable or minimally able to address activities of daily living (dressing, preparing meals, etc.).

Question 176

176. As with many other systems, families aim to remain stable and reach equilibrium. This is known as: a. egalitarianism b. homeostasis c. equivalency d. predictive stability

Answer 176

176. B. The term described in this question is homeostasis. None of the other terms are related to family therapy.

Question 177

177. One of the goals of family therapy is to help facilitate adaptability. Adaptability from a family therapy perspective means: a. obtaining a balance between stability and change b. reaching consensus c. obtaining a state of enmeshment d. reaching the status quo

Answer 177

177. A. When a family enters into therapy, each family member must make adjustments, adjust to these changes, and maintain balance. Remember, the family wants to maintain homeostasis (balance), yet the family makes changes to which each family member must adjust and become stable again.

Question 178

178. A family of four comes in to see you. As the session begins, the two children and the mother seem to gang up on the father and try to pull you into this. Most likely this family is: a. triangulated b. enmeshed c. out of balance d. adversarial

Answer 178

178. A. Triangulation and “enmeshment” are two common terms in family therapy. Yes, the family power structure is out of balance, but what is happening is that some of the family members are forming an unhealthy coalition against another family member. If you visualize this, it is like a triangle. Enmeshment occurs when there is diffusion of boundaries. There are intrusions where none should be made. It is as if one member of the family were trying to live through another member of that family.

Question 179

179. During the past several sessions, a heated discussion has occurred between the father and the mother. The gist of the argument stems from the mother’s constant attention being focused on the daughter. This is an example of: a. negative attention seeking b. disequilibrium c. enmeshment d. triangulation

Answer 179

179. C. This is an example of enmeshment. Here the mother is trying to dominate or live her life through her daughter. An example of negative attention seeking would be if the daughter constantly misbehaved to get her mother or father to pay attention to her. Disequilibrium refers more to family structure than behaviors. Triangulation is described in the previous question.

Question 180

180. A child who throws food at the dinner table is removed from the dining area and told to sit on the stairs for five minutes. This discipline technique is known as: a. coercion b. the Premack principle c. shaping d. time-out

Answer 180

180. D. You will need to be familiar with numerous family therapy techniques. One of the more common techniques that a therapist may suggest is time-out. This is the removal of the child from the situation so that all attention is withdrawn from the child. Coercion, by definition, is forcible manipulation of a person to do what you want the person to do. The Premack principle states that more probable behaviors will reinforce less probable behaviors. You use something the child likes to do to get her to do what you want her to do: If she cleans her room, then she can watch TV. Shaping is another behavioral technique that involves successive approximations of a desired behavior being reinforced as a means to teach a desired response.

Question 181

181. A behaviorist family counselor instructs the parents of a 12-year-old boy to tell their son that when he gets his homework done he can play his Xbox. This is an example of: a. positive reinforcement b. the Premack principle c. quid pro quo d. negative reinforcement

Answer 181

181. B. This is an example of the Premack principle. Positive reinforcement would occur when a child produces a desired behavior and you provide positive feedback and reinforcement to increase the chances that the child will produce the same behavior again. Negative reinforcement is the taking away of an undesirable consequence to increase the likelihood that the child will engage in the behavior again (you stop nagging if she cleans her room). Quid pro quo is another behavioral technique that essentially means you get something for something: I will do something for you if you do something for me.

Question 182

182. One of the differences between individual therapy and family therapy is that family therapists believe in: a. family members acting independently of each other b. problems as involving one person c. a circular model of causality d. a linear model of causality

Answer 182

182. C. Unlike individual therapy, family therapy believes that one family member’s behavior influences all other members’ behavior in a circular manner. What one person in the family does affects everyone else. Family members do not act independently of one another. Problems concern everyone, not just one person. The linear model of causality reflects individual therapy. An individual’s behavior causes something to occur independent of other factors.

Question 183

183. Family systems theory is to _____________ as structural family theory is to __________________. a. Bowen; Satir b. Bowen; Minuchin c. Minuchin; Satir d. Minuchin; Bowen

Answer 183

183. B. Bowen’s theory is known as family systems theory, and Minuchin’s theory is known as structural family theory. Bowen views the family as a system whereby each family member’s behavior affects everyone else’s behavior. He emphasizes the ways in which individual family members differentiate themselves from one another. Minuchin looks specifically at the structure of the family. He looks at enmeshment and disengagement. Satir’s theory is called conjoint family therapy and is involved in communication patterns and meta-communication.

