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CSIM 2017 > Neoplasm > Flashcards

Neoplasm Flashcards

1
Q

What is adenoma and papilloma?

A

Adenoma is benign neoplasm of glandular epithelial cells.

Papilloma is benign neoplasm of non-glandular epithelium.

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2
Q

What is malignant neoplasm of the epithelial cells known as?

A

Carcinoma.

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3
Q

What is malignant neoplasm of connective tissue cells known as?

A

Sarcoma

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4
Q

Name the benign and malignant neoplasms of blood vessels.

A

Benign neoplasm: Haemangioma

Malignant neoplasm: Angiosarcoma

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5
Q

Name the malignant neoplasms of smooth muscle and striated muscle.

A

Smooth muscle: Leiomyosarcoma

Striated muscle: Rhabdomyosarcoma

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6
Q

Is Hepatoma benign or malignant? Which cells are affected?

A

Hepatoma is malignant. Affects the liver cells.

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7
Q

Is lymphoma benign or malignant?

A

Malignant. There is no benign lymphoma as the cancerous cells can travel all around the body.

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8
Q

Is Seminoma benign or malignant? Which cells are affected?

A

Seminoma is malignant. Malignant testicular neoplasm.

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9
Q

What is the difference between benign neoplasm and dysplasia?

A

A benign neoplasm forms a lump or mass that can be seen by the naked eye, but dysplasia can only be identified microscopically.

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10
Q

What is the difference between malignant neoplasm and dysplasia?

A

Malignant neoplasms have invaded the neighbouring tissues.

But in dysplasia, the basement membrane is intact.

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11
Q

Which organ is affected in Wilm’s tumour? Is it malignant or benign?

A

Wilm’s tumour: A malignant neoplasm of the kidneys

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12
Q

What are affected in Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

Cancer of the lymphatic system, particularly B lymphocytes in the germinal center. It affects the facial and maxillary bones.

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13
Q

Name the neoplastic disease where there are swellings of lymphoid tissues, spleen and liver, with invasion of other tissues.

A

Hodgkin’s disease

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14
Q

Define carcinoma in situ

A

An abnormal epithelium that has all the cellular features of malignancy (severe dysplasia) but has not invaded through the basement membrane.

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15
Q

Lymphatic spread normally involves a sarcoma or carcinoma?

A

Carcinoma

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16
Q

Haematogenous spread normally involves a sarcoma or carcinoma?

A

Both sarcoma and carcinoma

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17
Q

What is the grade and stage of neoplasm?

A

Grade of the neoplasm describes the degree of malignancy of the neoplasm.

Stage of neoplasm describes the extent of spread of neoplasm.

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18
Q

What is Duke’s staging used for? Describe Duke’s staging.

A

Duke’s staging is used for colorectal cancer.
Duke A: Confined to bowel wall
Duke B: Through bowel wall (invasive)
Duke C: Spread to local lymph nodes (metastasised)

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19
Q

Grade of neoplasm depends on which three features?

A
  1. Mitotic activity
  2. Nuclear size and pleomorphism (variation in size and shape)
  3. Degree of differentiation, i.e. how much it resembles the normal tissue
20
Q

What is growth fraction?

How does the growth fraction apply clinically?

A

The proportion of cells which remains in the proliferating pool.
The higher the growth fraction, the more effective chemotherapy which targets dividing cells will be.

21
Q

What is Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

A

Mutation to p53 gene on short arm of chromosome 17: Increased risk of various tumours

22
Q

What is Wilm’s tumour?

A

Nephroblastoma

23
Q

What are the 3 factors investigated in staging?

A

TNM staging:
T - Size of tumour
N - absence or presence and extent of regional lymph node metastasis
M - Absence or presence of distant metastasis

24
Q

What is Herceptin?

A

herceptin is a humanized monoclonal antibody used to treat women with metastatic disease whose cancer hads molecular alteration.

25
Q

Why is triple negative breast cancer dangerous?

A

Triple Negative breast cancer is dangerous due to resistant to treatments and can metastasise quickly

26
Q

Which genes are the most commonly mutated in breast cancer?

A

BRCA2 and p53 the commonest.

27
Q

What type of mutation occurs to the Ras gene leading to breast and colon cancer?

A

point mutation

28
Q

Which gene is affected in Burkitt’s lymphoma? What type of mutation occured to this gene?

A

myc - translocation

29
Q

What is the genetic mutation to erb-B2 which can lead to breast cancer?

A

amplification

30
Q

What condition results from mutation to the p53 gene?

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

31
Q

Which gene inhibits apoptosis and which gene favours apoptosis?

A

Inhibits apoptosis: bcl-2 and bcl-xL

Favours apoptosis: bwx, bnd and bcl-xS

32
Q

Are DNA repair genes oncogenic? Explain.

A

No, DNA repair genes themselves are not oncogenic but their mutation can allow mutations in other genes.

33
Q

What do most carcinogens require in order to cause tumours?

A

Cofactors

34
Q

What is the difference between direct carcinogens and procarcinogens?

A

Direct carcinogens are in the active form when administered and can lead to cancers instantly.
Procarcinogens must first undergo metabolic conversion to ultimate carcinogens.

35
Q

Define initiation and promotion.

A

Initiation: Mutagen induces genetic alterations.
promotion: Clonal proliferation of transformed cell is stimulated.

36
Q

What are the 4 types of tissues particularly vulnerable to radiation carcinogenesis?

A

Haematopoietic tissue, thyroid, breast and bone

37
Q

Give examples of inorganic and organic carcinogens

A

Inorganic carcinogens: metals (nickel) or asbestos (mineral fibres)
Organic carcinogens: nitrosamines, azodyes and aromatic amines, polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

38
Q

What are the cancers associated with the following chemical carcinogens?

a) polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
b) aromatic amines
c) nitrosamines
d) azodyes
e) alkylating agents

A

a) polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons: lung and skin cancer
b) aromatic amines: bladder cancer
c) nitrosamines: gut cancer
d) azodyes: bladder and liver cancer
e) alkylating agents: leukemia

39
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with which virus?

A

EBV

40
Q

What are the viruses that can cause cancers?

A

Herpes virus: EBV - Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma; HHV8: Kaposi’s sarcoma
Papova virus: HPV: Genital warts and cervical cancer
Hepadna virus: HBV: Hepatocellular carcinoma

41
Q

What is malignant neoplasm of placental tissue called?

A

Choriocarcinoma

42
Q

Cancers expressing HER2 can be treated with what drug?

A

Trastuzumab, or otherwise known as Herceptin

43
Q

Where does cervical intraepithelial neoplasia develops in?

A

CIN develops in the metaplastic squamous epithelium of the transformation zone.

44
Q

How is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia graded? Describe the gradings.

A

Cervical Intraepithelial neoplasm is graded based on the level at which maturation occurs.

a) CIN1 - Maturation of upper 2/3 of epithelium
b) CIN2 - Maturation of upper 1/3 of epithelium
c) CIN3 - No/Little maturation

45
Q

Describe the characteristics of familial cancer and inherited cancers respectively.

A

Familial cancers:
1. No specific phenotype marker
2. Have 1 or 2 close relatives affected
3. Inheritance pattern is unclear
4. Early age of onset
Inherited cancers:
1. Autosomal dominant
2. Have a specific phenotype marker
3. Strong family history of (uncommon) cancer
4. Tumours affect specific sites and tissues
5. Incomplete penetrance, variable expressivity

46
Q

What is colposcopy?

A

A simple procedure used to look at the cervix

47
Q

What is the appropriate screening interval for the effectiveness of cervical screening?

A

3 years interval

CSIM 2017 (20 decks)

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