Question 184

184. A marriage and family counselor treating a 10-year-old daughter and her mother tells the daughter that if she loads the dishwasher on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays, then she and her mother will go shopping at the mall on Saturday. The counselor then has the mother and the daughter sign a contract to that effect. This is an example of: a. the Premack principle b. negative reinforcement c. shaping through successive approximations d. quid pro quo

Answer 184

184. D. This is an example of quid pro quo: If you do something for me, I’ll do something for you.

Question 185

185. Satir is associated with: a. integrated family therapy b. conjoint family therapy c. family systems therapy d. strategic family therapy

Answer 185

185. B. Satir’s therapy is known as conjoint family therapy. Strategic family therapy is generally associated with Haley and Madanes. Integrated family therapy involves languaging. Family systems therapy is associated with Bowen.

Question 186

186. All of the following are goals of Whitaker’s symbolic family therapy EXCEPT: a. boundary setting b. developing family nationalism c. maximizing languaging d. separating and rejoining

Answer 186

186. C. Whitaker uses all of the techniques in this question except maximizing languaging, which is incorporated in integrative family therapy. Whitaker believes that it is important to view the family as a unit. So, he helps families set boundaries, develop a sense of who they are as families (family nationalism) and of taking apart and rejoining the family.

Question 187

187. Compared with other counselors, family counselors tend to be more: a. rigid and inflexible b. nondirective and unstructured c. interested in maintaining their distance d. active, flexible, and structured

Answer 187

187. D. Family therapists are actively involved in the process. They are fairly structured and give homework assignments to families. They are generally flexible and go with the flow of the family. Oftentimes, family therapists “join” with families rather than keeping their distance.

Question 188

188. Haley assumes that: a. the client’s symptoms are serving a protective function b. the power hierarchy of the family is confused c. the real problem is the family communication pattern d. All of the above

Answer 188

188. D. Haley’s strategic family therapy focuses on how families use or abuse power, how they fail to communicate effectively and clearly, and how a symptom serves as a protection against something that is painful.

Question 189

189. A couple comes in to see a counselor who specializes in sex counseling. Before the counselor agrees to treat the couple for sex counseling, she refers the couple for: a. a physical examination and medical history consultation by a medical practitioner b. a clinical assessment and interview c. sensate focus exercises d. an exploration of the marital relationship

Answer 189

189. A. A counselor who sees couples for sex therapy must first rule out any physical problems one or the other partner may or may not have. Therefore, one of the first courses of action is to have the couple see their physician to verify that there are no physiological reasons for the dysfunction.

Question 190

190. The main purpose of sensate focus exercises is to: a. have the couple focus on communication patterns b. eliminate performance anxiety related to sexual functioning c. teach deep breathing and relaxation d. allow the couple to experiment with sexual positions

Answer 190

190. B. Sensate focus exercises are used to eliminate performance anxiety by instructing the couple to engage in touching that is nonsexual or nonerotic. The thought here is that if the couple can feel comfortable with touch, then sexual or erotic touch will not be as threatening.

Question 191

191. When working with blended families, a marriage and family counselor educates family members about the new dynamics within the family structure. More specifically, the counselor discusses: a. how adults and children come into the blended family with expectations from their previous families b. how parent–child relationships rarely change c. how a blended family begins after many losses and changes d. both A and C.

Answer 191

191. D. Blended families are the result of broken relationships. Therefore, when working with blended families, counselors need to address expectations that members of the blended family have about what relationships should be like (based on prior experiences). Counselors also have to assist blended families with the grief associated with losses and help members of the blended family adjust to changes within the family.

Question 192

192. As founder of many child development centers, ______________ could be attributed with being one of the first family counselors. a. Satir b. Ackerman c. Adler d. Rogers

Answer 192

192. C. Alfred Adler founded many child guidance clinics and thus is attributed with being one of the first family counselors. Ackerman and Satir would be considered psychoanalytic family therapists, and Rogers would be a family-centered therapist. Another way to think about this question is to look at dates: Adler was around earlier than any of the other three.

Question 193

193. Adlerian family therapy involves all of the following EXCEPT: a. overcoming feelings of inferiority b. promoting social interest c. pinpointing irrational beliefs d. investigating goals of behavior

Answer 193

193. C. The only logical answer here is C, because Adler did not look at irrational beliefs. He was concerned with feelings of inferiority, social interest, and goals of behavior. Just as with individual therapy, rational-emotive family therapy looks at irrational beliefs.

Question 194

194. According to conjoint family therapy, it is important to look at patterns of communication and meta-communication. Meta-communication can be defined as those aspects of communication: a. involving how something is said, not what is said b. involving what is said c. that are hidden d. that are direct and open

Answer 194

194. A. Communication patterns generally look at what is said, while meta-communication looks at how something is said.

Question 195

195. In family therapy, the terms “enmeshed” and “disengaged” are most closely associated with: a. Adler b. Minuchin c. Ackerman d. Haley

Answer 195

195. B. You should know that enmeshment and disengagement are concepts in Minuchin’s theory of family therapy. Adler looked at goals of behavior, social interest, and overcoming feelings of inferiority. Ackerman was a psychoanalytic family therapist who looked at unconscious motives and early relationships. Haley considered understanding levels of communication and organization and finding the myths that keep behavior going.

Question 196

196. A 10-year-old boy refuses to eat at the dinner table with the rest of the family and often stays home when the family goes to the zoo or a museum. According to Minuchin, this youngster is _____________ the family. a. disengaged from b. enmeshed in c. the placater in d. triangulated in

Answer 196

196. A. If you think about what engagement means in communication or social situations, you would know that disengagement means being uninvolved in social interactions. Therefore, this is an example of someone disengaged from their family. Enmeshment is when family members are overinvolved in the lives of other family members. “Placater” is a term used in Satir’s conjoint family therapy to describe a person who tries to please everyone. Triangulation occurs in families when several family members gang up on one particular family member.

Question 197

197. The role of the therapist in strategic family therapy is to: a. find the myth that keeps a behavior going b. understand levels of communication c. focus on levels of organization d. All of the above

Answer 197

197. B. The correct answer is D. Haley’s strategic family therapy describes the role of the therapist as finding the myths that keep behavior going, understanding levels of communication, and focusing on levels of organization in families.

Question 198

198. One of the more common techniques used by marriage and family therapists is reframing. Which of the following is an example of reframing? a. A counselor listens intently to the family’s discussion of an event and points out what happened at point A, point B, and point C. b. A counselor has the members of a family each take turns talking about how they felt about a specific incident. c. A counselor suggests that a mother’s constant questioning of the daughter regarding a recent party the daughter attended could be interpreted by the daughter as mistrust rather than love and concern. d. A counselor outlines exactly how individuals in the family are to argue by setting up fairfighting rules.

Answer 198

198. C. Response A describes the technique called tracking (keeping track of what is going on). Response B involves communication skill building techniques, as does response D. The best example of reframing is C as the therapist tries to present another perspective or reframes the situation to show a different interpretation than the one that is being held by one or another person.

Question 199

199. One family structure that is on the rise in the United States is the: a. blended family b. multigenerational family c. single-parent family d. homosexual family

Answer 199

199. B. One of the fastest-growing trends in family structures is the multigenerational family, in which the grandparents are raising their grandchildren. They, instead of the children’s biological parents, are parenting the grandchildren. Blended families have been around for decades, as have single-parent families. The homosexual family is an acknowledged family structure but is not one of the fastest-growing trends in family structures.

Question 200

200. True variance or the coefficient of determination is obtained by: a. subtracting the correlation coefficient from 1.00 b. adding the correlation coefficient to 1.00 c. squaring the correlation coefficient d. none of the above

Answer 200

200. C. You will need to know that the coefficient of determination is true variance. It is obtained by squaring the correlation coefficient. In order to find the coefficient of nondetermination, you have to subtract the coefficient of determination from 1.00.

Question 201

201. We can attribute to _______________ the ecological systems theory of development. a. Adler b. Bronfenbrenner c. Chomsky d. Piaget

Answer 201

201. B. Uri Bronfenbrenner developed a theory that basically states that a child grows up in a complex system of relationships: with the child’s family, school, and neighborhood, then extended family and the larger community, and finally the culture. These all affect the development of the child.

Question 202

202. Which of the following statements most closely reflects the ecological systems theory of development? a. It takes an entire nation to raise a child. b. It takes a closely knit family to raise a child. c. It takes an interconnected network of families to raise just one child. d. It takes a strongly devoted neighborhood to raise a child.

Answer 202

202. A. If we looked at the explanation above, you can see that responses B, C, and D represent only part of the complex system. It is necessary, however, to include culture and nation as being part of the development of the child. It takes all of the items in this question

Question 203

203. Using a normal bell curve, where would individuals with average ability fall? a. Between the 5th and 90th percentiles b. Between the 40th and 60th percentiles c. Between the 3rd and 6th stanines d. Between the 16th and 84th percentiles

Answer 203

203. D. The average range of abilities on the normal curve falls between the 16th and 84th percentiles. Responses B and C are not inclusive enough, and response A is too inclusive

Question 204

204. A researcher is interested in analyzing the results of 20 studies on the effects of social skills training on playground behavior of elementary school–age children. The best way to analyze all of these studies together is to perform: a. a meta-analysis b. Tukey’s t-test c. an analysis of covariance d. Spearman’s rho

Answer 204

204. A. Responses B, C, and D are statistics that a single research study may employ. A meta-analysis is performed when multiple research studies are used rather than just a single study.

Question 205

205. You are a licensed counselor in private practice. In order to get reimbursed by insurance companies, you will need your: a. NPI number b. license number c. transcripts of your graduate work on file d. diploma from your graduate program

Answer 205

205. A. NPI stands for National Provider Identification. This is a nationally accepted number that insurance companies use to reimburse providers. Credentialing agencies or departments of insurance companies may request your license number and transcripts, but these items do not guarantee payment.